Chapter 1
Hardware and System Configuration

THE FOLLOWING COMPTIA LINUX+ EXAM OBJECTIVES ARE COVERED IN THIS CHAPTER:

  • images  1.1 Explain Linux boot process concepts.
    • The following is a partial list of the used files, terms, and utilities:
      • Boot loaders such as GRUB and GRUB2
      • Boot options such as UEFI/EFI, PXE, NFS, and booting from ISO and HTTP/FTP
      • /etc/default/grub
      • /etc/grub2.cfg
      • /boot
      • mkinitrd
      • dracut
      • grub2-install
      • grub2-mkconfig
      • initramfs
      • linux.efi
      • vmlinuz
      • vmlinux
  • images  1.2 Given a scenario, install, configure, and monitor kernel modules
    • The following is a partial list of the used files, terms, and utilities:
      • lsmod
      • insmod
      • modprobe
      • dmesg
      • rmmod
      • depmod
      • /usr/lib/[kernelversion]
      • /usr/lib/modules
      • /etc/modprobe.conf
      • /etc/modprobe.d/
  • images  1.3 Given a scenario, configure and verify network connection parameters
    • The following is a partial list of the used files, terms, and utilities:
      • ping
      • netstat
      • nslookup
      • dig
      • host
      • route
      • ip
      • ethtool
      • ss
      • iwconfig
      • nmcli
      • brctl
      • nmtui
      • /etc/sysconfig/network
      • /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/
      • /etc/hosts
      • /etc/network
      • /etc/resolv.conf
      • /etc/netplan
      • /etc/sysctl.conf
      • /etc/dhcpd.conf
      • Bonding aggregation, active/passive, load balancing
  • images  1.4 Given a scenario, manage storage in a Linux environment
    • The following is a partial list of the used files, terms, and utilities:
      • Basic partitions including raw devices, GPT, and MBR
      • File system hierarchy including real file systems, virtual filesystems, relative paths, and absolute paths
      • Device mappers including lvm, mdadm, and Multipath
      • XFS tools
      • LVM tools
      • EXT tools
      • fdisk
      • parted
      • mkfs
      • iostat
      • df
      • du
      • mount
      • umount
      • tune2fs
      • fsck
      • /etc/fstab
      • /etc/cryptab
      • /dev/
      • /dev/mapper
      • /dev/disk/by-id
      • /etc/mtab
      • /sys/block
      • Filesystem types including ext3, ext4, xfs, nfs, smb, cifs, and ntfs
  • images  1.5 Compare and contrast cloud and virtualization concepts and technologies
    • The following is a partial list of the used files, terms, and utilities:
      • Templates including VM, OVA, OVF, JSON, YAML, and container images
      • Bootstrapping, including Cloud-init, Anaconda, and Kickstart
      • Storage such as thin vs. thick provisioning, persistent volumes, blob, and block
      • Network considerations including bridging, overlay networks, NAT, local, and dual-homed
      • Types of hypervisors
      • Tools such as libvirt, virsh, and vmm
  • images  1.6 Given a scenario, configure localization options
    • The following is a partial list of the used files, terms, and utilities:
      • /etc/timezone
      • /usr/share/zoneinfo
      • localectl
      • timedatectl
      • date
      • hwclock
      • time
      • Environment variables such as LC_*, LC_ALL, LANG, and TZ
      • Character sets such as UTF-8, ASCII, and Unicode
  1. Which command is used to load a module and its dependencies automatically?

    1. modprobe
    2. lsmod
    3. insmod
    4. rmmod
  2. Which option given at boot time within the GRUB configuration will boot the system into single-user mode?

    1. single-user
    2. su
    3. single
    4. root
  3. During boot of a system with GRUB2, which key can be pressed to display the GRUB menu?

    1. Shift
    2. E
    3. V
    4. H
  4. Which command can be used to view the kernel ring buffer in order to troubleshoot the boot process?

    1. lsboot
    2. boot-log
    3. krblog
    4. dmesg
  5. Which command can be used to obtain a list of currently loaded kernel modules?

    1. insmod
    2. modlist
    3. ls ––modules
    4. lsmod
  6. Within which partition will the EFI system partition typically be mounted?

    1. /etc/efi
    2. /efi
    3. /sys/efi
    4. /boot/efi
  7. Assuming that a USB disk contains a single partition and is made available on /dev/sdb, which command mounts the disk in /media/usb?

    1. mount /dev/sdb1 /media/usb
    2. usbconnect /dev/sdb0 /media/usb
    3. mount /dev/sdb0 /media/usb
    4. usbmount /dev/sdb1 /media/usb
  8. What is one reason a device driver does not appear in the output of lsmod, even though the device is loaded and working properly?

    1. The use of systemd means drivers are not required for most devices.
    2. The use of initramfs means support is enabled by default.
    3. The system does not need a driver for the device.
    4. Support for the device has been compiled directly into the kernel.
  9. Which option to rmmod will cause the module to wait until it’s no longer in use to unload the module?

    1. -test
    2. -b
    3. -w
    4. -unload
  10. Which command will output a new GRUB2 configuration file and send the output to the correct location for booting?

