PMP Practice Exam
Test-Taking Tips
When you sit for the PMP certification examination, there will be 200 multiple-choice questions and you will have up to four hours to complete the examination. This breaks down to 50 questions per hour and a little more than a minute per question. The practice exam included in this book is also 200 questions and simulates the questions you will see on the real exam. Not all questions require equal time. Don’t agonize over every question. Read the question and each possible answer in its entirety prior to selecting an answer. Select the best answer to each question based on the response that seems to adhere to the PMBOK and PMI.
More than one answer might seem plausible and correct. Select the best answer from those provided rather than aiming for the “correct” answer. In some cases, multiple choices among the available answers might seem equally valid, so it is important to rule out obviously incorrect choices to narrow your options.
If more than one answer seems logical, look for an answer that includes both responses. Some of your choices include “Both X and Y,” “Neither X nor Y,” “All of the above,” or “None of the above.” The inclusion of a choice that includes multiple answers does not mean it is the correct answer. Some of the choices can be tricky in this regard.
Likewise, many of the available choices include terminology, concepts, and processes endorsed by the PMBOK and PMI. Just because you recognize the term does not mean this is the correct answer. The exam uses terms in similar contexts to assure you thoroughly understand and can apply the material. Be sure to read each question carefully to avoid any confusion among terminology or process names.
In your response to every test question, you should strive to select the best answer based on how you believe PMI and the PMBOK would respond given the question and not necessarily from your own project management experience. The best answer as determined by PMI is provided as one of the four possible responses.
Be suspicious of answers offering definitive responses such as never and always. Some answers might tout non-PMI methods and reflect common project management misconceptions. Some answers might offer correct information but the information is not pertinent to the question at hand and is simply included to confuse you. Similarly, some questions might contain factually correct information that has no bearing to the possible answers. If you do not have a firm grasp of the material and immediately know the best answer, you can waste valuable test time trying to figure out a way to use and apply irrelevant information. This is particularly tricky when mathematical calculations are requested in response to an examination question. Remember that the purpose of this exam is to measure your ability to understand and apply the PMI methodology, not your past experiences as a project manager. Whenever there is a discrepancy between your experience and the PMBOK, go with the PMBOK answer.
It is important to apply the same test conditions to taking this practice exam as you expect to experience on the day of the actual test. Be aware of your time to avoid having to rush at the end to complete the examination. You should leave adequate time to review any responses you are unsure of and/or to return to unanswered questions. If you are spending more than one minute on a question, it is better to skip over the question and mark it for review later than to agonize over the question and lose the opportunity to answer other questions to which you know the answer.
During the actual computerized exam, you can mark questions for later review and/or make multiple passes through the exam. Mark every question you are unsure of even if you have selected an answer. This approach saves you time when you review your responses because you do not need to review any unmarked questions. If on a second review you determine an answer, unmark the question. Continue this process of going through all the marked questions until they all have answers or you are nearing the end of the allotted time period.
Save the last 20 minutes or so of the test to finalize any unmarked answers and assure you have provided an answer to each question. For the practice test, if you adhere to the suggested one minute per question rule of thumb, you have 10 minutes to review your answers and respond to any marked questions. On the actual exam day, try to make a best guess by ruling out definitely wrong answers as discussed earlier. Select an answer for each question even if you have to guess. There is no penalty for incorrect answers.
Exam Topics
The PMP certification examination tests for knowledge in the five project management process groups as well as in the area of professional responsibility. The project management process groups are
Initiating
Planning
Executing
Monitoring and Controlling
Closing
Exam Questions
1. You are a project manager working for a large utility company. You have managed many successful projects and have decided to pursue the PMP certification. After studying the processes in the Project Controlling and Monitoring Process Group, you find that the PMI processes differ a lot from the processes you currently use in your own organization. The processes your organization uses work very well and you are confused at the PMI approach. To answer questions on the PMP exam, should you
A. Use your experience with managing projects, along with the information in the PMBOK.
B. Use your experience as a project manager to find the best answers.
C. Use the PMBOK as the primary resource, and your experience as a project manager to apply the PMBOK knowledge.
D. Use the PMBOK information only. No other information is relevant.
2. To study for the PMP exam, you decide to join a study group. At the first meeting another student offers to share some “actual, live questions” from the PMP exam. What should you do?
A. Study with the real questions
B. Report the study group to PMI
C. Leave the study group
D. Find out where the student got the questions and report the source to PMI
3. While building your project team you decide to include a business analyst with extensive experience in implementing, using, and managing tasks with the new chosen accounting software. This individual has managed and participated in other projects that are similar and knows how to work well with users, technical personnel and management to get the software up and running. Your choice to include this individual is due to the fact he possesses expertise in which PMI knowledge area?
A. General management knowledge and skills
B. Interpersonal skills
C. Application area specific knowledge and standards
D. Software implementation
4. Which quality management tool would be used to determine potential causes of a production problem?
A. Control chart
B. Fishbone diagram
C. Scatter diagram
D. Histogram
5. Smoothing out resource requirements from period to period is
A. Allocation
B. Partitioning
C. Leveling
D. Quantification
6. At what point in a project do you have the highest probability that it will fail?
A. The beginning of the project
B. After the initial project plan is published but before work actually begins
C. After the halfway point of the project is reached
D. Just before the end of the project
7. You have just completed the collect requirements and define scope processes. What should you do next?
A. Verify scope
B. Define activities
C. Create WBS
D. Control scope
8. You have just been assigned as the project manager for a new project. You have collected the necessary input information and delivered the project charter to the stakeholders. What should you do next?
