© Sean Whitaker 2016
Sean WhitakerPMP® Examination Practice Questions10.1007/978-1-4842-1883-9_1

1. Questions

Sean Whitaker
(1)
ChristChurch, Canterbury, New Zealand
 
The purpose of this book is to provide essential support to your study for the Project Management Professional (PMP®) examination. There are many ways to study for the exam, and you should spend some time learning exactly what works for you.
Answering questions written in the style and format of the actual exam questions is a good way to study, for two main reasons. First, it tests the extent of your knowledge, exposing any holes in your knowledge so that you can revise your studying appropriately.
Second, it helps you get accustomed to answering exam-style questions, which will take away a bit of the nerves you may face during the exam, particularly if you put yourself under the same time limits of 200 questions in 4 hours.
With this in mind, I have crafted a book offering the flexibility to meet these particular needs. This first chapter provides over 400 multiple choice questions grouped by topic. The second chapter restates the questions and provides a brief explanation of why three of the answers are wrong and one is correct.
There are many ways you can use this book. You can to answer the questions in each section immediately after reviewing material associated with the section. You can also pick questions at random from different sections of the chapter, as the exam will be fully randomized.
Whichever method you choose, you will find that these questions will add to your knowledge and contribute to your success in passing the exam.

Foundational Concepts

Question 1: Your team is confused because they use terminology and words in project communications that appear to have interchangeable meanings, but other teams treat these terms as though they have specific, unique meanings. How can your team find out what the terms mean?
  • A: The best way to differentiate between similar project terms is to ask the project sponsor.
  • B: Direct your team to a defined and standardized glossary such as the PMBOK® Guide.
  • C: Have your project team vote on what definitions they would like to use for common terms.
  • D: Project management terms have different meanings in different countries, so consult your nearest PMI community.
Question 2: You are delivering an introduction to a project management training session to new team members. One team member appears confused about the exact definition of a project. What is the BEST def inition of a project?
  • A: A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.
  • B: A body of work constrained by finances and time.
  • C: An organized effort of work by a team managed by a project manager.
  • D: The ongoing management of a business enterprise to achieve profitability.
Question 3: Your team seems confused about whether the work they are doing meets the definition of a project. To help them understand the difference between projectized and operational work you give them the following examples. Which of the following is not an example of a project?
  • A: Designing a new software solution.
  • B: Building a new house.
  • C: Regularly achieving 3% growth on last year’s sales figures.
  • D: Implementing a new business process or procedure.
Question 4: You are planning to sit the PMP® examination and as part of your study are referring to the PMBOK® Guide for help in defining the project process groups. Which of the following is not one of the five process groups in the PMBOK® Guide?
  • A: Closing
  • B: Checking
  • C: Initiating
  • D: Executing
Question 5: You are the project manager on a project to develop a new piece of customer management software for an external client. Through your approved change control process you are considering a request to alter the scope of the project. While considering the impact of the request on the project scope, you must also consider the impact on other areas of the project such as quality, schedule, budget, and risk. These other areas that you are considering represent what to the project?
  • A: Opportunities
  • B: Constraints
  • C: Constrictions
  • D: Risks
Question 6: The process of continuously updating, improving, and detailing a project management plan, or parts of a project management plan, as more specific information becomes available is known as what?
  • A: Iterative expectation management
  • B: Project life cycle
  • C: Continuous improvement
  • D: Progressive elaboration
Question 7: While delivering a presentation to senior management on the ways in which portfolio management can help your organization achieve strategic success, you realize that not everyone in the room understands what portfolio management is. Portfolio management is BEST defined as what?
  • A: A group of projects managed by a project director.
  • B: A collection of projects grouped together to take advantage of effective management to meet strategic business objectives.
  • C: A group of related projects managed in a coordinated way.
  • D: A collection of projects relating to a single business unit within an organization.
Question 8: A group of projects that must be managed in a coordinated manner to ensure that common goals and potential resource conflicts are managed effectively is known as what?
  • A: Program
  • B: Portfolio
  • C: PMO
  • D: Life cycle
Question 9: The CEO of your organization is considering the strategic reasons the company has for approving your project proposal. At times he seems confused about the definition of strategic consideration. Which of the following is not a strategic consideration for authorizing a project?
  • A: Strategic opportunity
  • B: Return on investment (ROI)
  • C: Customer demand
  • D: Market demand
Question 10: The team, or function, assigned responsibility for the centralized and coordinated management of projects within an organization is known as what?
  • A: Project headquarters
  • B: Program management office
  • C: Project management office
  • D: War room
Question 11: Your organization has employed a person to head the PMO. During your first meeting with her, you discuss the extent of her roles and responsibilities to fully explain what tasks she will be responsible for and those she won’t be responsible for. Which of the following is not a primary function of a project management office?
  • A: Providing a project manager with daily progress reports on a specific project.
  • B: Managing shared resources across several projects.
  • C: Identifying and developing project management methodologies, best practices, and standards.
  • D: Coordinating communication across projects.
Question 12: All of the following are points where projects can intersect with operational activity during the product life cycle except?
  • A: During development of a new product.
  • B: While monitoring and controlling.
  • C: During improvements in operations.
  • D: In closeout phases.
Question 13: What is the best description of the relationship between project management and organizational strategy?
  • A: Organizational strategy ensures that projects are delivered successfully due to the way in which it appoints a qualified project manager.
  • B: Organizational strategy enables a project manager to provide appropriate governance to the entire project life cycle.
  • C: Organizational strategy and project management don’t interact because one is operational in nature and the other is project based.
  • D: Organizational strategy should provide guidance and direction to project management, and project management should deliver organizational strategy by successful project delivery.
Question 14: Your team seems confused about roles and responsibilities in the project that you are leading. They are particularly confused about your role as project manager. How would you explain the primary purpose of your role?
  • A: The person responsible for budget control.
  • B: The person responsible for delivery of technical tasks.
  • C: The person assigned by the performing organization to achieve the project objectives.
  • D: The person responsible for sharing resources among projects.
Question 15: While using the PMBOK® Guide to help you define and carry out processes on your project, you notice that a very common input into nearly all the processes is enterprise environmental factors. Which of the following examples would not be considered an enterprise environmental factor?
  • A: Government or industry standards or regulations
  • B: Political climate
  • C: Net present value of investment
  • D: Project management information systems
Question 16: You have volunteered your time to help your organization’s PMO carry out an assessment of your organization using the OPM3 tool. What does OPM3 measure?
  • A: The interdependency of projects within a program of work.
  • B: The level of variance between project management best practice and the actual application.
  • C: The ability of a project manager to successfully deliver a project.
  • D: An organization’s project management maturity level .
Question 17: The internal and external environmental factors that surround and influence, and sometimes constrain, a project are known as what?
  • A: Enterprise organizational assets
  • B: Environmental process assets
  • C: Environmental enterprise constraints
  • D: Enterprise environmental factors
Question 18: The collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases differentiated by a distinct work focus is kno wn as what?
  • A: Project management information systems
  • B: Project management methodology
  • C: Project management office
  • D: Project life cycle
Question 19: All of the following are basic characteristics of the project life cycle except?
  • A: Closing the project.
  • B: Checking the project work.
  • C: Starting the project.
  • D: Carrying out the project work.
Question 20: Divisions within a project where extra control is needed to ef fectively manage the completion of a major deliverable are commonly known as what?
  • A: Phases
  • B: Stage gates
  • C: Decision trees
  • D: Sub-projects
Question 21: You are explaining to your project sponsor that the best approach to managing your project is a phase-to-phase relationship. Which of the following is not an example of a phase-to-phase relationship ?
  • A: Sequential
  • B: Overlapping
  • C: Iterative
  • D: Progressive
Question 22: You are the project manager working in an organization where the function al manager, to whom some of your staff answer when not working on your project, controls the project budget and resource availability. This type of organization is commonly referred to as what?
  • A: Projectized
  • B: Strong matrix
  • C: Functional
  • D: Weak matrix
Question 23: You work in an organization where staff members are grouped according to their specialty, such as production, engineering, and accounting, and projects are generally undertaken w ithin these respective groupings. What is this type of organizational structure known as?
  • A: Projectized
  • B: Weak matrix
  • C: Strong matrix
  • D: Functional
Question 24: All of the following are examples of Organizational Process Assets that can assist your project except?
  • A: Government regulations
  • B: Lessons learned from previous projects
  • C: A template for a work breakdown structure
  • D: Configuration management knowledge bases
Question 25: The process of determining which of the PMBOK® Guide processes are appropriate to use on your project and the appropriate degree of rigor to be applied in any given project is known as what?
  • A: Customizing
  • B: Prudency
  • C: Tailoring
  • D: Standardization
Question 26: The process group consisting of those processes performed to define a new project, or a new phase of an existing project, by obtaining authorization to start the project or phase is known as what?
  • A: Closing
  • B: Executing
  • C: Initiating
  • D: Planning
Question 27: You are completing the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications. Which process group would your activities fall under?
  • A: Monitoring and Controlling
  • B: Planning
  • C: Initiating
  • D: Executing
Question 28: Your team members are not aware of the differences between a framework, such as the PMBOK® Guide, and a methodology, such as Kanban or Lean. How would you best explain this?
  • A: A framework is a toolbox containing a series of structured best practices used across a profession; it is not prescriptive. A methodology prescribes how a project should be delivered, using certain procedures and techniques.
  • B: A framework prescribes how a project should be delivered, using certain procedures and techniques. A methodology is a toolbox containing a series of structured best practices used across a profession; it is not prescriptive.
  • C: A framework is used during the planning phase of a project, whereas a methodology is used during the execution phase of a project.
  • D: There is no difference. They are both concepts used to manage the delivery of a project.
Question 29: You have been asked to lead a project to improve the operations of a major company. The sponsor has requested you to apply Lean principles to facilitate the improvement program. Which of the following is not a principle of Lean?
  • A: Seek Perfection.
  • B: Identify the value-add.
  • C: Eliminate waste.
  • D: Reduce team size.
Question 30: What does eliminating waste refer to under the practice of applying Lean?
  • A: Not having project meetings because it is more important for staff to be working on delivery.
  • B: Avoiding project documentation where appropriate because it consumes unnecessary time.
  • C: Keeping a clear work area to avoid risks associated with health and safety.
  • D: Assessing a process to understand if value can still be achieved without the inclusion of certain components.
Question 31: You are working through the planning phase for a project that will improve the production output of your employer’s automotive factory by 7.5%. As part of your approach to managing the engagement of your stakeholders, you are educating them on the benefits of Lean. What are the key benefits realized from applying Lean practices?
  • A: Reduced duration, minimized costs.
  • B: Increased duration, minimized costs.
  • C: Increased duration, maximized costs.
  • D: Reduced duration, maximized costs.
Question 32: Delay s, duplication, over-production, and errors are all forms of what?
  • A: WIP
  • B: Waste
  • C: Risks
  • D: Issues