    1. update-grub > /boot/grub/grub.cfg
    2. update-grub boot > /boot/grub.cfg
    3. grub-rc.d
    4. grub-boot
  11. What is the maximum number of primary partitions available on an MBR partitioning system?

    1. 2
    2. 4
    3. 1
    4. 5
  12. When working with disk partitions through a tool like fdisk, you see the type 0x82. Which type of partition is this?

    1. Linux
    2. Linux swap
    3. NTFS
    4. FAT
  13. Which file should you edit when using GRUB2 in order to set things like the timeout?

    1. /etc/default/grub
    2. /etc/grub/boot
    3. /etc/boot/grub.d
    4. /grub.d/boot
  14. Which option for the grub2-mkconfig command sends output to a file instead of STDOUT?

    1. -stdout
    2. --fileout
    3. -o
    4. -f
  15. Of the following choices, which size would be most appropriate for the /boot partition of a Linux system?

    1. Between 100 MB and 500 MB
    2. Between 1 GB and 10 GB
    3. /boot should not be partitioned separately.
    4. Less than 5 MB
  16. Which of the following commands initializes a physical disk partition for use with LVM?

    1. lvmcreate
    2. pvcreate
    3. fvcreate
    4. lvinit
  17. Which of the following commands installs GRUB into the MBR of the second SATA disk?

    1. grub2-install /dev/hdb2
    2. grub2-install /dev/sda2
    3. grub2-config /dev/sda
    4. grub2-install /dev/sdb
  18. Which command is used to create a logical volume with LVM?

    1. pvcreate
    2. lvmcreate
    3. lvcreate
    4. volcreate
  19. What is the logical order for creation of an LVM logical volume?

    1. Physical volume creation, volume group creation, logical volume creation
    2. Physical volume creation, logical volume creation, volume group creation
    3. Logical volume creation, physical volume creation, volume group creation
    4. LVM creation, format, partition
  20. Which command should be run after making a change to the /etc/default/grub file?

    1. grub
    2. grub-mkconfig
    3. grub-inst
    4. reboot
  21. Which command is used to search for physical volumes for use with LVM?

    1. lvmcreate
    2. pvcreate
    3. lvmdiskscan
    4. lvmscan
  22. A hard drive is reported as hd(0,0) by the GRUB Legacy configuration file. To which of the following disks and partitions does this correspond?

    1. /dev/hdb2
    2. /dev/hda0
    3. /dev/disk1
    4. /dev/sda1
  23. Which of the following commands installs GRUB into the master boot record (MBR) of the first SATA drive?

    1. grub-install /dev/hda
    2. grub-install /dev/sda
    3. grub-install /dev/hd0,0
    4. grub -i /dev/hda
  24. When running fsck on an ext3 filesystem, the process is taking longer than expected and requiring input from the administrator to fix issues. What option could be added to fsck next time so that the command will automatically attempt to fix errors without intervention?

    1. -o
    2. -V
    3. -y
    4. -f
  25. After inserting a new hard drive into the system, what is the correct order to make the drive ready for use within Linux?

    1. Use fdisk to create partitions, and then mount the partitions.
    2. Mount the partitions.
    3. Use fdisk to create partitions and mount -a to mount all the newly created partitions.
    4. Use fdisk to create partitions, then format the partitions using a command such as mkfs, and then mount the partitions.
  26. You are using a storage area network (SAN) that keeps causing errors on your Linux system due to an improper kernel module created by the SAN vendor. When the SAN sends updates, it causes the filesystem to be mounted as read-only. Which command and option can you use to change the behavior of the filesystem to account for the SAN bug?

    1. mount --continue
    2. tune2fs -e continue
    3. mkfs --no-remount
    4. mount -o remount
  27. Which of the following describes a primary difference between ext2 and ext3 filesystems?

    1. ext3 was primarily a bug-fix update to ext2.
    2. ext3 includes journaling for the filesystem.
    3. ext3 completely changed the tools needed for management of the disks.
    4. ext3 has no significant differences.
  28. According to the Filesystem Hierarchy Standard (FHS), what is the correct location for site-specific data for a server?

    1. /etc
    2. /var
    3. /tmp
    4. /srv
  29. Which option to the mount command will mount all filesystems that are currently available in /etc/fstab?

    1. -f
    2. -d
    3. -a
    4. -m
  30. Which command and option are used to display the number of times a filesystem has been mounted?

    1. tune2fs -h
    2. cat /etc/fstab
    3. mount -a
    4. less /etc/fsmnt
  31. Which option to xfs_metadump displays a progress indicator?

    1. -g
    2. -p
    3. -f
    4. -v
  32. The system is running out of disk space within the home directory partition, and quotas have not been enabled. Which command can you use to determine the directories that might contain large files?

    1. du
    2. df
    3. ls
    4. locate
  33. Which file contains information about the filesystems to mount, their partitions, and the options that should be used to mount them?

    1. /etc/filesystems
    2. /etc/mounts
    3. /etc/fstab
    4. /srv/mounts
  34. According to the FHS, what is the proper mount point for removable media?

    1. /etc
    2. /srv
    3. /tmp
    4. /media
  35. Which file contains information on currently mounted filesystems, including their mount options?