A. Develop the project scope statement
B. Get the project charter signed
C. Start the initial project planning process
D. Ask the stakeholders for resources
9. Which of the following monitoring/controlling activities would not result in preventive action being applied?
A. Perform integrated change control
B. Control scope
C. Report performance
D. Perform quality control
10. Which of the following is the same as a lump sum contract?
A. Fixed price contract
B. Price fixing contract
C. Purchase order
D. All of the above
11. Which function audits quality requirements and the results from quality control measurements?
A. Quality control
B. Quality planning
C. Quality assurance
D. Quality improvement
12. A member of the project team is sabotaging the project because of a basic disagreement with functional processes. As the project manager, what should you do?
A. Fire the project team member
B. Present the problem to the appropriate management
C. Present the problem to the appropriate management with the suggestion that the team member be removed from the project
D. Present the problem to the appropriate management with a demand to fire the team member
13. Which factor has the greatest effect on the way a project manager sends and receives information?
A. How others relate to the project manager
B. The project manager’s level in the organization
C. The size of the project
D. The project manager’s salary and age
14. How do you calculate the expected value of an outcome?
A. Divide the value of each outcome by its probability, then add the results
B. Divide the value of the desired outcome by the value all possible outcomes
C. Multiply the value of each outcome by its probability, then add the results
D. Use linear regression to assess the expected value of the outcome
15. Total project risk is
A. The sum of the probabilities of project risks events times the sum of consequences of those risks
B. The sum of the products of each project risk event times its consequences
C. The sum of the consequences of all project risk events
D. The sum of the probabilities of all project risk events
16. A lessons learned session should be held at what point in a project?
A. At the project conclusion
B. When something goes wrong
C. At key milestones
D. When risk events occur
17. Who is ultimately responsible for project quality control?
A. The project quality officer
B. The company quality group
C. The plant manager
D. The project manager
18. Which of the following activities is not part of the acquisition process?
A. Source selection
B. Invitation to bid
C. Contract award
D. Notice to proceed
19. While in the executing phase of a project, a functional manager informs you that he will not have sufficient resources available next month to support your project and two other projects. How should you handle this situation?
A. Ask the functional manager to make the decision
B. Ask the functional manager to work with his management to prioritize the work
C. Ask your sponsor to meet with the functional manager
D. Ask the functional manager to set up a meeting with you and the other project managers to work out the problem yourselves
20. You are the project manager for a building project and have just received notice that a vendor is completing a large portion of the project. You have heard a rumor that the vendor is losing many of its workers due to labor issues. With the rumored information, what should you do?
A. Suspend work with the vendor until the labor issues are resolved
B. Contact with the vendor in regard to the rumor
C. Pursue another vendor to replace the current vendor
D. Negotiate with the labor union to secure the workers on your project
21. Which of the following types of communication is least desirable to explain to a team member why his/her performance is substandard?
B. Counseling session
C. Project team meeting
D. Formal letter
22. The ultimate way to ensure successful quality control is
A. By outsourcing the quality function
B. Making the quality department report to facilities
C. Making quality a priority at the organizational level
D. Playing a movie about quality in the auditorium
23. One of your project deliverables is to perform a post-implementation review of the water treatment plant you just delivered. You have been asked to do what?
A. Present all the lessons learned
B. Meet with the project sponsor to discuss what could have been improved in your project
C. Investigate and report on the plan performance and maintenance requirements
D. Meet with your project team and discuss plant support options
24. The delay between the start/finish of one activity and the start/finish of another activity is referred to as
A. Slack
B. Free float
C. Lag
D. Total float
25. Which style of leadership is a project manager demonstrating by allowing the team to make the majority of the decisions?
A. Laissez-faire
B. Boss-centered
C. Subordinate centered
D. Autocratic
26. Which of the following activities is not an element of procurement management?
A. Purchasing
B. Expenditure
C. Marketing
D. Inspection
27. You are the project manager for a project and have received overall cost estimates from three vendors. One of the estimates is significantly higher than similar project work in the past. In this scenario, you should do which of the following?
A. Ask the other vendors about the higher estimate from the third vendor
B. Use the cost estimates from the historical information
C. Discuss the issue with the vendor who submitted the high cost before reviewing the issue with the other vendors
D. Ask the vendor that supplied the high estimate for information on how the estimate was prepared
28. What should a project manager do to determine whether or not a team member correctly understands a message?
A. Reduce the filtering
B. Eliminate barriers
C. Obtain feedback
D. Use more than one medium
29. The critical path
A. Has the greatest degree of risk
B. Will elongate the project if the activities on this path take longer than anticipated
C. Must be completed before all other paths
D. All of the above
30. You are the project manager of a project that just went into integration mode. This means that your project
A. Is still running but missing resources
B. Will be closed due to lack of resources
C. Is having resources assigned to other areas of the business
D. Has been accepted by the sponsor and the client
31. The project charter includes
A. Measurable project objectives
B. Summary milestone schedule
C. Project approval requirements
D. All of the above
32. You are the project manager of a project that just went into extinction. This means that your project
A. Is still running but missing resources
B. Will be closed due to lack of resources
C. Resources are been assigned to other areas of the business
D. Has ended before its stated objective
33. Your customer authorizes and funds a scope change that results in a major change to the schedule. The baseline schedule
A. Now becomes the new schedule, including the changes, and the original baseline is disregarded
B. Is still the original baseline but is annotated to reflect that a change has taken place
C. Is amended to reflect the scope change, but the original baseline is still maintained for post-project review
D. Is meaningless because every schedule update changes the baseline
34. The customer of your project has requested that you inflate your cost estimates by 25 percent. He tells you that his management always reduces the cost of the estimates so this is the only method to get the budget needed to complete the project. Which of the following is the best response to this situation?