Project Integration Management

Question 33: You are in the process of developing your project closure checklist and selecting those items and actions that need to be completed to ensure your project is closed properly. A team member asks to help you do this work and asks how you know a project can be closed. A project can be considered finished under all of the following conditions except?
  • A: When the project manager resigns.
  • B: When the project objectives have been achieved.
  • C: When the project is terminated because its objectives will not or cannot be met.
  • D: When the need for the project no longer exists.
Question 34: During the preparation of the business case for your project you outline and document several different compelling reasons why your project should proceed. These reasons include the high ROI, delivering strategic value, and an increase in business value. What is the BEST definition of business value?
  • A: The value of company’s tangible assets, which can be liquidated to provide working capital.
  • B: The value added to the business by projects that are completed successfully.
  • C: The value of the total sum of all tangible and intangible elements of the business.
  • D: The value of all of the projects that the company is currently completing.
Question 35: You are explaining to your team that all changes on your project must be documented and assessed in relation to any extra costs incurred. This is particularly important at what point in a project’s timeline ?
  • A: At the beginning of the project.
  • B: Towards the end of the project.
  • C: During the project execution.
  • D: It is equal throughout a project.
Question 36: While studying towards the PMP® examination, you memorize the processes in the PMBOK® Guide. How many processes are there in the Project Integration Management knowledge area in the PMBOK® Guide?
  • A: 7
  • B: 5
  • C: 4
  • D: 6
Question 37: You are involved in making choices about resource allocation on your project, making trade-offs among competing objectives and alternatives, and managing the interdependencies a mong the different project management knowledge areas. Of which of the PMBOK® Guide knowledge areas will it be most useful to have an in-depth understanding?
  • A: Develop Project Management Plan
  • B: Project Integration Management
  • C: Project Risk Management
  • D: Perform Integrated Change Control
Question 38: One of your team members has recently discovered the PMBOK® Guide and is intent on doing a project using each and ever y process, tool, and technique. You take this team member aside and explain to her that the knowledge and processes described in the PMBOK® Guide should be applied in what way?
  • A: You should apply the project management knowledge, skills, and required processes in whatever order is appropriate and with varying degrees of rigor to achieve the desired project performance.
  • B: Rigorously and exactly as shown in the PMBOK® Guide.
  • C: The PMBOK® Guide is only a guide, and you should only apply the parts you understand fully.
  • D: You should apply all the different knowledge areas and processes to your project at the level required to achieve project success.
Question 39: You are newly appointed to a project and are currently reading the project charter to gain an understanding of what is known about the project at this point. The project charter should contain enough information to do all of the following except?
  • A: Complete the WBS.
  • B: Initiate the project.
  • C: Describe the high-level project scope.
  • D: Appoint the project manager.
Question 40: You have been called in to evaluate a project that is experiencing some performance challenges. The team seems disorganized, and when you ask to meet the project sponsor, the project manager replies that she doesn’t know who the sponsor is. She also shares with you that the planned value (PV) is $20,000, earned value (EV) is $14,500, and the actual cost (AC) is $36,000. You decide that you should really go back to the beginning and figure out how this project got started. What document should you request?
  • A: The project plan
  • B: The project charter
  • C: The cost performance analysis and report
  • D: The project authorization memo
Question 41: You and your team are currently developing the project charter and are looking for valuable inputs you can use to complete it. All of the following are inputs in the Develop Project Charter process except?
  • A: Business case
  • B: Project management plan
  • C: Enterprise environmental factors
  • D: Project statement of work
Question 42: You have completed a business case and project charter for your project and are presenting it to senior management for consideration and approval. Which of the following have you included in this document?
  • A: The project management plan
  • B: A copy of the stakeholder register
  • C: Any blank templates your organization has to assist in completing the project charter
  • D: A description of the expected market demand for the product of the project
Question 43: There are many ways to describe the work to be done on a project. Wha t is the high-level, narrative description of products or services to be delivered by the project more commonly referred to as?
  • A: Project statement of work
  • B: Project scope statement
  • C: Project scope
  • D: Product scope description
Question 44: Which of the following is not a method you would expect to see used in a business case to justify a project on financial grounds?
  • A: External rate of investment (ERI)
  • B: Return on investment (ROI)
  • C: Net present value (NPV)
  • D: Internal rate of return (IRR)
Question 45: You are a project manager working for an organization and have been asked to help evaluate some potential projects and draft the statement of work (SOW) to be given to potential solution providers. One of the projects has an expected value of $50,000 in three years. Another project has an expected value of $60,000 in four years. The discount rate is 8.2%. You will want to make sure your statement of work indicates all the following except?
  • A: Staffing plan
  • B: Business need
  • C: High-level project scope description
  • D: Strategic plan
Question 46: You are in the process of developing a project charter for your project. Which of the following is a tool or technique that you would find useful to complete this work?
  • A: Delphi technique
  • B: Expert judgment
  • C: Analytical techniques
  • D: Business case preparation
Question 47: You have just taken over a project that has been underway for 10 months. The previous project manager left the project for health reasons. The project is performing well but you would like to become familiar with the way in which this particular project is being executed, monitored and controlled, and closed. What document will help you in this instance?
  • A: Quality management plan
  • B: Project statement of work
  • C: Project charter
  • D: Project management plan
Question 48: You and your team are carrying out the development of the project management plan for your project. You are unsure about which inputs are best to use to develop it. All of the following may be of assistance to you except?
  • A: Communications management plan
  • B: Project charter
  • C: Process improvement plan
  • D: Work performance information
Question 49: After completing most of your project management plan, your project sponsor is so impressed that she comments, "With this level of planning and detail, we know exactly where the project will be nine months from now." What is the BEST response you should give to the sponsor ?
  • A: “Projects seldom run exactly according to the project management plan, which is why we have the integrated change control process.”
  • B: “Projects that are planned and scheduled using the critical chain method will completely eliminate any possible changes.”
  • C: “That’s correct. Good planning gives us precise knowledge about how our project will perform.”
  • D: “These are exactly the type of results that are achieved through professional project management as defined in the PMBOK® Guide.”
Question 50: Whic h of the following would your project sponsor not expect to see in your project management plan?
  • A: The project management plan can be either summary or detailed.
  • B: The project management plan sets out the business case for the project, the project manager, and approval from the project sponsor.
  • C: The project management plan describes how work will be executed to accomplish the project objectives.
  • D: The project management plan integrates and consolidates all of the subsidiary management plans.
Question 51: You and your project team are busy putting together a first iteration of your project management plan. One of your team members seems confused about what exactly a project management plan is. Which of the following answers would be your best response to this team member?
  • A: The project management plan includes the actions necessary to define, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans into a project management plan. This is a deliverable that is rarely used in real practice.
  • B: The project management plan includes the actions necessary to define, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans into a project management plan. The content will be very similar regardless of the complexity of the project.
  • C: The project management plan includes the actions necessary to define, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans into a project management plan. The content will vary depending on the complexity of the project.
  • D: The project management plan includes the actions necessary to define, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans into a project management plan. The content will be very high level and further refined in the project charter.
Question 52: Which of the following tools or techniques would you find useful when developing your project management plan?
  • A: Project scope analysis
  • B: Project management information systems
  • C: Expert judgment
  • D: Business case preparation
Question 53: Your project management plan describes your performance measurement baseline against which you will measure project performance in several interrelated areas. This baseline is most commonly a combination of what other baselines?
  • A: Procurement, scope, and cost baselines
  • B: Schedule, cost, and risk baselines
  • C: Communications, cost, and schedule baselines
  • D: Scope, schedule, and cost baselines
Question 54: You and your project team are implementing a variety of approved chan ges to your project. Which of the following would not be a type of approved change?
  • A: Lessons learned
  • B: Preventative action
  • C: Corrective action
  • D: Defect repair
Question 55: The activities involved in performing the work defined in the project management plan to achieve the project’s objectives include all of the following except?
  • A: Issue change requests and adapt approved changes into the project’s scope, plan, and environment.
  • B: Manage risks and implement risk response activities.
  • C: Staff, train, and manage the team members assigned to the project.
  • D: Complete the business case and use it as an input into the development of the project charter.