    1. /etc/mtab
    2. /etc/fstab
    3. /tmp/files
    4. /etc/filesystems
  36. Which option to umount will cause the command to attempt to remount the filesystem in read-only mode if the unmounting process fails?

    1. -o
    2. -r
    3. -f
    4. -v
  37. Which of the following represents the correct format for the /etc/fstab file?

    1. <directory> <device> <type> <options>
    2. <device> <type> <options>
    3. <device> <type> <options> <directory> <dump> <fsck>
    4. <device> <directory> <type> <options> <dump> <fsck>
  38. Which of the following commands is used to identify the UUID for partitions?

    1. blkid
    2. ls
    3. find
    4. cat
  39. The xfs_info command is functionally equivalent to which command and option?

    1. xfs_test -n
    2. xfs_list
    3. tunexfs -i
    4. xfs_growfs -n
  40. Which of the following commands will create a btrfs filesystem on the first SATA drive?

    1. mkfs /dev/sda1
    2. mkfs.btrfs /dev/sda
    3. mkfs.btr2fs /dev/sda1
    4. mkfs –b /dev/sda
  41. Which command and option are used to set the maximum number of times a filesystem can be mounted between running fsck?

    1. tune2fs -c
    2. dumpe2fs
    3. tune2fs -m
    4. setmount
  42. Which command can be used to change the partitioning scheme for a disk, such as to change the size of existing partitions without deleting them?

    1. resize2fs
    2. parted
    3. mkfs
    4. rfdisk
  43. Which of the following commands will mount a USB device at /dev/sdb1 into the /media/usb directory, assuming a VFAT filesystem for the USB drive?

    1. mount -t vfat /dev/sdb1 /mnt
    2. usbmount /dev/sdb1 /mnt/usb
    3. mount -t vfat /dev/sdb1 /mnt/usb
    4. mount -t usb /dev/sdb1 /mnt/usb
  44. Which option within gdisk will change the partition name?

    1. n
    2. b
    3. v
    4. c
  45. Which option to the dumpe2fs command can be used to display blocks that are reserved because of being marked as bad?

    1. -v
    2. -f
    3. -b
    4. -m
  46. Which options to fsck can be used to check all filesystems listed in /etc/fstab while excluding the root partition?

    1. -NR
    2. -AM
    3. -X
    4. -C
  47. Which option in /etc/fstab sets the order in which the device is checked at boot time?

    1. options
    2. dump
    3. fsck
    4. checkorder
  48. Which file is used to indicate the local time zone on a Linux server?

    1. /etc/timez
    2. /etc/timezoneconfig
    3. /etc/timezone
    4. /etc/localtz
  49. Within which directory will you find files related to the time zone for various regions?

    1. /etc/timezoneinfo
    2. /etc/zoneinfo
    3. /var/zoneinfo
    4. /usr/share/zoneinfo
  50. Which command within virsh obtains information about a domain?

    1. info
    2. dominfo
    3. domainlist
    4. infodom
  51. Which environment variable controls the format of dates and times, such as a 12-hour or 24-hour formatted clock?

    1. LOCALE_DATE
    2. DATE_FORMAT
    3. LC_TIME
    4. LC_DATE
  52. Which of the following encodings provides a multibyte representation of characters?

    1. ISO-8859
    2. UTF-8
    3. ISO-L
    4. UFTMulti
  53. Which command can be used to view the available time zones on a system?

    1. tzd
    2. /etc/locale
    3. timedatectl
    4. tzsel
  54. Which of the following lines added to .profile in a user’s home directory will set their time zone to Central time?

    1. TZ=/Central ; export TZ
    2. TIMEZONE=’America/Chicago’ ; export TIMEZONE
    3. set TZ=/Central
    4. TZ=’America/Chicago’; export TZ
  55. Which of the following values for the LANG variable will configure the system to bypass locale translations where possible?

    1. LANG=COMPAT
    2. LANG=NONE
    3. LANG=C
    4. LANG=END
  56. If you need to temporarily reconfigure all locale variables and settings for a given session, which environment variable can be used?

    1. LC_LIST
    2. LC_GLOBAL
    3. LC_ALL
    4. ALL_LOCALE
  57. Which of the following commands will set the systemwide time zone to ’America/Los_Angeles’?

    1. ln -sf /usr/share/zoneinfo/America/Los_Angeles /etc/localtime
    2. ln -sf America/Los_Angeles ; /etc/localtime
    3. ln -sd /etc/localtime /usr/share/timezone/America/Los_Angeles
    4. ln -sf /etc/localtime /usr/share/zoneinfo/America/Los_Angeles
  58. Which locale-related variable is used for currency-related localization?

    1. LC_MONE
    2. LC_CURRENCY
    3. LC_MONETARY
    4. LC_CURR
  59. Which command is used to query and work with the hardware clock on the system?

    1. hwc
    2. ntpdate
    3. systime
    4. hwclock
  60. Which option to the date command can be used to set the date and time?

    1. date -f
    2. date -t
    3. date --change
    4. date -s
  61. Which function of the hwclock command will set the hardware clock to the current system time?

    1. -w
    2. -s
    3. -a
    4. -m
  62. Which of the following commands sets the hardware clock to UTC based on the current system time?