A. Do as the customer asked to ensure the project requirements can be met by adding the increase as a contingency reserve.
B. Do as the customer asked to ensure the project requirements can be met by adding the increase across each task.
C. Do as the customer asked by creating an estimate for the customer’s management and another for the actual project implementation.
D. Complete an accurate estimate of the project. In addition, create a risk assessment on why the project budget would be inadequate.
35. How do you calculate the earned value (EV) for a task that has just been completed?
A. Multiply the actual hours worked on the project by the budgeted labor rate.
B. Multiply the budgeted hours to complete the task by the budgeted labor rate.
C. Divide the actual hours required to complete the task by the budgeted labor rate.
D. It cannot be determined.
36. You are the project manager of a project that just went into inclusion mode. This means that your project
A. Is still running but missing is resources
B. Will be closed due to lack of resources
C. Has become part of the business processes
D. Has been accepted by the sponsor and the client
37. A project is
A. An organized group of activities arranged to fulfill single and multiple objectives
B. Related activities coordinated to accomplish a generic goal
C. Beginning to end activities that are to be accomplished in a specific time frame and utilizes various resources
D. An undertaking with a specific time frame and well-defined objectives that utilizes various types of resources within constraints
38. What is the impact to the project if an activity is crashed by two weeks?
A. The project’s schedule will be reduced by 2 weeks.
B. The available slack on the noncritical paths will increase.
C. A new critical path might appear after the crash.
D. All of the above.
39. Quality assurance
A. Is the prevention of product defects
B. Is an auditing function that provides feedback about the quality of output being produced
C. Is the technical process that results in control charts that specify acceptability limits for conforming output
D. Both A and B
40. During which phase in a project life cycle are most of the project expenses generally incurred?
A. Initiating phase
B. Planning phase
C. Executing phase
D. Closing phase
41. Administrative closure is the process that
A. Includes all the activities needed to validate the project products and services
B. Collects user acceptance of the project product or service
C. Closes all activities pertaining to a specific project or phase
D. None of the above
42. Product verification pertains to
A. All the activities that verify that the products and services delivered are in line with quality requirements
B. All the activities that verify that the products and services delivered are in line with project deliverables and sponsor and client satisfaction.
C. All activities that verify tangible assets
D. Both A and C
43. The main goal of having lessons learned is to
A. Keeping the names of the team for prosperity
B. Close all open contracts
C. Record variances and the mental state behind corrective and preventive actions taken
D. Record all the qualitative reasoning behind corrective and preventive actions taken in the project
44. The difference between the Earned Value (EV) and the Planned Value (PV) is referred to as the
A. Schedule variance
B. Cost variance
C. Estimate at completion
D. Actual cost of the work performed
45. Which of the following is most likely to become a source of conflict among members of a project team?
A. Performance tradeoffs
B. Ambiguity of roles
C. Administrative procedures
D. Determining earned value
46. You have been assigned as the project manager for a project that takes place in a country that is not where you are from. The project leader from the other country presents a team of workers that are only from his family. What should you do?
A. Reject the team leader’s recommendations and build your own project team.
B. Review the résumé and qualifications of the proposed project team before approving the team.
C. Determine if the country’s traditions include hiring from the immediate family before hiring from outside the family.
D. Replace the project leader with an impartial project leader.
47. When can conflict be beneficial?
A. A diversion is needed
B. Conflict situations are in their early stages and emotional involvement is low
C. Conflict situations are in their late stages and emotional involvement is high
D. Conflict might cause a loss of status or position power
48. What is the main reason to make sure all procurements are closed at the end of the project?
A. Materials must be returned
B. Contractors need to return all excess materials
C. Contracts are legally binding
D. You would like to avoid any penalties
49. Work performance information is considered as
A. A necessary process to enter a contract
B. Required as part of the vendor performance evaluation
C. Only needed for contracts in distress
D. An output from the direct and manage project execution process
50. Your project team is working with a vendor to correct some programming errors found during user acceptance testing. The decision is made to work through lunch and order take-out. When the food is delivered, the vendor says the bill has been taken care of. What do you do?
A. You accept and thank the vendor for your lunch.
B. You accept and tell him you will pay for lunch for everyone tomorrow.
C. You keep working and pretend you did not hear what the vendor said.
D. You decline and pay for your own meal.
51. What does a statement of work (SOW) identify?
A. The business need for the project
B. The project or product requirements
C. The strategic plan
D. All of the above
52. As a project manager, you direct the performance of all planned project activities and manage the technical and organizational resources available to and interacting with your project. Your work is performed in conjunction with whom?
A. The external project sponsor
B. The project management team
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
53. The earned value technique (EVT) measures project performance from project initiation through which of the following phases?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring controlling
D. Closing
54. The ________ is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be performed by the project team.
A. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)
B. Milestone schedule
C. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Master schedule
55. In the communications process, which of the following is described as “assimilate through the mind or senses (as in new ideas)”?
A. Understanding
B. Communicating
C. Receiving
D. Decoding
56. Which of the following is the best long-lasting approach to settling project conflict?
A. Problem solving
B. Compromise
C. Withdrawal
D. Smoothing
57. Your project is ahead of schedule. Management decides to incorporate additional quality testing into the project to improve the quality and acceptability of the project deliverable. What activity does this action exhibit?
A. Scope creep
B. Change control
C. Quality Assurance
D. Integrated Change Control
58. ____________ is the subdivision of project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components. The final product categorizes project deliverables at the work package level.