Question 56: You are in the process of directing and managing the work to be done on the project. Which of the following would not be of use to you during this process?
  • A: Project management plan
  • B: Work performance data
  • C: Approved change requests
  • D: Enterprise environmental factors
Question 57: You are in the process of directing and managing the work to be done on the project. Which of the following would not be a useful ty pe of Organizational Process Asset to use during this process?
  • A: Issue and defect management procedures
  • B: Process measurement database
  • C: Stakeholder risk tolerances
  • D: Standardized guidelines and work instructions
Question 58: You are the sponsor on a time-constrained project that must deliver the expected output by a defined date or your organization will face severe financial penalties. You meet with the project manager 20 days after the kick-off of the project and ask to have an update on schedule progress, schedule activities that have been started, and the extent to which quality standards are being met. The project manager looks at you somewhat uncomfortably and tells you that he doesn’t have any of that information. What output from Direct and Manage Project Work process is the project manager missing?
  • A: Change requests
  • B: Project management plan updates
  • C: Deliverables
  • D: Work performance data
Question 59: The process of tracking, reviewing, and regulating the progress of your project to meet the performance objectives defined in the project management plan is known as what?
  • A: Perform Integrated Change Control process
  • B: Direct and Manage Project Work process
  • C: Monitor and Control Project Work process
  • D: Develop Project Management Plan process
Question 60: You and your team are completing work to monitor and control project work. Which of the following tools or techniques would not be of use to you to complete this work?
  • A: Expert judgment
  • B: Delphi technique
  • C: Analytical techniques
  • D: Meetings
Question 61: You and your team are completing work to monitor and control project work. As part of this effort you are producing a variety of outputs . Which of the following is not one of these outputs?
  • A: Project management plan updates
  • B: Work performance information
  • C: Change requests
  • D: Project documents updates
Question 62: You and your team are considering making an early change to a part of the project management plan when one of your team members says that it is too early to be considering any changes. At what points in the project would you perform integrated change control?
  • A: During project execution
  • B: From project inception to completion
  • C: During project monitoring and control
  • D: From project execution through to project closure
Question 63: Your client has requested a change to the project and as a result you are preparing a change request according to the approved change control process that your project management methodology prescribes. A project administrator on your project asks to assist in the preparation and assessment of the change request but seems confused about the key characteristics of a change request. You explain that all of the following are characteristics of a change request except?
  • A: Every documented change request must be approved or rejected.
  • B: All change requests should be considered by the change control board.
  • C: They may be initiated verbally.
  • D: They may involve assessing impacts on several knowledge areas.
Question 64: You have developed a formal documented system and set of processes to assist with technical and administrative direction, control, and iteration management of project documents, records, accountability, physical characteristics, and required materials. What is this system called?
  • A: A work authorization system
  • B: A risk management system
  • C: A project management information system (PMIS)
  • D: A configuration management system
Question 65: You are carrying out project-wide application of the configuration management system in order to accomplish three main objectives . Which of the following is not one of these objectives?
  • A: Establishing an evolutionary method to consistently identify and request changes to established baselines.
  • B: Providing a documented process to enable the assessment of requested changes to the project.
  • C: Providing opportunities to continuously validate and improve the project by considering the impact of each change.
  • D: Providing a mechanism for the project management team to consistently communicate all approved and rejected changes to the stakeholders.
Question 66: The configuration management system is a collection of formal documented procedures. Which of the following is not an objective of configuration management ?
  • A: Prevent any changes to functional characteristics.
  • B: Record and report each change to the functional characteristics.
  • C: Identify and document the functional characteristics of a product.
  • D: Support the audit of the products to verify conformance to requirements.
Question 67: You are in the process of documenting, assessing, and making a decision on a requested change to your project. Which of the following configuration management activities would you not find useful at this time?
  • A: Configuration control and assessment
  • B: Configuration identification
  • C: Configuration status accounting
  • D: Configuration validation and audit
Question 68: As an experienced project manager, you have been asked to review a project with an SPI of 0.86 and a CPI of 0.83. You quickly identify a number of changes that are required to fix defects and meet some critical customer needs. Which of the following PMBOK® Guide processes will you need to perform first?
  • A: Perform Integrated Change Control
  • B: Direct and Manage Project Work
  • C: Monitor and Control Project Work
  • D: Develop Project Management Plan
Question 69: You are carrying out work to document and assess requested changes to your project. Which of the following would you find least helpful to you as an input as you complete this work?
  • A: Organizational Process Assets
  • B: Change requests
  • C: Project documents updates
  • D: Work performance reports
Question 70: Your client has requested a change that is considered feasible but is outside of the already approved project scope, and your project is already significantly advanced. What should occur if the change is approved?
  • A: The project sponsor should be consulted.
  • B: The request should not be approved.
  • C: The relevant baseline will require changing.
  • D: The person making the change request should be removed from the project to avoid conflict of interest.
Question 71: You and your project team are carrying out the work described in the Close Project or Phase process in the PMBOK® guide. You want your team to understand the exact characteristics of this work, so you tell them that the process includes all of the following except?
  • A: Establishing the procedures to investigate and document the reasons for actions taken if a project is terminated before completion.
  • B: Finalizing all activities across all of the project management process groups.
  • C: Closing and finalizing any contracts for providing goods or services.
  • D: It includes all of the activities necessary for administrative closure of the project or phase.
Question 72: While carrying out the work to close the design phase of your project you are using a variety of useful inputs . Which of the following is not a useful input to you?
  • A: Organizational Process Assets
  • B: Accepted deliverables
  • C: Work performance information
  • D: Project management plan
Question 73: You are a project manager and you have just been informed that due to budget cuts your project has been cancelled and your team should cease work immediately. The project was doing very well and will likely be restarted at a later time when organizational finances are better. What is the BEST action to take next?
  • A: Formally document why the project was terminated and set up the procedures to transfer finished and unfinished deliverables to others.
  • B: Ignore the request since your charter has been approved and it commits organizational resources to your project.
  • C: Release your team to the functional organization, shred most of your documents, and ask for a new project.
  • D: See if more money is available from another project.
Question 74: You are just about to complete administrative closure of your project and are updating the relevant Organizational Process Assets for your company. Which of the following is not an example of an Organizational Process Asset that you would update?
  • A: Project closure documents
  • B: Project files
  • C: Stakeholder risk tolerance register
  • D: Historical information
Question 75: Your project is reporting a CPI of 1.02 and a SPI of 1.1. The project you are delivering is for a customer who is notoriously difficult to please. Your team comes up with a way to deliver more functionality in the project than the customer is expecting, at a lower cost, and the change will result in improvements to the schedule. What is your BEST course of action?
  • A: Do not do the extra work because it is not included in the project scope.
  • B: Contact the customer and explain the situation to them.
  • C: Carry out the work and surprise the customer.
  • D: Do not do the extra work because the customer will not appreciate it.
Question 76: You are a project manager that is involved with the preparation of a business case to justify whether a particular project should go ahead. You are using net present value as a key financial filter. Your project will spend $100,000 in the first year, and then it will generate revenue of $33,000 in the first year, $62,000 in the second year, and $85,000 in the third year. Assuming a discount rate of 10%, what is the net present value?
  • A: $100,000
  • B: $45,101
  • C: $80,000
  • D: $280,000
Question 77: You are choosing between two potential projects that your organization could undertake. The first project, Project Eagle , will cost $500,000 and will have a NPV of $50,000. The second project, Project Falcon, will cost $420,000 and will have a NPV of $48,000. Which of the two projects should you do?
  • A: Do not have enough information to answer this question.
  • B: Project Falcon.
  • C: Project Eagle.
  • D: Neither project meets NPV criteria.
Question 78: After measuring expected project benefits, your project management office has four projects from which to choose. Project A has a NPV of $160,000 and will cost $10,000. Project B has a NPV of $470,000 and will cost $220,000. Project C has a NPV of $265,000 and will cost $33,000. Project D has a NPV of $335,000 and will cost $57,000. Which project would be BEST?
  • A: Project C
  • B: Project A
  • C: Project B
  • D: Project D
Question 79: You are assisting your portfolio manager in making a decision about which of two possible projects should be given approval to proceed. Project A would generate $75,000 in benefit. Project B would generate $225,000 in benefit. Unfortunately, due to limited resources, your company can only perform one project, and they choose Project B because of the higher benefit. What is the opportunity cost of performing Project B?
  • A: $225,000
  • B: $75,000
  • C: $300,000
  • D: $150,000