    1. hwclock --systohc --utc
    2. hwclock --systohc --localtime
    3. hwclock --systohc
    4. hwclock --systoutc
  63. Which of the following commands shows the current default route without performing DNS lookups on the IP address(es) involved?

    1. netstat -rn
    2. netstat -n
    3. netstat -r
    4. netstat -f
  64. Which of the following is not used as a private address for local, non-Internet, use?

    1. 172.16.4.2
    2. 192.168.40.3
    3. 10.74.5.244
    4. 143.236.32.231
  65. Which of the following commands adds a default gateway of 192.168.1.1 for interface eth0?

    1. route add default gateway 192.168.1.1 eth0
    2. eth0 --dg 192.168.1.1
    3. route add default gw 192.168.1.1 eth0
    4. route define eth0 192.168.1.1
  66. Which option for the host command will query for the authoritative name servers for a given domain?

    1. -t ns
    2. -t all
    3. -ns
    4. -named
  67. Which option for the ping command enables you to choose the interface from which the ICMP packets will be generated?

    1. -i
    2. -I
    3. -t
    4. -a
  68. Which of the following commands queries for the mail servers for the domain example.com?

    1. dig example.com mx
    2. dig example.com
    3. host -t smtp example.com
    4. dig example.com smtp
  69. Which of the following addresses represents the localhost in IPv6, such as you might find in /etc/hosts?

    1. 0:1
    2. ::1
    3. 127:0:1
    4. :127:0:0:1
  70. Which command can be used to listen for netlink messages on a network?

    1. ip monitor
    2. netlink -a
    3. ip netlink
    4. route
  71. Which of the following configuration lines in /etc/nsswitch.conf causes a lookup for group information to first use local files and then use LDAP?

    1. group: files ldap
    2. lookup: group [local ldap]
    3. group: [local ldap]
    4. group: localfiles ldap
  72. Which of the following dig commands sends the query for example.com directly to the server at 192.168.2.5 rather than to a locally configured resolver?

    1. dig example.com @192.168.2.5
    2. dig -t 192.168.2.5 example.com
    3. dig -s 192.168.2.5 example.com
    4. dig server=192.168.2.5 example.com
  73. Which of the following commands will enumerate the hosts database?

    1. getent hosts
    2. gethosts
    3. nslookup
    4. host
  74. Which of the following configuration lines will set the DNS server to 192.168.1.4 using /etc/resolv.conf?

    1. dns 192.168.1.4
    2. dns-server 192.168.1.4
    3. nameserver 192.168.1.4
    4. name-server 192.168.1.4
  75. Which of the following commands adds a route to the server for the network 192.168.51.0/24 through its gateway 192.168.51.1?

    1. route add -net 192.168.51.0 netmask 255.255.255.0 gw 192.168.51.1
    2. route add -net 192.168.51/24 gw 192.168.1.51
    3. route -net 192.168.51.0/24 192.168.51.1
    4. route add 192.168.51.1 -n 192.168.51.0//255.255.255.0
  76. Which of the following commands shows network services or sockets that are currently listening along with sockets that are not listening?

    1. netstat -a
    2. netlink -a
    3. sockets -f
    4. opensock -l
  77. Which of the following represents a correct configuration line for /etc/hosts?

    1. 192.168.1.4 cwa.braingia.org cwa
    2. cwa.braingia.org cwa 192.168.1.4
    3. cwa.braingia.org 192.168.1.8 alias cwa
    4. alias cwa.braingia.org cwa 192.168.1.4
  78. Which of the following commands will change the default gateway to 192.168.1.1 using eth0?

    1. ip route default gw 192.168.1.1
    2. ip route change default via 192.168.1.1 dev eth0
    3. ip route default gw update 192.168.1.1
    4. ip route update default 192.168.1.1 eth0
  79. Which of the following commands displays the Start of Authority information for the domain example.com?

    1. dig example.com soa
    2. dig example.com authority
    3. dig example.com -auth
    4. dig -t auth example.com
  80. Assume that you want to enable local client services to go to hosts on the network without needing to fully qualify the name by adding the domain for either example.com or example.org. Which option in /etc/resolv.conf will provide this functionality?

    1. search
    2. domain
    3. local-domain
    4. local-order
  81. Which of the following commands prevents traffic from reaching the host 192.168.1.3?

    1. route add -host 192.168.1.3 reject
    2. route -nullroute 192.168.1.3
    3. route add -null 192.168.1.3
    4. route add -block 192.168.1.3
  82. Which of the following commands will emulate the ping command in Microsoft Windows, where the ping is sent for four packets and then the command exits?

    1. ping -n 4
    2. ping -t 4
    3. ping -p 4
    4. ping -c 4
  83. You need to prevent local clients from going to a certain host, www.example.com, and instead redirect them to localhost. Which of the following is a method to override DNS lookups for the specified host?

    1. Add a firewall entry for the IP address of www.example.com to prevent traffic from passing through it.
    2. Delete www.example.com from the route table using the route command.
    3. Add a null route to prevent access to the IP address for www.example.com.
    4. Add an entry for www.example.com in /etc/hosts to point to 127.0.0.1.
  84. Which of the following commands should be executed after running ip route change?