A. Baselining
B. Critical path mapping
C. Decomposition
D. Resource leveling
59. You are the project manager for a research organization and have just been alerted that new legislation will affect your project and change your project scope. What should you do?
A. Create a documented change request
B. Proceed as planned, assuming the project will be grandfathered beyond the new change in the law
C. Consult with the project sponsor and the stakeholders
D. Stop all project work until the issue is resolved
60. Applying sound project management techniques will guarantee
A. Budget will be met.
B. Schedule will be met.
C. The project will be a success.
D. None of the above.
61. One component of the scope baseline for a project is
A. The preliminary project scope
B. The approved preliminary project scope
C. The project scope statement
D. The approved project scope statement
62. A project is a(n) __________ endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.
B. Temporary
C. Ongoing
D. None of the above
63. Which of the following can best assist a project manager during project execution?
A. Stakeholder analysis
B. Change control board
C. PMIS
D. Verify scope
64. With respect to integrated change control, what must the project manager ensure is present?
A. Supporting detail for the change
B. Approval of the change from the project team
C. Approval of the change from an SME
D. Risk assessment for each proposed change
65. You are the project manager for a project to design and implement a new accounting application. Management has requested that you document any changes or enhancements to the technical attributes of the project deliverable.
Which one of the following would satisfy management’s request?
A. Configuration management
B. Integrated change control
C. Scope control
D. Change management plan
66. The risk of project failure is highest during which phase of a project?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Controlling
67. The cost of changes to project scope generally _________ over the life cycle of a project.
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Stabilize
D. None of the above
68. Project cost and project staffing resources follow a typical pattern during the life cycle of a project. Which of the following is common?
A. Cost and staffing levels are high at the beginning of the project, stabilize during the middle phases of the project, and drop rapidly toward project closing.
B. Cost and staffing levels are high at the beginning of the project, high during the middle phases of the project, and drop rapidly toward project closing.
C. Cost and staffing levels are low at the beginning of the project, peak during the middle phases of the project, and drop rapidly toward project closing.
D. Cost and staffing levels are low at the beginning of the project, rise during the middle phases of the project, and peak toward project closing.
69. An organization comprised by a full-time project manager with moderate project authority and a full-time project management administrative staff is an example of what type of structure?
A. Functional
B. Weak matrix
C. Strong matrix
D. Projectized
70. One type of progressive elaboration occurs when the work to be performed within the near term is planned in detail while work scheduled for further out is defined at only a high level in the work breakdown structure (WBS). As the task draws nearer, the amount of detail for the task is further defined. Which of the following terms defines this type of progressive elaboration?
A. Activity sequencing
B. Precedence diagramming method (PDM)
C. Activity-on-node (AON)
D. Rolling wave planning
71. What is the most common precedence relationship used in the precedence diagramming method (PDM)?
A. Finish-to-start
B. Finish-to-finish
C. Start-to-finish
D. Start-to-start
72. As the project manager for a project with an international team, you are about to enter negotiations with foreign vendors. Where do you find what business practices are allowed and discouraged?
A. The project charter
B. The project plan
C. Organizational process assets
D. The PMP Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct
73. Which of the following is not a type of dependency available in activity sequencing?
A. Discretionary dependencies
B. External dependencies
C. Internal dependencies
D. Mandatory dependencies
74. When a scheduled activity cannot be estimated with an adequate degree of certainty, the work within the activity can be decomposed. The resource requirements for each lower, more detailed work package can be estimated and aggregated to form a basis for estimating the overarching scheduled activity. What is this type of estimating called?
A. Bottom-up estimating
B. Decomposed estimating
C. Should-cost estimating
D. Three-point estimating
75. You have been assigned two concurrent projects. Because of the nature of the projects, you have a conflict of interest. You should
A. Do the best you can and tell no one
B. Ask to be removed from one of the projects
C. Ask to be removed from both of the projects
D. Inform your sponsor and ask for his advice
76. Cost control of a project entails determining and evaluating which of the following factors?
A. The cause of a cost variance
B. The magnitude of a cost variance
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
77. Which of the following activities is not included in configuration management?
A. Controlling changes to the project deliverables
B. Scope verification
C. Automatic change request approvals
D. Identification of the attributes of the project deliverables
78. You are the project manager for a performance analysis project for a client’s database application. Your client provides you with a test database to use for your analysis. The IT director for your organization disagrees with the database provided by the client and tells you to use a different database with different data that should give better results. This is a violation to the SOW. What should you do?
A. Use the client’s database
B. Use the replacement database without telling the customer
C. Use the replacement database and discuss the reasons with the customer
D. Ask your sponsor for clarification, assuming that the IT director is not your sponsor
79. Which set of the following tools is part of the project plan execution?
A. PMIS, WBS, EVM
B. General management skills, status review meetings, EVM
C. General management skills, status review meetings, Work Authorization Systems
D. General management skills, status review meetings, EVM
80. Planned value (PV) is
A. The budgeted cost for work scheduled to be completed on an activity up to a specific time
B. The budgeted cost for the work actually completed on the schedule activity during a specific time period
C. The total cost for work on the schedule activity during a specific time period
D. None of the above
81. A cost performance index (CPI) value less than 1.0 indicates a project has which of the following?
A. A cost overrun of the cost estimates
B. A cost underrun of the cost estimates
C. Neither a cost overrun nor a cost underrun
D. None of the above
82. Which of the following requires a concise definition of the end users’ needs?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Budget estimate
C. Functional requirements
D. Risk register
83. You are managing a project using the earned value technique (EVT) for cost management. The project planned value (PV) is $200,000. The project earned value (EV) is $100,000. The actual value (AV) is $150,000. What is the schedule variance (SV) for the project?