Project Scope Management

Question 80: The processes that describe the work required to ensure that the project includes all the work and only the work required to complete the project successfully are collectively known as what?
  • A: Project scope management
  • B: Project baseline delivery
  • C: Project specification delivery
  • D: Project management execution
Question 81: You are completing the work defined in the project scope statement of a new software development project when a team member points out that you have an opportunity to deliver enhanced capability to the client at no extra cost, time, or risk to the project. What should you do NEXT?
  • A: Decline to make the changes and proceed to deliver exactly what the scope statement sets out.
  • B: Assess the change via the change control process and, if approved, amend the project scope statement.
  • C: Go ahead and make the changes, and surprise the client with the extra capability.
  • D: Ask the team member to keep quiet about the changes and ignore her recommendation because it presents too many risks to the project.
Question 82: You are new to a project that has been underway for some time. One of your first jobs as project manager is to familiarize yourself with and understand the scope baseline . What documents will you require in order to do this?
  • A: The project scope statement, the WBS, and the WBS dictionary
  • B: The project scope statement, the WBS, and the risk register
  • C: The WBS, the change register, and the project scope statement
  • D: The WBS, the project management plan, and the change register
Question 83: You are a project manager and you are working with your sponsor to define and plan a complex project. You plan to complete your initiation and planning documents sequentially to make sure the organization really understands and supports the project. What key deliverables will you produce in the correct order?
  • A: First the project management plan, then then project charter, and then the project scope statement.
  • B: First the project charter, then the requirements documentation, and then the project scope statement.
  • C: First the project charter, then the project scope statement, and then the requirements documentation.
  • D: First the project management plan, then the requirements documentation, and then the project charter.
Question 84: What is the name of the planning document that describes how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed?
  • A: Requirements traceability matrix
  • B: Scope management plan
  • C: Requirements management plan
  • D: Requirements scope statement
Question 85: Completion of the project scope is measured against the scope management plan . What is completion of the product scope measured against?
  • A: Client expectations
  • B: Scope management plan
  • C: Project management plan
  • D: Product requirements
Question 86: As part of your ongoing commitment to mentoring the next generation of professional project managers you have taken on an intern on your software development project. You are explaining to her the key differences between project requirements and product requirements. How would you best explain this to her?
  • A: Project requirements relate to the detail contained in the individual components of the project management plan and the processes that make them up, while product requirements relate to the specifications provided by the client and their expectations for the project delivery methodology.
  • B: Project requirements can include tools and techniques for completing the appropriate project process groups, while product requirements can include the method of delivery and manufacturing quality specifications.
  • C: Project requirements relate to the detail included in the project management plan, while product requirements are defined by the client’s expectations.
  • D: Project requirements can include business requirements, project management requirements, and delivery requirements, while product requirements can include technical requirements, security requirements, and performance requirements.
Question 87: You are carrying out the work to define and document the project stakeholders ’ needs to meet the project objectives. What PMBOK® Guide process describes this work best?
  • A: Determine stakeholder expectations.
  • B: Project integration management.
  • C: Project scope management.
  • D: Collect requirements.
Question 88: A team member on your project has questioned whether the project is delivering as per the original high-level requirements and narrative high-level product description, and is concerned that what you are doing has deviated from this. What is your BEST course of action?
  • A: Check the project scope statement.
  • B: Check the project management plan.
  • C: Check the project charter.
  • D: Have the team member assigned to another project because she is clearly not a team player.
Question 89: You are carrying out the work to define and document the project stakeholders’ needs to meet the project objectives. All of the following are tools or techniques that would be useful to you except?
  • A: Focus groups
  • B: Requirements traceability matrix
  • C: Group decision-making techniques
  • D: Interviews
Question 90: You have decided to use a technique to help get a comprehensive set of project requirements that involves getting a group of experts to answer a series of questionnaires anonymously and provide feedback on information received in an iterative manner. What technique are you using?
  • A: Mind mapping
  • B: Nominal group technique
  • C: Brainstorming
  • D: The Delphi technique
Question 91: You have just completed the work of gathering, documenting, and prioritizing the project and product requirements, and mapping them back to original project objectives. Which PMBOK® Guide process best describes this work?
  • A: Scope Definition
  • B: Develop Project Charter
  • C: Project Scope Management
  • D: Collect Requirements
Question 92: An experienced team member has taken responsibility for compiling the requirements documentation for the project. Which of the following components would you not expect to see included in this documentation?
  • A: Business rules stating the guiding principles of the organization
  • B: Business need
  • C: Acceptance criteria
  • D: Configuration management activities
Question 93: You are a project manager working on a complex construction project and have begun the process of planning your project. You have the project charter, which is guiding you in preparing your project management plan . Using your requirements documentation, you begin the process of developing a detailed description of the project and product. What process are you completing?
  • A: Collect Requirements
  • B: Define Scope
  • C: Plan Scope Management
  • D: Define Activities
Question 94: You are the project manager for a large project and have recently taken over the project from another project manager. On review of the project schedule, you learn that two major deliverables are missing. Your sponsor reminds you how important it is to complete this project on time and within budget. What part of scope management was likely not done properly and should be reviewed and perhaps even repeated?
  • A: Decomposition
  • B: Critical path analysis
  • C: Integrated change control
  • D: Stakeholder analysis
Question 95: You are completing the work to define the scope of your project. This work is best performed with a certain variety of documents and processes already available to you. Which of the following is not a useful input for you to have in order to complete this work?
  • A: Project scope statement
  • B: Project charter
  • C: Requirements documentation
  • D: Your organization’s project management methodology
Question 96: You have been assigned as a new project manager for a multi-phase project that is midway through phase 3 of 5 phases. While the overall work of the team seems pretty good, you feel that phase 3 is starting to drift from the original plan. You set up a meeting with the project sponsor to discuss your concerns. The sponsor is surprised and agrees that phase 3 includes work that was not documented in the original agreement. To prove this, the sponsor refers you to which document?
  • A: Requirements traceability matrix
  • B: Project management plan
  • C: Statement of work
  • D: Project scope statement
Question 97: You and your project team have spent time decomposing the project scope statement using your organization’s work breakdown structure template. What is the lowest level of the work breakdown structure called?
  • A: Tasks
  • B: Work packages
  • C: Activities
  • D: Units
Question 98: The PMBOK® Guide process of subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller components is known as what?
  • A: Collect Requirements
  • B: Define Activities
  • C: Define Scope
  • D: Create WBS
Question 99: You have just completed a workshop with all of your senior project technicians to break the project work down into its component parts and produce the first iteration of your work breakdown structure. All of the following are true about the work breakdown structure except?
  • A: The planned work within the lowest levels can be scheduled, cost estimated, monitored, and controlled.
  • B: It is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed by the project team in order to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables.
  • C: Each descending level of the WBS represents an increasingly detailed definition of the project work.
  • D: It is an output of the Define Scope process in the PMBOK® Guide.
Question 100: The point in the decomposition of the WBS at which cost and activity durations for the work can be reliably estimated and managed is called what?
  • A: Tasks
  • B: Activities
  • C: WBS dictionary elements
  • D: Work packages
Question 101: You are consulting with senior technicians working on your project in order to decompose the project scope into its component parts to produce a work breakdown structure for your project. One team member with extensive experience and a focus on detail wishes to continue decomposing the project scope further but you advise him against doing this because excessive decomposition of the WBS can lead to all of the following except?
  • A: Non-productive management effort
  • B: Inefficient use of resources
  • C: Decreased efficiency in performing the work
  • D: Added value
Question 102: You have a new team member on board and she is new to the profession of project management. How would you explain the work breakdown structure to her?
  • A: The WBS is a list of categories and sub-categories within which risks may arise for a typical project.
  • B: The WBS is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type to be used on the project.
  • C: The WBS defines the scope of the contract.
  • D: The WBS represents the work specified in the current approved project scope statement.
Question 103: Your project team has largely completed the creation of the WBS. However, some deliverables have not been decomposed because clarity is lacking. The project team decides to leave them and wait until more details are available. What is this an example of?
  • A: Rolling wave planning
  • B: Progressive decision making
  • C: Iterative expectation management
  • D: Poor project management planning
Question 104: You are having trouble understanding some of the detail associated with your WBS work packages. To help you understand the components of your WBS in greater detail, which document would you use?
  • A: Project scope statement
  • B: Project charter
  • C: WBS dictionary
  • D: Activity list
Question 105: A team member responsible for validating the scope of the project seems to be confusing this work with quality control work. How would you explain the difference between scope validation and quality control work on the project?
  • A: Scope validation is primarily concerned with acceptance of the deliverables, while quality control is primarily concerned with correctness of the deliverables and meeting the quality requirements specific for the deliverables.
  • B: Scope validation involves checking the output from the project, whereas quality control means checking the output from the product.
  • C: Scope validation is primarily concerned with ensuring the scope management plan is being followed, while quality control is ensuring that the product is fit for its purpose.
  • D: Scope validation involves checking that the requirements documentation reflects the project charter, whereas quality control means checking the amount of defects in the deliverable.
Question 106: You are currently completing work associated with the process called Validate Scope in the PMBOK® Guide. What is this process primarily focused on?
  • A: Performing variance analysis on the expected and actual deliverables.
  • B: Finalizing the project and product scope statement.
  • C: Formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.
  • D: Accepting approved change requests and amending the project scope baseline.
Question 107: You are using your project management plan, requirements documentation, and requirements traceability matrix, and you are undertaking inspection to validate the project and product. What PMBOK® Guide process group are you involved in?
  • A: Closing
  • B: Monitoring and Controlling
  • C: Planning
  • D: Executing
Question 108: The customer has contacted you and has requested a change to the scope of your project, which is already well underway. They are in a hurry to get the change implemented and they tell you that they are prepared to pay whatever extra cost is associated with the change so you should just get on and do it. What is your BEST course of action?
  • A: Tell the customer it is too late because the scope is already defined.
  • B: Refer to your change control process for controlling scope and submit the request as detailed.
  • C: Incorporate the change into the project because the customer has agreed to it.
  • D: Send the customer a written agreement for them to sign before you accept the change into the project.
Question 109: Your team is receiving a large number of small change requests and some are being adopted without being fully documented and assessed. These uncontrolled scope changes are often referred to as what?
  • A: Scope amendment
  • B: Scope variance
  • C: Scope change
  • D: Scope creep
Question 110: A team member is concerned that you have not documented how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and changed. What document will you show this team member to show him how you did the work?
  • A: Requirements management plan
  • B: Change control plan
  • C: Project management plan
  • D: Scope management plan
Question 111: You are assessing the magnitude of variation of actual work performed from the original scope baseline. What technique are you utilizing?
  • A: Scope baseline analysis
  • B: Change control assessment
  • C: Variance analysis
  • D: Variation change analysis
Question 112: You are leading a PMP® study group within your organization. You are widely respected within the organization for your theoretical and practical knowledge, particularly in those areas required to pass the PMP®. Several of the students in the class are struggling with some of the concepts in the recommended study material, particularly the PMBOK® Guide. An area of concern to most of the class relates to the distinction between the focus of the Validate Scope and Quality Control processes . They look to you for clarification and a clear explanation. How do you best describe the difference between these two processes?
  • A: Quality Control is performed in the Monitoring and Controlling part of the project, while Validate Scope is performed at the Executing part of the project.
  • B: Quality Control is concerned with the correct acceptance of the deliverables; Validate Scope is concerned with the completeness of the deliverables.
  • C: Quality Control is concerned with the correctness of the deliverables; Validate Scope is concerned with the acceptance of the deliverables.
  • D: Validate Scope is performed by the project sponsor, while Quality Control is performed by the team members.