    1. ip route flush cache
    2. ip route reload
    3. ip route cache reload
    4. ip route restart
  85. Which option should be used to send a DNS query for an SPF record with dig?

    1. -t txt
    2. -t spf
    3. -t mx
    4. -t mailspf
  86. When viewing the available routes using the route command, one route contains flags UG while the others contain U. What does the letter G signify in the route table?

    1. The G signifies that the route is good.
    2. The G signifies that the route is unavailable.
    3. The G signifies that this is a gateway.
    4. The G signifies that the route is an aggregate.
  87. Which of the following commands requests a zone transfer of example.org from the server at 192.168.1.4?

    1. dig example.org @192.168.1.4 axfr
    2. dig example.org @192.168.1.4
    3. dig example.org @192.168.1.4 xfer
    4. dig example.org #192.168.1.4 xfer
  88. When using iostat to assess performance, which option displays information on a per-partition basis for block devices?

    1. -a
    2. -c
    3. -d
    4. -p
  89. Which of the following commands can be used to display the current disk utilization?

    1. df
    2. du
    3. diskutil
    4. diskuse
  90. You are working with a legacy CentOS 5 system and need to re-create the initial RAM disk. Which of the following commands is used for this purpose?

    1. mkinitrd
    2. mkramdisk
    3. mkdisk --init
    4. mkfs.init
  91. Which of the following commands is used to display the currently loaded modules on a running system?

    1. ls -mod
    2. lsmod
    3. listmod
    4. mod --list
  92. Which of the following commands creates a list of modules and their dependencies?

    1. lsmod
    2. depmod
    3. modlist
    4. listmod
  93. Which option to sysctl displays all values and their current settings?

    1. -a
    2. -b
    3. -d
    4. -c
  94. Which of the following commands installs a kernel module, including dependencies?

    1. lsmod
    2. modprobe
    3. modinst
    4. instmod
  95. Which command is used to determine the modules on which another module depends?

    1. modinfo
    2. modlist
    3. modprobe
    4. tracemod
  96. Which of the following commands inserts a module into the running kernel but does not resolve dependencies?

    1. lsmod
    2. modinstall
    3. insmod
    4. moduleinst
  97. Which option to modprobe will remove a module and attempt to remove any unused modules on which it depends?

    1. -v
    2. -r
    3. -d
    4. -f
  98. Within which of the following directories will you find blacklist information for modules loaded with modprobe?

    1. /etc/blacklist
    2. /etc/modprobe.d
    3. /etc/blacklist.mod
    4. /etc/modprobe
  99. When working with a CentOS 6 system, which command is used to create the initial RAM disk?

    1. mkinit
    2. dracut
    3. mkraminit
    4. mkinitfs
  100. If you’d like a value set with the sysctl command to take effect on boot, within which file should you place the variable and its value?

    1. /etc/sysctl.cfg
    2. /etc/sysctl.conf
    3. /lib/sysctl
    4. /var/sysctl.conf
  101. Which of the following options to modprobe will show the dependencies for a module?

    1. --show-deps
    2. --show-depends
    3. --deps
    4. --list-depends
  102. Which of the following commands mounts /dev/sda1 in the /boot partition?

    1. mount /dev/sda /boot
    2. mount /boot /dev/sda1
    3. mount /dev/sda1 /boot
    4. mount -dev sda1 /boot
  103. Which of the following commands changes the boot order for the next boot?

    1. efibootmgr -c
    2. efibootmgr -b -B
    3. efibootmgr -o
    4. efibootmgr -n
  104. Which bootloader can be used to boot from ISO with ISO9660 CD-ROMs?

    1. ISOLINUX
    2. EFIBOOT
    3. ISOFS
    4. BOOTISO
  105. When using UEFI, which of the following files can be used as a bootloader?

    1. shim.uefi
    2. shim.efi
    3. shim.fx
    4. efi.shim
  106. Which of the following commands, executed from within the UEFI shell, controls the boot configuration?

    1. bootcfg
    2. bcfg
    3. grub-install
    4. grcfg
  107. Which of the following can be identified as an initial sector on a disk that stores information about the disk partitioning and operating system location?

    1. Minimal Boot Record (MBR)
    2. Master Boot Record (MBR)
    3. Init Sector
    4. Master Partition Table (MPT)
  108. When using PXE boot, which file must exist within /tftpboot on the TFTP server for the system that will use PXELINUX for its bootloader?

    1. pxelinux.tftp
    2. pxelinux.boot
    3. pxelinux.conf
    4. pxelinux.0
  109. Which option to grub-install will place the GRUB images into an alternate directory?

    1. --boot-dir
    2. -b
    3. -boot
    4. --boot-directory
  110. When using a shim for booting a UEFI-based system, which of the following files is loaded after shim.efi?

    1. grubx64.cfg
    2. grub.conf
    3. grubx64.efi
    4. efi.boot
  111. Part of the EXT tools, which option to the mke2fs command sets the type of filesystem to be created?

    1. -f
    2. -a
    3. -t
    4. -e
  112. Which file is used to store a list of encrypted devices that are to be mounted at boot?

    1. /etc/cryptdev
    2. /etc/crypttab
    3. /etc/encrtab
    4. /etc/fsencrypt
  113. Which option to dumpe2fs displays the bad blocks for a given partition?