A. 100,000
B. –100,000
C. 50,000
D. –50,000
84. EVM is used during which process groups
A. Controlling
B. Executing
C. Closing
D. Entire project
85. To maintain the customer’s schedule, substantial overtime will be required during a traditional holiday season. Many team members have requested vacation during this time. You should
A. Let the schedule slip and inform the customer
B. First give the team members the choice of working overtime
C. Make the team members cancel their vacation plans and work overtime
D. Acquire temporary employees for the overtime
86. Which of the following is a business philosophy to find methods to continuously improve products, services, and business practices?
A. TQM
B. ASQ
C. QA
D. QC
87. You’re managing a project using the earned value technique (EVT) for cost management. The project planned value (PV) is $200,000. The project earned value (EV) is $100,000. The actual value (AV) is $150,000. Calculate the cost performance index (CPI) for the project. What is the cost-efficiency of the project?
A. Over budget
B. Under budget
C. On budget
D. Unable to determine from the information given
88. You’re managing a project using the earned value technique (EVT) for cost management. The project planned value (PV) is $200,000. The project earned value (EV) is $100,000. The actual value (AV) is $150,000. What is the schedule performance index (SPI) for the project?
A. 0.5
B. 1.5
C. 1.75
D. 2
89. Monitoring project activities and results to evaluate if the findings comply with applicable quality standards as well as identifying mitigation strategies is a _________ activity.
A. Quality assessment
B. Quality assurance
C. Quality control
D. Quality improvement
90. You are the project manager for a project requiring that quality maps to federal guidelines. During a quality audit, you discover that a portion of the project work is faulty and must be done again. The requirement to re-do the work is an example of which of the following?
A. Cost of quality
B. Cost of adherence
C. Cost of nonconformance
D. Cost of doing business
91. Which of the following techniques is the best for most project management situations?
A. Confronting
B. Compromising
C. Forcing
D. Avoidance
92. Ishikawa diagrams are also known as
A. Cause and effect diagrams
B. Scatter diagrams
C. Fishbone diagram
D. Both A and C
93. A Pareto chart is a type of
A. Cause and effect diagram
B. Control chart
C. Histogram
D. Scatter diagram
94. Project communication planning includes which of the following tasks?
A. Determining and limiting who will communicate with whom and who will receive what information
B. Combining the type and format of information needed with an analysis of the value of the information for communication
C. Understanding how communication affects the project as a whole
D. All of the above
95. The complete review of a seller’s technical performance, cost performance, and delivery schedule is referred to as
A. Project or phase evaluation
B. Contract evaluation
C. Post mortem
D. Seller performance evaluation
96. The procurement closing of a project dictates that
A. All project monies have been spent
B. No budget category amounts have been exceeded
C. No other work from this client will be considered
D. No further charges can be made against the project
97. Which of the following is an example of coercive power?
A. A project manager that has lunch with the project team on the same day each week
B. A project manager that will openly punish any team member who is late with an activity
C. A project manager that has worked with the technology on the project for several years
D. A project manager that is friends with all of the project team members
98. While managing a project, you find that the project customer and a team member are in conflict over the level of quality needed on a sample. You decide to split the difference between what the two stakeholders want. This is an example of which of the following?
A. A win-win solution
B. A win-lose solution
C. A lose-lose solution
D. A leave-lose solution
99. You are the project manager for a project with a very tight schedule. Because the project is running late, you feel that you do not have time to consider all the possible solutions due to a disagreement between two team members. You quickly decide to side with the team member that has the largest amount of seniority. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Problem solving
B. Compromising
C. Forcing
D. Withdrawal
100. The most important decision for the sponsors to make during the close project or phase process is
A. Allocating budget allocations for the next phase
B. Authorizing scope changes for the next phase
C. Authorizing budget increases for the next phase based upon scope changes
D. Canceling the project
101. Historical records collected during closing are useful to _____ and _____ for future projects.
A. Predict trends, highlight issues
B. Analyze successes, shortfalls
C. Analyze strengths, document results
D. Justify results, set standards
102. With respect to small organizations, project managers and functional managers are
A. Never the same person
B. Generally the same person
C. Sometimes the same person
D. Always subordinate to the project initiator
103. Which of the following is an accurate statement?
A. Qualitative risk analysis occurs prior to quantitative risk analysis.
B. Quantitative risk analysis occurs prior to qualitative risk analysis.
C. Qualitative risk analysis is performed on risks that have been prioritized during quantitative risk analysis.
D. Both B and C.
104. The project charter
A. Is a good thing to have to enter restricted areas
B. Tells the newspapers when the project will end
C. Authorizes equipment acquisition
D. Provides a high-level definition of the effort and its stakeholders
105. Scorecard modeling, cost benefit analysis, payback periods, and internal rate of return are examples of
A. Project selection methods
B. Enterprise benefits measurement methods when selecting a project
C. Ways to ensure stakeholder commitment
D. Integral parts of the statement of work
106. What is the primary purpose of project control?
A. Plan ahead for uncertainties
B. Generate status reports
C. Keep the project on track
D. Develop the project road map
107. An activity estimated to require one month for completion with 800 hours of labor and a burdened cost of $47,000. The activity was completed in 800 hours but at a higher burdened cost of $58,000. What is the most likely reason for the increase?