Project Time Management

Question 113: You are helping a colleague study for the PMP® exam, and as part of his study plan he is using the PMBOK® Guide as one of his reference books. He is having difficulty understanding the Time Management knowledge area processes, particularly how inputs from one process are often outputs from other processes and as such there is an order in which the processes are generally performed. You offer some advice and describe the generally correct order of schedule development activities in the Time Management knowledge area in the PMBOK® Guide. What is your answer?
  • A: Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Resources, Estimate Activity Durations, Develop Schedule
  • B: Sequence Activities, Develop Schedule, Estimate Activity Resources, Estimate Activity Durations, Define Activities
  • C: Define Activities, Estimate Activity Resources, Estimate Activity Durations, Sequence Activities, Develop Schedule
  • D: Sequence Activities, Define Activities, Estimate Activity Resources, Estimate Activity Durations, Develop Schedule
Question 114: You are using the work packages from your WBS to assist with creating your project schedule. You begin breaking the work packages down into the actual work necessary to complete the work package. What are you in the process of defining?
  • A: WBS dictionary items
  • B: Project tasks
  • C: Activities
  • D: Work package assignments
Question 115: You are the project manager on a project that is currently in the planning stage. You are working on your project schedule and beginning the process of defining your activity list . Involving your team members in this process would result in what outcome?
  • A: Better and more accurate results
  • B: Project inefficiencies due to delays experienced in building consensus
  • C: Bad team morale due to disagreements between experts
  • D: Extra cost to the project
Question 116: You have your activity list completed and are explaining to your team members what it contains. Which of the following is not contained on the activity list?
  • A: Milestone list
  • B: Scope of work description
  • C: All schedule activities required on the project
  • D: Activity identifier
Question 117: You and your project management team are conducting the activity sequencing for a new project. The team has determined that Task A takes 3 days. Task B is dependent on Task A finishing and has a duration of 1 day. Task C takes 4 days. Task D is dependent on Task C starting and has a duration of 7 days. Task E is dependent on both Task C and Task D finishing and has a duration of 2 days. Task F is dependent on both Task E and Task B finishing and has a duration of 4 days. What is the duration of the project?
  • A: 10 days
  • B: 13 days
  • C: 17 days
  • D: 8 days
Question 118: You are leading your team in the preparation of your project schedule and are currently sequencing the activities and determining which type of precedence relationship exists between them. Which of the following is the most commonly used type of precedence relationship that you will use?
  • A: Start-to-start
  • B: Start-to-finish
  • C: Finish-to-finish
  • D: Finish-to-start
Question 119: You are using the precedence diagramming method to construct your project schedule network diagram. What other name is sometimes used to describe the precedence diagramming method?
  • A: Activity-on-node diagram
  • B: Activity-on-arrow diagram
  • C: Critical chain methodology
  • D: Critical path methodology
Question 120: After talking with your team and the people responsible for completing the activity, you schedule two activities in your project so that the successor activity is able to start a week before the predecessor activity. What is this is an example of?
  • A: Lag
  • B: Lead
  • C: Slack
  • D: Float
Question 121: You are leading your project scheduling specialists in the completion of your project schedule and you wish to add leads and lags into your schedule to accurately reflect the total project duration. Some members of your team are confused about the two terms. How would you describe the difference between a lead and a lag to them?
  • A: A lead means a successor activity can be started prior to the completion of a predecessor activity. A lag directs a delay in the successor activity.
  • B: A lead means that both activities can start at the same time. A lag means that neither can start until the other one starts.
  • C: A lead means that the successor activity must start prior to the predecessor activity finishing. A lag means the successor activity has a mandatory dependency and can not start until the predecessor activity is complete.
  • D: A lead means the amount of time free on the critical path between activities. A lag is the amount of delay that can occur between activities that will not adversely affect the final project delivery date.
Question 122: You are completing the sequence of activities and note that one of your activities can not proceed until consent is granted by the local government agency. This is an example of what sort of dependency?
  • A: Discretionary
  • B: External
  • C: Environmental
  • D: Mandatory
Question 123: You have successfully completed the first iteration of your project schedule network diagram. This indicates that you have completed the work in which PMBOK® Guide process?
  • A: Control Schedule
  • B: Define Activities
  • C: Develop Schedule
  • D: Sequence Activities
Question 124: Your project sponsor has asked to see your resource calendar. What sort of information is included in this document?
  • A: The length of time the project will require input from external resources.
  • B: The dates of annual holidays for project team members.
  • C: The duration of each activity in the project resource diagram.
  • D: When and how long project resources will be available during the project.
Question 125: You are estimating your activity resources and breaking down the work within each activity to its lowest level and then aggregating these estimates to get a total quantity for each activity’s resources. What tool or technique are you using?
  • A: Published estimating data
  • B: Bottom-up estimating
  • C: Expert judgment
  • D: Parametric estimating
Question 126: You are about to begin the work to estimate activity durations on your project. Which of the following would not be an input you could use to complete this work?
  • A: Activity attributes
  • B: Activity duration estimates
  • C: Project scope statement
  • D: Activity list
Question 127: While estimating the activity durations on your project, you come across a similar project completed by your organization last year. To save time, you use information from this project to help estimate activity durations. This is an example of which tool or technique?
  • A: Bottom-up estimating
  • B: Analogous estimating
  • C: Parametric estimating
  • D: Three-point estimating
Question 128: As a result of a brainstorming session, your team determines that the most likely duration of an activity will be 8 days, the optimistic duration is 6 days, and the pessimistic duration is 16 days. What it the expected activity duration?
  • A: 10 days
  • B: 5 days
  • C: 9 days
  • D: 30 days
Question 129: There is some uncertainty over the duration of a particular activity on your project. You call your team together, all of whom have experience in completing the activity. After a brainstorming session, they are able to determine a most likely duration, an optimistic duration, and a pessimistic duration. You then use these numbers to calculate the expected activity duration. This is an example of which sort of tool or technique?
  • A: Bottom-up estimating
  • B: Three-point estimating
  • C: Analogous estimating
  • D: Parametric estimating
Question 130: To estimate the amount of time it will take to install 500 meters of cable on your project, you divide the number of meters required by how many meters an hour the person laying the cable can lay. This is an example of which sort of tool or technique?
  • A: Three-point estimating
  • B: Bottom-up estimating
  • C: Analogous estimating
  • D: Parametric estimating
Question 131: You are leading your team members in the development of your project schedule. You have just started the process and are checking that you have all the appropriate inputs required. Which of the following would not be an input into this process?
  • A: Resource calendar
  • B: Project schedule network diagram
  • C: Activity list
  • D: Project schedule
Question 132: What is the PMBOK® Guide process of analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource requirements, and scheduled constraints to create the project schedule?
  • A: Project Schedule Development
  • B: Create Project Schedule
  • C: Develop Schedule
  • D: Schedule Management
Question 133: You are completing a network diagram with the following information: Task A has a duration of 3 days and has the start as a predecessor; Task B has a duration of 5 days and also has the start as a predecessor; Task C has a duration of 4 days and has Task A as a predecessor; Task D has a duration of 4 days and has Task B as a predecessor; Task E has a duration of 6 days and has Tasks C and D as predecessors; Task F has a duration of 5 days and has Task D as a predecessor; the finish milestone has a duration of zero days and has Tasks E and F as predecessors. Using this data, what is the duration of the project?
  • A: 16
  • B: 14
  • C: 13
  • D: 15