    1. -bb
    2. -C
    3. -b
    4. -f
  114. Which option to xfs_check is used to verify a filesystem that is stored in a file?

    1. -v
    2. -a
    3. -f
    4. -d
  115. You are performing an xfsrestore. The xfsdump was executed with a block size of 4M. Which option do you need to invoke on xfsrestore in order for it to successfully use this dump?

    1. -b 4M
    2. -g 1M
    3. -i 1M
    4. -k 1028K
  116. You see the word defaults within /etc/fstab. Which options are encompassed within the defaults?

    1. ro, exec, auto
    2. rw, suid, dev, exec, auto, nouser, async
    3. rw, exec, auto, nouser, async
    4. rw, exec, nouser, async, noauto, suid
  117. Which of the following options to xfsdump sets the maximum size for files to be included in the dump?

    1. -p
    2. -s
    3. -z
    4. -b
  118. Which partition type is used to indicate a software RAID array, such as an array built with mdadm?

    1. 0xmd
    2. -x-
    3. 0xRD
    4. 0xFD
  119. When working with World Wide Identifiers (WWIDs), within which directory on a Red Hat server will you find symlinks to the current /dev/sd device names?

    1. /dev/disk/wwid
    2. /dev/wwid
    3. /dev/disk/by-id
    4. /dev/sd.wwid
  120. Which of the following commands displays information about a given physical volume in an LVM setup?

    1. pvdisp
    2. pvlist
    3. pvdisplay
    4. pvl
  121. When viewing information in /dev/disk/by-path using the command ls -l, which of the following filenames represents a LUN from Fibre Channel?

    1. /dev/fc0
    2. pci-0000:1a:00.0-fc-0x500601653ee0025f:0x0000000000000000
    3. pci-0000:1a:00.0-scsi-0x500601653ee0025f:0x0000000000000000
    4. /dev/fibre0
  122. Which of the following commands displays path information for LUNs?

    1. luninfo -a
    2. ls -lun
    3. multipath -l
    4. dm-multi
  123. Which command is used to remove unused filesystem blocks from thinly provisioned storage?

    1. thintrim
    2. thtrim
    3. fstrim
    4. fsclean
  124. When using tune2fs to set an extended option such as stripe_width, which command-line option is needed to signify that an extended option follows?

    1. -extend
    2. -E
    3. -e
    4. -f
  125. Which option to mdadm is used to create a new array?

    1. --create
    2. --start
    3. --begin
    4. --construct
  126. Information about logical volumes can be found in which of the following directories?

    1. /dev/lvinfo
    2. /dev/map
    3. /dev/mapper
    4. /dev/lvmap
  127. Which option to mdadm watches a RAID array for anomalies?

    1. --mon
    2. --watch
    3. --monitor
    4. --examine
  128. When running mdadm in monitor mode, which option within /etc/mdadm.conf sets the destination for email if an issue is discovered?

    1. MAILTO
    2. MAILADDR
    3. MAILFROM
    4. MAILDEST
  129. When using the ip command, which protocol family is used as the default if not otherwise specified?

    1. tcpip
    2. ip
    3. inet
    4. arp
  130. Which command is used for setting parameters such as the essid, channel, and other related options for a wireless device?

    1. ifconfig
    2. iwconfig
    3. wlancfg
    4. iconf
  131. Which of the following commands shows network sockets and their allocated memory?

    1. ss -m
    2. mpas
    3. mem
    4. free
  132. Which option to the ss command shows the process IDs associated with the socket?

    1. -l
    2. -a
    3. -p
    4. -f
  133. On a Debian system, within which directory hierarchy will you find configuration information and directories to hold scripts to be run when an interface is brought up or taken down?

    1. /etc/netconf
    2. /etc/netconfig
    3. /etc/net.conf.d
    4. /etc/network
  134. Which of the following characters are valid for hostnames in /etc/hosts?

    1. Alphanumerics, minus, underscore, and dot
    2. Alphanumerics, minus, and dot
    3. Alphanumerics and dot
    4. Alphanumerics
  135. Which of the following configuration lines in /etc/resolv.conf enables debugging?

    1. debug
    2. options debug
    3. option debug
    4. enable-debug
  136. The system contains an NFS mounted filesystem that has become unreachable. Which option should be passed to umount in order to force the unmounting of the filesystem?

    1. -nfs
    2. --fake
    3. -f
    4. -n
  137. Which of the following commands will send the output of the grub2-mkconfig command to the correct location for booting?

    1. grub2-mkconfig --output=/boot/grub2/grub.cfg
    2. grub2-mkconfig --file=/boot/grub2.menu
    3. grub2-mkconfig --file=/boot/grub.lst
    4. grub2-mkconfig --output=/boot/menu.lst
  138. Which PXE Linux binary file is required for booting from HTTP or FTP?

    1. lpxelinux.0
    2. pxelinux.http
    3. netpxlinux.0
    4. netpxe.0
  139. The file /etc/grub2.cfg is typically a symbolic link to which file?

    1. /boot/grub.conf
    2. /boot/grub2/grub.cfg
    3. /boot/grub2.conf
    4. /etc/sysconfig/grub2.cfg
  140. Which of the following describes a difference between vmlinuz and vmlinux?