A. Higher salaried employees were assigned to the activity than were planned
B. Overtime was required
C. The overhead rate increased
D. Any of the above
108. Project scope
A. Defines all the equipment that will be used in the project
B. Is a document that identifies the stakeholder responsibilities
C. Is part of the project charter
D. Defines at a high level the project execution framework and its deliverables
109. Which one of the following will result in the most productive results when negotiating?
A. Yielding
B. Forcing
C. Collaborating
D. Compromising
110. Which one of the following is an output for the report performance process?
A. Trend analysis
B. EVM
C. Variance analysis
D. Change requests
111. Project success can be achieved only if
A. The project manager is an expert in managing resources.
B. The project manager is part of the executive management team.
C. There is a clear link between the project deliverables and the business strategy.
D. The project sponsor leads the initiatives.
112. Reaching an agreement of concessions is accomplished in the _____ stage of negotiations.
A. Protocol
B. Posturing
C. Bargaining
D. Closure
113. The two processes in the closing process group are called
A. Close procurements and verify scope
B. Verify scope and close project or phase
C. Close project or phase and close procurements
D. Report performance and close procurements
114. The project management plan
A. Is the steps needed to complete a project task
B. Is prepared at the beginning and fixed throughout the execution of the project
C. Not needed until resources have been assigned
D. Is an outline that identifies all the steps and processes that will be used after a project is initiated
115. In what process group does source selection happen?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Closing
116. Which of the following is NOT and input to the administer procurements process?
A. Performance reports
B. Source selection criteria
C. Approved change requests
D. Contract
117. What is the primary function of the project manager?
A. Systems design
B. Client interfacing
C. Quality assurance
D. Integration
118. What does fast tracking mean?
A. Speed up a project by performing some activities in parallel
B. Swap one activity for another
C. Reduce the number of activities if possible
D. Both B and C
119. The work breakdown structure
A. Is a list of all the tasks needed to complete a meeting
B. Is needed as part of the project charter
C. Is set and does not change throughout the project
D. Is used to break down the project into manageable pieces
120. Which two of the following knowledge areas are part of closing?
A. Communications management and risk management
B. Integration management and scope management
C. Scope management and procurement management
D. Integration management and procurement management
121. Which of the following situations describes a violation of the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct?
A. Accepting a gift that is within the customary guidelines of the country or province you are currently working in
B. Use of confidential information to advance your position or influence a critical decision
C. Complying with laws and regulations of the state or province in which project management services are provided
D. Disclosing information to a customer about a situation that might have an appearance of impropriety
122. At what point in the project does administrative closure take place?
A. When the project is cancelled
B. At the completion of each phase
C. When the project is complete or cancelled
D. As management sees fit
123. The project baseline
A. Encompass all the initial estimates for tasks and resource utilization
B. Is only important in the project initiation phase
C. Is the result of the original plans plus the approved changes
D. Is not needed to successfully manage a project
For questions 124–126, use the following network diagram:
124. What would be the early start for activity H?
A. 11
B. 10
C. 4
D. 6
125. What is the critical path?
A. Start – A – D – G – Finish
B. Start – B – F – Finish
C. Start – C – E – H – Finish
126. Which project schedule represents the tasks outlined in the network diagram?
A. 
B. 
C. 
127. Which of the following is not a good input to project cost estimation?
A. Work breakdown structures
B. Time estimates
C. Earn value analysis
D. Schedules
128. The major difference between project and functional management is that the project manager generally does not have any control over which function?
A. Cost allocation
B. Staffing
C. Rewarding
D. Monitoring
129. Which one of the following cost budgeting tools use current and historical project information to calculate project cost estimates?
A. Cost cancellation techniques
B. Reserves analysis
C. Parametric estimating
D. Funding limit reconciliation
130. Which of the following is NOT an element of procurement management?
A. Inspection
B. Purchasing
C. Estimating
D. Expediting
131. Which tool is useful to determine what causes the majority of quality problems in a process?
A. Cause and effect diagram
B. Flow chart
C. Control chart
D. Pareto chart
132. Within the PMI realm, who is ultimately responsible for the project quality?
A. Project team
B. Project manager
C. Quality assurance manager
D. Validation engineer
133. The process in which detailed resource assignments and responsibilities are formalized is called the
A. Develop project management plan
B. Plan quality
C. Develop project charter
D. Develop human resource plan
134. How many communication channels will be required in a project in which 30 individual are participating?
A. 150
B. 270
C. 444
D. 435
135. Which of the following terms describe the process of gathering, generating, and disseminating project information upon project completion?
A. Close project
B. Close project or phase
C. Administrative closure
D. Operational transfer
136. You are completing the closeout of a project to design a storage facility. The procurement contract is a cost plus incentive fee contract. The target costs are $400,000, with an 8 percent target profit. However, the project came in at $360,000. The incentive split is 75/25. How much is the total contract cost??
A.$410,000
B.$432,000
C.$442,000
D.$382,000
137. Who has the ultimate responsibility for making sure that a message in the project team is understood?
A. The project sponsor
B. The sender
C. The project coordinator
D. All
138. Sound project objectives should be
A. General rather than specific
B. Established without considering resource bounds
C. Realistic and attainable
D. Measurable, intangible, and verifiable
139. The intent of the risk management process group is to
A. Underwrite all the risks affecting the company
B. Announce project risks
C. Address and implement how risk will be identified and mitigated
D. Increase the probability of positive outcomes in the project
140. Quality control is normally performed by
A. QA personnel
B. Project team
C. Operations personnel
D. Project management
141. As of today, $1000 worth of planned work on task A was supposed to have been done (PV). However, currently the EV is $850. Calculate the schedule variance (SV):