Question 134: You are completing a network diagram with the following information: Task A has a duration of 3 days and has the start as a predecessor; Task B has a duration of 5 days and also has the start as a predecessor; Task C has a duration of 4 days and has Task A as a predecessor; Task D has a duration of 4 days and has Task B as a predecessor; Task E has a duration of 6 days and has Tasks C and D as predecessors; Task F has a duration of 5 days and has Task D as a predecessor; the finish milestone has a duration of zero days and has Tasks E and F as predecessors. What is the critical path for this network diagram?
  • A: Start-B-D-F-Finish
  • B: Start-B-D-E-Finish
  • C: Start-A-C-E-Finish
  • D: Start-A-C-F-Finish
Question 135: According to Goldratt’s critical chain theory, what should you do in order to reduce risk in project schedules?
  • A: Start activities in the feeder chains as late as possible.
  • B: Add buffers to the critical chains.
  • C: Start activities in the critical chains as early as possible.
  • D: Start activities in the feeder chains as early as possible.
Question 136: During a discussion with a fellow project manager you realize that she is using the terms critical path method and critical chain method incorrectly. You offer some pieces of advice and insight into how the two methods are different. Which of these statements about the critical path method and the critical chain method is FALSE?
  • A: The critical path method schedules early start and late start dates to planned activities, whereas the critical chain method schedules only late start dates to planned activities.
  • B: The critical chain method initially uses non-conservative estimates, whereas the critical path method is concerned with using more accurate estimates.
  • C: The critical path method focuses on managing the total float of network paths, whereas the critical chain method focuses on managing the buffer activity durations and the resources applied to planned schedule activities.
  • D: The critical chain method accounts for resource availability, whereas the critical path method does not.
Question 137: You are adding duration buffers that are non-workable schedule activities to manage uncertainty in your project schedule. What tool or technique are you using?
  • A: Parametric estimating
  • B: Critical path method
  • C: Three-point estimating
  • D: Critical chain method
Question 138: You are using a methodology that calculates the amount of float on various paths in the network diagram to determine the minimum project duration. What tool or technique are you using?
  • A: Critical path method
  • B: Critical chain method
  • C: Parametric estimating
  • D: Three-point estimating
Question 139: In the first attempt at resource leveling the project schedule, what would you expect to occur?
  • A: The overall project duration will increase.
  • B: The number of required resources will decrease during certain time periods of the project.
  • C: The number of required resources will increase during certain time periods of the project.
  • D: The overall project duration will decrease.
Question 140: You are the project manager on a software project. While examining your schedule you see that there has been a delay in completing a task. The sensible choice seems to move a person, someone who is an expert on the work that is behind, from another task. There is a choice between two people who are working on different tasks. One person is working on a task that has 5 days of free float and the other is working on a task that has 8 days of total float and no free float. What is your BEST course of action?
  • A: A person should be brought in from outside the project.
  • B: The person working on the task with total float of 8 days.
  • C: Either person can be used.
  • D: The person working on the task with free float of 5 days.
Question 141: You are using a computer-based modelling technique that examines possible outcomes based on a range of potential probabilities if a particular situation occurs. What is this technique called?
  • A: Parametric estimating
  • B: Schedule compression
  • C: Critical chain methodology
  • D: What-if scenario analysis
Question 142: Your project team is behind schedule and has decided to compress the schedule. They have requested extra budget to bring in the additional resources required. Which schedule compression technique are they seeking to use?
  • A: Compressing
  • B: Crashing
  • C: Fast tracking
  • D: Resource leveling
Question 143: You have managed to bring forward the predicted completion date for your project by doing in parallel several of the activities that were scheduled to be done in sequence. What is this technique called?
  • A: Acceleration
  • B: Increasing priorities
  • C: Fast tracking
  • D: Crashing
Question 144: You are working on a project to build a new house. Usually you would wait until the concrete foundation dried and then erect the wall on top of it. To speed up the project, you start putting the wall frame together off site while the concrete foundation is drying. This is an example of which schedule compression technique?
  • A: Fast tracking
  • B: Compressing
  • C: Crashing
  • D: Resource leveling
Question 145: Your project sponsor asks you to attend a senior management meeting and present a brief update on your project progress. Which of the following would be best to use in the presentation?
  • A: Bar chart
  • B: Project management plan
  • C: Work performance information
  • D: Schedule network diagram
Question 146: What is the name of the process in the PMBOK® Guide that monitors the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline?
  • A: Develop Schedule
  • B: Monitoring and Controlling
  • C: Verify Schedule
  • D: Control Schedule
Question 147: Your project is underway and you are measuring the forecast schedule against the actual schedule, checking for variances between the two and initiating corrective actions if required. To successfully complete this work, you require a range of inputs. Which of the following is not one of these inputs?
  • A: Project management plan
  • B: Work performance information
  • C: Project schedule
  • D: Work performance data
Question 148: While using the earned value management technique to measure project schedule progress on your project, you discover that your project’s schedule performance index (SPI) is 0.9. What does this mean?
  • A: The amount of buffer in your critical chain methodology is less than optimal.
  • B: The project network diagram was incorrectly put together.
  • C: The project is behind schedule and in need of schedule compression.
  • D: The project is ahead of schedule.
Question 149: You are a project manager on a project where your SPI has been calculated at .95. Your earned value (EV) has been calculated at $10,000, and your actual cost (AC) is $10,400, so what is your planned value (PV)?
  • A: $10,000
  • B: $10,526
  • C: $9,500
  • D: $10,947
Question 150: As part of the development of your project schedule, you are informed that a particular activity has an estimated optimistic duration of 7 days, an estimated pessimistic duration of 15 days, and will most likely take 10 days to complete. Using PERT analysis, what is the standard deviation?
  • A: 0.5
  • B: 10.33
  • C: 1.76
  • D: 1.33
Question 151: As part of the development of your project schedule, you are informed that a particular activity has an estimated optimistic duration of 7 days, an estimated pessimistic duration of 15 days, and will most likely take 10 days to complete. Your sponsor asks you the activity duration range in which you are 95% confident that the activity will be delivered. What is your response?
  • A: 8–12 days
  • B: 7.67–12.99 days
  • C: 9–11.66 days
  • D: 10 days
Question 152: Yvette is the project manager for a software project. She and her team are determining the activity duration estimates for the project. She has requested that each team member determine the estimates by multiplying the quantity of work to be performed by the known historical productivity rate of the individual department. Yvette has asked her team to generate the estimates using what technique?
  • A: Parametric estimating
  • B: Analogous estimating
  • C: Three-point estimating
  • D: Expert judgment
Question 153: Consider the following information. What is the critical path? Task A has a duration of 3 days and is a starting activity. Task B has a duration of 6 days and has Task A as a predecessor. Task C has a duration of 5 days and has Tasks A and B as predecessors. Task D has a duration of 4 days and has Task B as a predecessor. Task E has a duration of 1 day and has Task C as the predecessor. Task F has a duration of 6 days and has Tasks D and E as predecessors. Task G has a duration of 4 days and has Tasks E and F as predecessors.
  • A: A-B-C-E-F-G
  • B: A-D-F-G
  • C: A-C-D-E-F-G
  • D: A-B-D-F-G
Question 154: Consider the following information. How many tasks have a slack of 2 days? Task A has a duration of 3 days and is a starting activity. Task B has a duration of 6 days and has Task A as a predecessor. Task C has a duration of 5 days and has Tasks A and B as predecessors. Task D has a duration of 4 days, and has Task B as a predecessor. Task E has a duration of 1 day and has Task C as a predecessor. Task F has a duration of 6 days and has Tasks D and E as predecessors. Task G has a duration of 4 days and has Tasks E and F as predecessors.
  • A: 4
  • B: 2
  • C: 3
  • D: 1