    1. vmlinuz is used for zOS systems, and vmlinux is used for x86 architecture.
    2. vmlinuz is used for 64-bit systems, and vmlinux is used for 32-bit systems.
    3. vmlinuz is compressed, whereas vmlinux is not.
    4. vmlinuz contains additional binary code for certain systems.
  141. Which of the following is the location in which kernel modules are stored?

    1. /usr/modules
    2. /modules
    3. /usr/lib/modules/{kernel-version}
    4. /usr/modules/{kernel-version}
  142. After recovering from kernel panic, you would like to look at what might have happened. Which of the following files contains the kernel ring buffer messages?

    1. /var/log/dmesglog
    2. /var/log/dmesg.log
    3. /var/log/kern.log
    4. /var/log/bootlog.txt
  143. You have been asked to create a template for virtualization. The template will be in JSON format. Which of the following is the correct name for JSON?

    1. Just Simple Object Nodes
    2. JavaScript Object Notation
    3. Java Standard Object Notation
    4. JavaScript Standard Object Notation
  144. You are using a container image for a cloud deployment and are building a stateful application that must store data between deployments. Which type of storage should be used?

    1. Ephemeral volume
    2. Bridged volume
    3. Container image
    4. Persistent volume
  145. When working with a network configuration, which of the following terms refers to a computer with two network interfaces?

    1. Bridging
    2. Dual-homed
    3. Overlay
    4. Forwarding
  146. Which of the following commands is used to change the keyboard layout settings?

    1. keybrdctl
    2. keyctl
    3. localectl
    4. localemap
  147. Which of the following directories contains configuration files related to networking?

    1. /etc/netdevices/
    2. /etc/netcfg/
    3. /etc/config/network/
    4. /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/
  148. You need to change the label that has been applied to a filesystem. The filesystem is formatted as EXT4. Which EXT tool can be used to change the label?

    1. e2label
    2. e4label
    3. fslabel.ext4
    4. fslabel
  149. The default format for an OVF template uses which document standard?

    1. YML
    2. XML
    3. OVFMeta
    4. HTML
  150. Which of the following describes the difference between NAT and bridging in a virtualization environment?

    1. NAT uses the host adapter IP address for all network activity, while bridging enables the virtual machine to get its own IP.
    2. NAT enables the virtual machine to get its own IP, while bridging uses the host adapter IP address for all network activity.
    3. NAT is used to enable external clients to access the virtual machine, and bridging joins two virtual machines together.
    4. NAT and bridging refer to the same thing in virtualization.
  151. Assume you need to add a kernel module with a custom command, such as to specify options at load time. Within which file could you add this configuration?

    1. /etc/modprobe-cfg
    2. /etc/modprobe.conf
    3. /etc/modprobe.cf
    4. /etc/modprobe.cfg
  152. Which mode of network bonding is used for an active/passive configuration?

    1. active-passive
    2. active-balance
    3. active-backup
    4. active-back
  153. Which command is used to install a kernel into the /boot directory, using the files from /usr/lib/kernel?

    1. kernel-ins
    2. ins-kernel
    3. install-kernel
    4. kernel-install
  154. When troubleshooting a file that is not found, you notice that the file location is linked as ../file.txt. Which type of path has been used for this file?

    1. Virtual
    2. Symbolic
    3. Relative
    4. Absolute
  155. When using fdisk to partition a disk, you have two partitions created for the system but still have leftover space, also called unallocated space, on the drive. What is another name used to refer to unallocated space?

    1. Highly available
    2. Redundant
    3. Raw device
    4. Partition forward
  156. Which of the following values to LIBVIRT_DEBUG is used to enable debug logging for libvirt?

    1. 1
    2. 2
    3. 3
    4. 4
  157. Which of the following describes the relationship between anaconda and kickstart?

    1. Anaconda is used to script an installation, while kickstart is used to boot the system.
    2. Kickstart is used to script an installation, while anaconda is used to install the system.
    3. Anaconda is used to install the system, while kickstart is used to boot the system.
    4. Kickstart is used to install the system, while anaconda is used to boot the system.
  158. Which command can be used to determine how much time a Linux command takes?

    1. time
    2. cmdtime
    3. timeproc
    4. proctime
  159. Which type of storage would be the most appropriate format to store a large object as a single file in a cloud environment?

    1. Block
    2. ext2
    3. cifs
    4. Blob
  160. Which layer is used to enable client applications to work with disk devices in a standard way, regardless of disk architecture?

    1. Virtual filesystem
    2. Redundant filesystem
    3. Physical filesystem
    4. ICE
  161. Which of the following real filesystems can be resized using resize2fs?

    1. nfs
    2. ext2
    3. ext3
    4. cifs
  162. Which subcommand to the virsh command is used to connect to the hypervisor?

    1. plug
    2. hypervisorconnect
    3. conhyper
    4. connect
  163. You need to determine if ASCII and Unicode are supported on the system. Which option to the iconv command shows the available character sets on a given system?

    1. --showchar
    2. --show
    3. --list
    4. --all
  164. Which of the following best describes the /dev/ filesystem?