A.–100
B. 100
C.–150
D. 150
142. Which one of these is not a typical way to deal with negative threats?
A. Avoid
B. Transfer
C. Mitigate
D. Share
143. Which of the following is a recognized contract type within the PMI context?
A. Fixed-price or lump-sum contract
B. Cost-reimbursable contract
C. Time and material
D. All of the above
144. Which one of these is not used when preparing a statement of work?
A. Project scope statement
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Risk management plan
D. Work breakdown dictionary
145. When the project manager receives a project change request, he should
A. Send it to the change control board for approval
B. Discuss it with the project team and leave it for phase 2
C. Evaluate its risk and potential impact before taking any action
D. None of the above
146. Which of the following is NOT part of the definition of quality?
A. Conformance to requirements
B. Fitness for use
C. Continuous improvement of products and services
D. Appeal to the customer
147. Resource leveling will often affect the project by making the schedule
A. Shorter
B. Longer
C. More responsive to customer needs
D. Both A and C
148. Graphic displays of accumulated cost and labor hours, plotted as a function of time, are called
A. Variance reports
B. S curves
C. Trend analysis
D. Earned value reporting
149. The process of selecting and documenting the best approach to meet the project objectives is part of
A. Scope baseline
B. Scope authorization
C. WBS
D. Scope planning
150. One method to determine how well a project is executing at a specific point in time is by using
A. Cost variance analysis
B. Historical data
C. Expert judgment
D. The cost performance index (CPI)
151. Quality assurance application in a project is the
A. Definition of organizational quality practices
B. Ensuring of Six Sigma compliance
C. Application of Pareto charts to project sample points
D. Application of organizational quality metrics to the project
152. Quality management
A. Is another name for recurrent inspections
B. Is inversely related to productivity
C. Is primarily the responsibility of management
D. Is primarily the responsibility of the workers
153. Cost of quality is
A. Associated with non-conformance to specifications
B. Primarily caused by poor workmanship of workers
C. Used to determine whether a quality management program is suitable for a given project
D. Negligible for most large projects
154. The purpose of configuration management is to
A. Insure drawings are updated
B. Control change throughout the project
C. Control change during production
D. Generate engineering change proposals
155. Quality and _____ are directly related.
A. Productivity
B. Cost overruns
C. Scope control
D. Pareto diagram
156. You and your project team determine that external resources are needed. Which method would be best to secure these resources?
A. Acquisition
B. Pre-assignment
C. Negotiation
D. Contract management
157. As a project manager, you need to know how to manage conflict. Which one of the following is not a way to successfully manage conflict?
A. Problem-solving
B. Compromising
C. Formal
D. Withdrawal
158. What type of inspection validates that quality requirements are met?
A. Inspection by attributes
B. Cyclical inspection
C. Quality conformance inspection
D. Original inspection
159. How much time should a project manager spend in communication activities?
A. 10%–25%
B. 36%–50%
C. 51%–69%
D. 70%–90%
160. Which of the following is not a basic element for successful communication?
A. Sender
B. Message
C. Analog line
D. Receiver
161. What is the name of the process that uses as primary inputs the procurement documents and the source selection criteria?
A. Plan procurements
B. Conduct procurements
C. Administer procurements
D. Close procurements
162. An approved corrective action is
A. A response to a management request
B. A quality management plan
C. A course correction to bring the project in line with the project plan
D. None of the above
163. Statistical cost estimating techniques that use historical data are called
A. Definitive
B. Analogy
C. Three-point
D. Parametric
164. What must management do to achieve long-term quality improvements?
A. Motivate the employees using various techniques
B. Create a quality control department and give it the authority over production
C. Implement of a formal quality control program with worker and management involvement
D. Establish financial incentive packages for workers
165. A task-oriented list of activities organized into a tree is a
A. Detailed plan
B. Linear responsibility chart
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Cost account coding system
166. Fishbone diagrams (like the one in this figure) are used for
A. The cost management plan during the project execution
B. Brainstorming
C. Finding the cause and effect in the project quality assurance process
D. All of the above
167. The Pareto chart, fishbone diagrams, histograms, and Six Sigma are techniques used for implementing ___________ in the project.
A. Quality processes
B. Quality metrics
C. Quality control
D. All of the above
For questions 168–174, use the following problem:
You are the new project manager tasked with taking over for a project manager who left six weeks ago. Some of the numbers that you find in your initial research are as follows:
Estimated project cost: $675,000
Project timeline: 24 weeks
This is week 16 and accumulated costs are $300,000. Additionally, only 25% of the work has been completed.
168. What is the budget at completion?
A.$300,000
B.$168,750
C.$675,000
D. There is not enough information.
169. What is the planned value?
A.$300,000
B.$168,750
C.$389,423
D.$452,250
170. What is the earned value?
A.$300,000
B.$168,750
C.$389,453
D.$483,103
171. What is the cost variance?
A.–$250,000
B.–$483,103
C.–$289,750
D.–$131,250
172. What is the schedule variance?
A.–$157,351
B.–$289,750
C.–$283,500
D. There is not enough information.
173. What will be the estimated at completion cost?
A.$1,200,000
B.$675,000
C.$3,000,000
D.$1,050,000
174. Because the CPI is .5625, what do we know about this project?
A. It can be finished on time if we crash the schedule.
B. We will need an extra six weeks to complete it.
C. The project is at budget risk.
D. None of the above.
175. Uncertainty refers to a situation where
A. The outcomes are known and the likelihood of occurrences are high
B. The outcomes and the likelihood of occurrences are known
C. Neither the outcomes nor their likelihood of occurrences are known
D. Current states can change at any time
176. Which of the following phrases best describes Deming’s definition of Quality?
A. Conformance to requirements
B. Fitness for use
C. Continuous improvement of products and services
D. Customer focus
177. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs talks about how people need to satisfy various personal needs. What is the correct sequence for those needs?