Project Cost Management

Question 155: You have finished putting together your project budget and notice that there is a point at which cost and staffing levels are highest. At which point in the project would this generally be?
  • A: Starting the project.
  • B: Organizing and preparing.
  • C: Carrying out the work.
  • D: Closing the project.
Question 156: You are completing the work of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline. What PMBOK® Guide process are you completing?
  • A: Cost Performance Baseline
  • B: Estimate Costs
  • C: Control Costs
  • D: Determine Budget
Question 157: You have completed the work required to develop your cost management plan and are introducing it to your team members so that they are aware of its purpose and limitations. The cost management plan can establish all of the following except?
  • A: Units of measure
  • B: Level of accuracy
  • C: Activity definition
  • D: Control thresholds
Question 158: Costs that cannot be directly traced to a specific project and are accumulated and allocated equitably over multiple projects are known as what?
  • A: Indirect costs
  • B: Direct costs
  • C: Allocatable costs
  • D: Non-projectized costs
Question 159: While completing the processes required to develop an approved project budget, you have started the work required to estimate costs on your project. In order to do this successfully, you should have access to several important inputs. Which of the following is not an input you would find useful to complete this work?
  • A: Activity cost estimates
  • B: Project schedule
  • C: Risk register
  • D: Scope baseline
Question 160: Which of the following is not an Organizational Process Asset you would consider when estimating costs on your project?
  • A: Historical information
  • B: Cost-estimating templates
  • C: Market conditions
  • D: Lessons learned
Question 161: You are estimating the costs in your project and are using information from a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating in your current project. What technique are you using?
  • A: Parametric estimating
  • B: Analogous estimating
  • C: Three-point estimating
  • D: Published estimating data
Question 162: You and your team are currently breaking down all the project deliverables into the smallest useful unit so that you can then estimate costs for each of these units and then aggregate these estimates into a total project cost estimate. What is the name of the technique you are using to estimate costs?
  • A: Parametric estimating
  • B: Bottom-up estimating
  • C: Low-level estimating
  • D: Project management software
Question 163: While developing individual costs estimates for work packages on your project, you use a technique that requires you to use a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables to calculate a cost estimate for a schedule activity resource. What is this estimating technique more commonly referred to as?
  • A: Statistical estimating
  • B: Bottom-up estimating
  • C: Parametric estimating
  • D: Top-down estimating
Question 164: Your project sponsor has asked you to provide a cost estimate quickly to give the project steering group an idea of what the costs for a particular work package will be. Which of the following estimating techniques would you choose to use?
  • A: Analogous estimating
  • B: Parametric estimating
  • C: Resource rate estimating
  • D: Bottom-up estimating
Question 165: While completing the cost estimating process for a particular activity in your project, several members of your team disagree over the estimate to do the work. After a discussion with the team, you determine that the most likely cost of the activity will be $25, the optimistic cost of the activity will be $15, and the pessimistic cost will be $70. Using the three-point estimating technique, what is the expected cost of the activity?
  • A: $110
  • B: $36.66
  • C: $30.83
  • D: $25.83
Question 166: While completing the cost estimating for a particular activity in your project, several members of your team disagree over the estimate to do the work. After a discussion with the team, you determine that the most likely cost of the activity will be $50, the optimistic cost of the activity will be $30, and the pessimistic cost will be $70. Using the three-point estimating technique, what is the expected cost of the activity?
  • A: $150
  • B: $25
  • C: $70
  • D: $50
Question 167: During your cost estimating you include a figure for cost uncertainty on your project, and the project sponsor agrees to give you delegated authority to manage this reserve. What is this figure generally known as?
  • A: Reserve analysis
  • B: Contingency reserve
  • C: Management reserve
  • D: Slush fund
Question 168: You are using the three-point estimating method of scheduling for a project. The variance for the project is found to be 16 days and the duration of the project is found to be 90 days. What is the range of values for the project duration such that there will be at least a 95% probability that the actual project completion will fall between the high and low value of the range of values?
  • A: 58-122 days
  • B: 74-106 days
  • C: 82-98 days
  • D: 86-94 days
Question 169: You are aggregating the cost estimates of individual activities and work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline. Which PMBOK® Guide process are you engaged in?
  • A: Budget Preparation
  • B: Determine Budget
  • C: Estimate Costs
  • D: Cost Performance Baseline
Question 170: You have spent time with your team developing individual cost estimates and are now using the project schedule to determine your project budget. Which of the following inputs would you not find helpful to complete this work?
  • A: Cost baseline
  • B: Basis of estimates
  • C: Activity cost estimates
  • D: Scope baseline
Question 171: What is the authorized time-phased budget at completion used to measure, monitor, and control overall cost performance on the project more commonly known as?
  • A: Approved project budget
  • B: Cost baseline
  • C: Activity cost estimate
  • D: Total funding requirements
Question 172: You are monitoring the status of the project to update the project budget and manage changes to the cost baseline. Which PMBOK® Guide process best describes the work are you carrying out?
  • A: Determine Budget
  • B: Control Costs
  • C: Earned Value Management
  • D: Cost Aggregation
Question 173: While using a technique that gathers a number of key metrics to assess, track, and forecast variances in both project cost and time, you discover that the tool is being used without all the required inputs. Which of the following inputs would you not require to use this particular technique?
  • A: Work performance information
  • B: Earned value
  • C: Planned value
  • D: Actual cost
Question 174: After measuring your project performance you note that your schedule variance is $75,000. What would your BEST course of action be?
  • A: Immediately begin fast tracking the schedule to catch up time.
  • B: Ask your project sponsor for extra funds to crash the schedule to catch up time.
  • C: Congratulate your project team on doing well with the project but also submit the information through the approved change control process so that any updates required can be made to the schedule baseline documents.
  • D: Do nothing because everything is going well on your project and you are obviously a good project manager.
Question 175: The earned value on your project is $15,000, the planned value is $20,000, and the actual cost is $18,000. What is your schedule variance?
  • A: -$3,000
  • B: $5,000
  • C: $3,000
  • D: -$5,000
Question 176: The earned value on your project is $18,000, the planned value is $20,000, and the actual cost is $15,000. What is your cost variance?
  • A: $3,000
  • B: -$3,000
  • C: $2,000
  • D: -$2,000
Question 177: The earned value on your project is $26,000, the planned value is $20,000, and the actual cost is $18,000. What is your schedule variance?
  • A: $6,000
  • B: $8,000
  • C: -$8,000
  • D: $2,000
Question 178: The earned value on your project is $52,000, the planned value is $51,000, and the actual cost is $49,000. What is your cost variance?
  • A: $3,000
  • B: $2,000
  • C: $1,000
  • D: -$1,000
Question 179: A new junior project manager seems to be having some difficulty understanding key terms used in the reports being prepared for the project. He is particularly confused by the earned value management system and the approved project budget. You explain to him that there are easy ways to understand what each element means and demonstrate this by point out that the total planned value of the project is better known as what?
  • A: Approved project budget
  • B: Cost baseline
  • C: Actual cost
  • D: Budget at completion
Question 180: What is the term for the measurement of the authorized work that has been completed and the authorized budget for such completed work?
  • A: Cost baseline
  • B: Earned value
  • C: Actual cost
  • D: Budget at completion
Question 181: You are a project manager on a large software project using the earned value reporting system to manage your project. At this point in time, the EV is $24,000, the BAC is $97,000, the PV is $29,000, and the AC is $45,000. What is the percent complete?
  • A: 30%
  • B: 25%
  • C: 46%
  • D: 53%
Question 182: You are working on a large project and have determined that your CV is $50,000 and your EV is $125,000. What is your AC?
  • A: $75,000
  • B: $50,000
  • C: $175,000
  • D: $125,000
Question 183: The earned value on your project is $20,000, the actual cost is $18,000, and the planned value is $25,000. What is your SPI?
  • A: -$5,000
  • B: 1.11
  • C: 0.8
  • D: $5,000
Question 184: The earned value on your project is $25,000, the actual cost is $20,000, and the planned value is $20,000. What is your SPI?
  • A: 0.75
  • B: 1.25
  • C: 1
  • D: 0.8
Question 185: The planned value on your project is $120,000, the earned value is $100,000, the actual cost is $90,000, and your cost variance is $10,000. What is your cost performance index (CPI)?
  • A: 1.2
  • B: 3
  • C: 0.83
  • D: 1.11
Question 186: The planned value on your project is $9,000, the earned value is $9,000, the actual cost is $8,000, and your cost variance is $1,000. What is your cost performance index?
  • A: 1
  • B: 1.125
  • C: 0.88
  • D: 8
Question 187: You are working on a large project and have determined that your cost variance is $50,000 and your earned value is $125,000. What is your cost performance index?
  • A: 2.5
  • B: 1.5
  • C: 0.4
  • D: 1.666
Question 188: Your project control measurements show a CPI of 0.89. What does this show about your project?
  • A: That your project is only spending 89% of the money need to get 100% of the job done.
  • B: That your project is experiencing a cost overrun for the work completed.
  • C: That your project is experiencing a cost underrun for the work completed.
  • D: That your project is running behind schedule and over budget.
Question 189: Your project has a CPI of 1.1 and a SPI of .9. What does this mean?
  • A: You are experiencing a cost underrun and are ahead of schedule.
  • B: You are experiencing a cost overrun and are behind schedule.
  • C: You are experiencing a cost underrun and are behind schedule.
  • D: You are experiencing a cost overrun and are ahead of schedule.
Question 190: You are forecasting your estimate to complete your project and are incurring extra costs to do this work. What sort of estimating technique are you using?
  • A: Earned value management
  • B: Bottom-up EAC estimating
  • C: Estimate to complete (ETC) forecast
  • D: To Complete Performance Index (TCPI)
Question 191: Your actual costs on your project are $75,000, the budget at completion is $100,000, and the earned value is $85,000. Your project has experienced some atypical variances to date which have affected its financial performance but from this point forward you expect it to perform at the originally budgeted rate. What is your estimate at completion?
  • A: $90,000
  • B: $110,000
  • C: $100,000
  • D: $105,000
Question 192: Your budget at completion is $50,000, your earned value is $40,000, and your actual cost is $45,000. Using an estimate at completion forecast for ETC work performed at the present CPI, what is your estimate at completion?
  • A: $47,666
  • B: $50,000
  • C: $56,818
  • D: $53,225
Question 193: The calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal such as the BAC or the EAC is known as what?
  • A: Earned value
  • B: Estimate to complete
  • C: Cost baseline
  • D: To Complete Performance Index
Question 194: Your actual cost on the project is $10,000, the budget at completion is $20,000, the earned value is $8,000, the cumulative CPI is 0.8, and the cumulative SPI is 0.9. Using both your CPI and SPI factors, what is your estimate at completion forecast?
  • A: $18,750
  • B: $25,000
  • C: $22,666
  • D: $26,666
Question 195: You are approximately halfway through a complex construction project and are presenting the data from earned value management analysis of the project to your team. You have a BAC of $50,0000, an EV of $2,800,000, an AC of $260,000, and a PV of $250,000. The team members are happy with these figures and want to know the rate at which they have to work to achieve the revised estimate at completion. What is your answer?
  • A: 1.0
  • B: 0.92
  • C: 1.08
  • D: 0.5
Question 196: As part of the work to check if you are achieving your expected and approved spend on the project, you are completing a process of controlling project costs. Which of the following is not an output from this process?
  • A: Work performance information
  • B: Variance analysis
  • C: Cost forecasts
  • D: Change requests
Question 197: You are managing a project and the original scope baseline of the project was budgeted at $100,000. Since work on the project started there have been 13 authorized and approved changes to the project. The changes have a value of $12,000 and the cost of investigating them prior to their approval was $1,500. What is the current budget for the project?
  • A: $113,500
  • B: $109,500
  • C: $112,000
  • D: $100,000
Question 198: The project you are managing is going well and you are using the earned value management system to assess historical information and forecast a likely future financial state of the project. You have a budget at completion of $120,000, an earned value of $50,000, a planned value of $55,000, and an actual cost of $45,000. What is your To Complete Performance Index to achieve the budget at completion?
  • A: 1
  • B: 1.07
  • C: 0.93
  • D: $5,000
Question 199: You are nearing the end of a residential remodeling project and are presenting the data from earned value management analysis of the project to your team. You have a BAC of $300,000, an EV of $2,500,000, an AC of $260,000, and a PV of $250,000. The team members are happy with these figures and want to know the rate at which they have to work to achieve the budget at completion. What is your answer?
  • A: 1.25
  • B: 0.95
  • C: 1.1
  • D: 0.85