    1. The /dev/ filesystem is used for storing device information for connected devices.
    2. The /dev/ filesystem is used for configuration files.
    3. The /dev/ filesystem is used for development.
    4. The /dev/ filesystem is used to list devices for compilation into the kernel.
  165. Which of the following files shows the currently mounted filesystems?

    1. /etc/fstab
    2. /proc/mounts
    3. /fs
    4. /root/mounts
  166. When working with a Microsoft Windows-based filesystem, you see that it is mounted as a CIFS mount. What does CIFS stand for?

    1. Common Information File Sharing
    2. Common Internet File System
    3. Cloned Internet File Sharing
    4. Created In Five Seconds
  167. When using cloud-init for deployment of an EC2 instance, which format should be used for the configuration files?

    1. XML
    2. YAML
    3. HTML
    4. JS
  168. Which option to the blkid command purges the cache to remove devices that do not exist?

    1. -p
    2. -a
    3. -g
    4. -m
  169. While you can use blkid to obtain the UUIDs for filesystems, which location on the filesystem also shows this information?

    1. /dev/diskbyuuid
    2. /dev/uuid
    3. /dev/fs/uuid
    4. /dev/disk/by-uuid
  170. In a scripting scenario, you need to enable legacy locations for things like networking. Which file can be used for storing network configuration?

    1. /etc/netdev
    2. /etc/networking
    3. /etc/sysconfig/network
    4. /etc/sysconfig/netdev
  171. You are building a configuration that requires bonded-link aggregation on the Linux server. Which protocol should the switch support in order to take advantage of aggregation?

    1. 802.11
    2. LACP
    3. LinkAG
    4. 802.3ag
  172. Which of the vmm (virt-manager) tools is used to install a virtual machine?

    1. virt-install
    2. vm-install
    3. install-virt
    4. virt-launch
  173. When checking filesystems with the fsck command, which option skips checking of the root filesystem?

    1. -A
    2. -M
    3. -R
    4. -S
  174. Which type of virtualization hypervisor is considered a Type 1 hypervisor?

    1. Bare-metal
    2. Hosted
    3. Hypervisor on Linux
    4. Virtualized cloud
  175. Which file contains the current list of partitions along with their major and minor numbers and number of blocks?

    1. /dev/disk
    2. /dev/partitions
    3. /proc/disk
    4. /proc/partitions
  176. Assuming a block storage device used for virtualization of sda, which file can be used to view the number of read I/O requests for the device?

    1. /proc/sys/sda
    2. /proc/sys/sda/stat
    3. /sys/block/sda/stat
    4. /sys/disk/sda/stat
  177. Which of the following best describes an OVA file?

    1. It is a virtualization appliance file.
    2. It is an open virtualization configuration file in YAML format.
    3. It is an open virtualized application file.
    4. It is an open virtual asset.
  178. Files found within the /etc/netplan directory should be formatted using which syntax?

    1. JSON
    2. YAML
    3. XML
    4. Key=Value
  179. When using the du command to diagnose which directories are large, you would like to summarize the output in a more human-friendly format. Which option(s) should be used?

    1. --summarize
    2. -uh
    3. -h
    4. -sh
  180. When using a multipath device, found in /dev/disk/by-multipath, what is the name given to the identifier for that device that is globally unique?

    1. UUID
    2. WWID
    3. GUID
    4. DISKID
  181. Which of the following is not a valid option for booting when using kickstart?

    1. CD-ROM
    2. NFS
    3. HTTP
    4. SFTP
  182. Which of the following modes are used for load balancing in a bonding scenario on Linux?

    1. balance
    2. lb
    3. balance-rr
    4. balance-load
  183. While troubleshooting a kernel issue and using the console, you are having difficulty working with the console due to continual messages being displayed on the console itself. Which option to dmesg can be used to disable logging to the console?

    1. -o "no logging console"
    2. -D
    3. -Q
    4. -F
  184. Which option to rmmod forces the module to be unloaded?

    1. -f
    2. -a
    3. -w
    4. -h
  185. Which command-line option modifies the behavior of depmod such that only newer modules are added when comparing modules.dep?

    1. -A
    2. -B
    3. -C
    4. -D
  186. Which command prints device and partition information in a tree-like structure, including partition size and current mount status?

    1. fsck
    2. lsblk
    3. blkshow
    4. shblk
  187. You need to create a script for use with the parted command. When using the parted command to obtain a list of partitions, which additional option formats the output such that it can be more easily parsed by a script?

    1. -p
    2. -S
    3. -m
    4. -v
  188. Which command is used to create an ethernet bridge?

    1. bridgecon
    2. brctl
    3. bridgeman
    4. BridgeManager
  189. Which file is used to maintain the configuration for DHCP?

    1. /etc/dhcpd.conf
    2. /etc/DHCP.cfg
    3. /etc/DHCPconf.txt
    4. /sys/dhcp.conf
  190. You are working with a network interface called ens3 and would like to determine which driver is being used for this device. Which command is valid for this purpose?

    1. ip list ens3
    2. netstat ens3
    3. ethtool -i ens3
    4. ethlist ens3
  191. When using nslookup interactively, which of the following commands changes the destination to which queries will be sent?

    1. dest
    2. server
    3. queryhost
    4. destination
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