A. Safety, love, esteem and self-actualization, physiological
B. Love, physiological, safety, esteem and self-actualization
C. Esteem, physiological, safety, love, and self-actualization
D. Physiological, safety, love, esteem and self-actualization
178. Which of the following types of specifications identifies specific measurable capabilities or parameters for which a product can be tested during the acceptance procedure?
A. Performance
B. Functional
C. Technical
D. Base Line
179. Which leadership style would be most common in a car wash?
A. MacGregor’s Theory Y
B. MacGregor’s Theory X
C. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
D. Ouchi’s Theory Z
180. Which phrase is most similar to business risk?
A. Profit and loss
B. Personnel turnover
C. Workmen’s compensation
D. Liability insurance
181. Which of the following types of contract is the same as cost plus contract?
A. Fixed firm price
B. Cost reimbursable
C. Fixed price plus incentive fee
D. Progress payments
182. You have chosen to “crash” a project to avoid penalty payments for late deliveries. To crash the project, either overtime or additional resources should be assigned to
A. All activities
B. Activities with the longest time durations
C. Critical path activities beginning with the longest time duration
D. Activities with the greatest risk
183. Which of the following statements best describes Pareto’s Law?
A. All problems that have a measurable cost associated with them should be corrected to minimize quality control losses
B. The majority of defects are caused by a small percentage of problems and improvement efforts should be focused on these few problems
C. All quality control problems should be corrected to achieve zero defects
D. On average, correcting only 80% of quality control problems provides justifiable cost-effective benefits.
184. What would be the result of imposing judgment on a project team? The project manager is ______________ his recommendations.
A. Smoothing
B. Formalizing
C. Compromising
D. Forcing
185. S-curves, histograms, and earn value analysis are examples of
A. Project justification
B. Capital acquisition requests
C. Performance reporting tools
D. None of the above
186. ___________________ and __________________ are two procedures used to perform all the closure activities in a project or a project phase.
A. Management, stakeholder
B. Project team, stakeholder
C. Administrative, procurement closure
D. Management, procurement closure
187. You work for an organization that has no rules with regard to vendor kickbacks or special gifts. A vendor approaches you with a trip to Paris, provided you help him get the contract with your organization. What would be the most prudent thing to do?
A. Accept the offer and help the vendor get the contract
B. Ask the vendor for an additional trip for your boss
C. Decline the offer and advise the vendor on the standard bidding process
D. Seek legal counsel before accepting the trip
188. As project manager, you offered a promotion to a team member that included a small increase in salary but substantially more responsibility. Which of the following team member’s needs would this promotion fulfill?
A. Monetary
B. Physiological
C. Esteem
D. Self-actualization
189. What is the purpose of a management reserve?
A. Implement additional unbudgeted scope
B. Compensate for inaccurate estimates
C. Cover major unforeseen catastrophes
D. Cover unforeseen problems in the project
190. You are offered a job as project manager for a fixed cost project. At the same time, you are approached by another client to work on her project on a time and material basis at a higher hourly rate. What should you do?
A. Tell the new client that you need some time to consider all your options before giving her an answer
B. Leave your current customer and start on the other project as soon as possible
C. Discuss the matter with your client and ask for more money.
D. Try to squeeze in both projects without notifying anyone
191. Which of the following terms describes a formal invitation to submit a price for specified goods or services?
A. Request for proposal
B. Request for quotation
C. Tender invitation
D. Bid invitation
192. Which of the following is not an input to plan quality?
A. Scope baseline
B. Schedule baseline
C. Quality metrics
D. Risk register
193. As a senior leader in the project management field, you receive a voice mail from one of your competitor’s junior project managers asking for help in the project management discipline. What is the most appropriate course of action?
A. Tell the other guy to stop complaining and get a couple of project management books
B. Decide that it is not worth the risk and ignore the call
C. Start working with him after hours
D. Talk to your supervisor and appraise her of the situation before initiating contact
194. Which of the following is a graphic display of cumulative costs and labor hours plotted against time?
A. Trend line
B. Trend analysis
C. S curve
D. Percent completion report
195. An activity not on the critical path is completed in half the scheduled time. What is the impact?
A. The critical path is shortened.
B. The slack in the path containing this activity increases.
C. The total cost for this activity decreases.
D. Resources from this activity can be assigned to other activities.
196. You are assigned to lead a corporate project with a lot of diversity and several countries participating. What is your best course of action when it comes to giving assignments and setting up the schedule?
A. Try to standardize all activities based on the corporate calendar
B. Tell management that you need to implement a PMO at corporate in order to have everyone local
C. Learn about communication styles, local holidays and plan for process execution across time zones
D. Use external consultants willing to work locally
197. You are in charge of a project that is going to miss the milestones that were set at the enterprise level by two weeks. What do you do?
A. Advise management of the revised project plan and timeline
B. Wait and see if they notice when you do not give an update on the item
C. Crash the schedule to make the deadline
D. Do nothing
198. A good project manager tends to __________________ above all else when it comes to active communications.
A. Write reports
B. Cold-call people
C. Listen
D. Help
199. Which of the following systems is designed to ensure the timely availability and oversight of non-personnel resources?
A. Inventory control
B. Materials management
C. Procurement
D. All of the above
200. In a fishbone diagram, where is the effect depicted?
A. At the right-hand end of the spine
B. At the end of a diagonal line
C. On a branch of a diagonal line