Project Quality Management

Question 200: Customer satisfaction means that customer requirements are met. Meeting customer requirements requires a combination of what two factors?
  • A: Continuous improvement and prevention over inspection
  • B: Conformance to requirements and prevention over inspection
  • C: Continuous improvement and fitness for use
  • D: Conformance to requirements and fitness for use
Question 201: You are successful using the FMEA approach to assess implications of quality decisions on your project. Your client asks you what FMEA stands for. What is your answer?
  • A: Failure model of effective analysis
  • B: Failed measurement and effect analysis
  • C: Failed measurement and effective assurance
  • D: Failure mode and effect analysis
Question 202: Modern quality management complements project management very highly, with both disciplines recognizing the importance of all the following characteristics except?
  • A: Customer satisfaction
  • B: Prevention over inspection
  • C: Continuous improvement
  • D: Total quality management (TQM)
Question 203: Quality is planned, designed, and built into your project instead of being inspected in. What is the main reason that prevention of mistakes in quality is preferred over finding the mistakes via inspection?
  • A: Because finding defects via inspection should be avoided at all costs.
  • B: Because if you are a good project manager and perform prevention well, you won’t have to deal with inspection.
  • C: Because the cost of preventing mistakes is generally much less than the cost of correcting them when they are found by inspection.
  • D: Because your quality management plan focuses on prevention.
Question 204: How would you best describe to your client the difference between precision and accuracy?
  • A: Precision means the degree to which there is conformance to requirements. Accuracy refers to fitness for use.
  • B: Precision means the values of the repeated measurements are clustered and have little scatter. Accuracy means that the measured value is very close to the true value.
  • C: Precision is the degree to which the project quality assurance processes are being met. Accuracy is the degree to which the product meets customer specifications.
  • D: Precision is the ability to provide information to a six sigma level. Accuracy is the process of ensuring that the six sigma target is met.
Question 205: A member of your project team seems confused about the differences between quality approaches to the project and product. How would you best explain these differences?
  • A: Quality in relation to the project relates to the processes and procedures that run the project. Quality in relation to the product looks at conformance to requirements and fitness of use.
  • B: There is no difference between the two.
  • C: Quality in relation to the project is focused on ensuring the project control and reporting are accurate. Quality in relation to the product ensures that it stays within the upper and lower control limits.
  • D: Quality in relation to the project is focused on the preparation and execution of the quality management plan. Quality in relation to the product is set solely by the customer.
Question 206: Your project is behind schedule and you have asked your project team to work longer hours to make up the time so that the customer’s needs are met as planned. As project manager, you should monitor your quality management plan for what reason?
  • A: Meeting customer requirements by overworking the project team may result in increased employee attrition, errors, or rework.
  • B: The customer requirements and specifications can change rapidly during periods of rework as the customer sees opportunities to make changes.
  • C: Achieving customer needs is not the primary focus of the quality management plan, and you need to make sure your team is working on project quality, not product quality, at these times.
  • D: The overtime cost incurred will take away the project budget assigned to the implementation of the quality management plan.
Question 207: Your project team has completed a check of the project and the product you are managing. They discover that although you are meeting the quality requirements, the product is of a low grade. What should you do FIRST?
  • A: Keep the project running as normal with no changes as a result of this discovery.
  • B: Check the quality management plan on what to do when discovering a low-grade product.
  • C: Immediately stop work to discover the source of the low grade, and proceed to fix it.
  • D: Keep the project running so that you don’t lose time, but assign a team member with experience in the area of the product to discover the reason behind the low grade.
Question 208: What is the method of modern quality management that relies on continuing small improvements involving everyone from the top management to the lowest-level worker in the organization more most commonly known as?
  • A: Kampai
  • B: Kanban
  • C: Kawasaki
  • D: Kaizen
Question 209: The PMBOK® Guide process groups of initiating, planning, executing, monitoring, and controlling a project are based on the work of Shewhart and Deming. What is their quality improvement model known as?
  • A: Six Sigma
  • B: Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3)
  • C: Plan-do-check-act cycle
  • D: Total quality management
Question 210: You are explaining to your project sponsor that the decision made to lower the quality of deliverables on the project to save money will have long-lasting cost impacts beyond the project. The project sponsor does not seem convinced so you refer to the concept of cost of quality to make your point. How would you best describe cost of quality to your sponsor?
  • A: The total cost of the quality effort throughout the project life cycle
  • B: The amount of money required to complete your project quality management plan
  • C: The total cost of all efforts related to quality throughout the product life cycle
  • D: The total cost of implementing a prevention and inspection regime
Question 211: The PMBOK® Guide process that is focused on identifying quality requirements and standards for the project and product is known as what?
  • A: Control Quality
  • B: Cost of Quality
  • C: Plan Quality Management
  • D: Perform Quality Assurance
Question 212: You are completing the work to identify and document quality requirements and standards for your project. Which of the following would you not use as an input into this process?
  • A: Requirements documentation
  • B: Stakeholder register
  • C: Risk register
  • D: Quality checklists
Question 213: When considering the cost of quality on your project you should consider all of the following characteristics except?
  • A: Destructive testing loss.
  • B: Investment in preventing non-conformance to requirements.
  • C: Appraising the product or service for conformance to requirements.
  • D: Failing to meet requirements.
Question 214: Which of the following is not an example of a cost of conformance?
  • A: Testing
  • B: Equipment
  • C: Training
  • D: Rework
Question 215: You and your team are checking data that has been gathered and presented in a control chart to determine if the product you are producing is meeting the required quality objectives. What is your main objective in completing this work and representing it in this way?
  • A: To measure if the cost of quality is providing the forecast cost benefit analysis.
  • B: To determine if your quality management plan is achieving the objectives.
  • C: To measure if your product is meeting the goal of fitness for use.
  • D: To determine if a process is stable or has predictable performance.
Question 216: Control limits for the production rates for the machines your project is building are set at 3 and 9, with a mean value of 6 units per hour. The results this week are as follows: 4, 7, 10, 5, and 6. What should you do first?
  • A: Investigate the third result.
  • B: Continue working.
  • C: Investigate the tenth result.
  • D: Investigate the first result.
Question 217: You have received the results of statistical sampling performed on the product of your project. The control chart shows nine data points in a row just under the mean. What should you do first?
  • A: Change the control limits and the mean so the process is under control.
  • B: Find an assignable or special cause using an Ishikawa diagram.
  • C: Nothing. If the data points are not outside the control limits, then the process is in control.
  • D: Fire the quality assurance team.
Question 218: Upper and lower control limits on a control chart are generally set at how many standard deviations above and below the acceptable mean?
  • A: 1 standard deviation
  • B: 2 standard deviations
  • C: 3 standard deviations
  • D: 6 standard deviations
Question 219: Your project data, as shown on the control chart, indicates the latest seven consecutive points are above the mean but within the upper control limit. What is your BEST course of action?
  • A: Stop work immediately and investigate the root cause of the problem.
  • B: Do nothing because the data clearly indicates that the process is above the lower specification limit.
  • C: Initiate corrective action in accordance with your quality management plan.
  • D: Lower the lower control limit so that the data is now above the limit.
Question 220: Your project is generating useful data for your control chart. The latest data indicates that the process of manufacturing the product has produced units below the lower control limit but above the lower specification limit. What is your BEST course of action?
  • A: Initiate corrective action in accordance with your quality management plan.
  • B: Do nothing because the data clearly indicates that the process is above the lower specification limit.
  • C: Stop work immediately and investigate the root cause of the problem.
  • D: Lower the lower control limit so that the data is now above the limit.
Question 221: While working on the project to assess and measure quality, you are determining the number and type of tests and their impact on cost of quality. What technique are you using?
  • A: Design of experiments
  • B: Analogous estimating
  • C: Benchmarking
  • D: Cost of quality
Question 222: You are comparing actual or planned project practices to those of comparable projects to identify best practices and generate ideas for improvement for your project. What quality technique are you using?
  • A: Cost of quality
  • B: Analogous estimating
  • C: Design of experiments
  • D: Benchmarking
Question 223: A quality technique that chooses only a part of a population of interest for studying, and is often used to reduce cost, is called what?
  • A: Inspection
  • B: Flowcharting
  • C: Statistical sampling
  • D: Budget control chart
Question 224: Your project team is working on a software project with over two million lines of code and has just randomly selected a number of lines of code for inspection. What quality technique are they using?
  • A: Benchmarking
  • B: Design of experiments
  • C: Statistical sampling
  • D: Random inspection
Question 225: During a project to deliver a complex set of requirements for a wide range of stakeholders, you and your team have placed a great deal of importance on the quality of the project. You have decided to use a wide variety of tools and techniques to help you achieve the desired quality standards. Which of the following is not an example of a quality planning tool that you would find useful in this endeavor?
  • A: Affinity diagram
  • B: Force field diagram
  • C: Matrix diagram
  • D: Quality checklist
Question 226: While completing work associated with ensuring quality in a project, it is important that you know the difference between several different quality related terms. Several of your team members regularly get confused about the difference between the different terms, particularly understanding exactly what a quality metric is. To demonstrate to your team the difference, you point out that one of the following is not a quality metric. Which one do you point out?
  • A: Failure rate
  • B: Budget control
  • C: Defect frequency
  • D: Upper control limit
Question 227: You have completed the work to plan and document your particular approach to quality on your project. Which of the following is not an output you would expect to produce as a result of this work?
  • A: Quality metrics
  • B: Flowcharting
  • C: Process improvement plan
  • D: Quality management plan
Question 228: The process of continuous process improvements to reduce waste and eliminate activities that do not add value to a project is known as what?
  • A: Progressive elaboration
  • B: Plan quality management
  • C: Control quality
  • D: Perform quality assurance
Question 229: You are using your quality management plan to guide the work being done to ensure that project quality assurance expectations are being met. Which of the following would not be a useful input to you?
  • A: Process improvement plan
  • B: Quality audits
  • C: Quality metrics
  • D: Quality control measurements
Question 230: A project administrator has asked for guidance on completing a project audit as per the approved quality management plan for your project. They are seeking your guidance on what exactly a quality audit is. How is a quality audit best defined?
  • A: A structured, independent review to determine whether product specifications comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures.
  • B: A structured, independent review to determine whether project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures.
  • C: An examination of the product specifications to test whether they are fit for use and conform to requirements.
  • D: A review of the project management plan to ensure it contains the appropriate quality management plan.
Question 231: You are completing the work to ensure the required quality assurance levels are met on your project. Which of the following is an output of this work?
  • A: Quality audits
  • B: Quality metrics
  • C: Change requests
  • D: Process analysis
Question 232: What is the process of monitoring and recording results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes known as?
  • A: Perform quality assurance
  • B: Control quality
  • C: Plan quality management
  • D: Statistical sampling
Question 233: During a workshop to define quality control processes on your project, you sense that team members are confused abut the difference between prevention and inspection. What is the BEST description of the difference between prevention and inspection?
  • A: Prevention is focused on keeping errors out of the process. Inspection is focused on keeping errors out of the hands of the customer.
  • B: Prevention is concerned with the implementation of the quality process at the start of the project. Inspection is done once the project is underway.
  • C: Prevention is the systematic adoption of rigorous quality standards during the planning phase. Inspection is carried out during the monitoring and control process group.
  • D: Prevention is focused on the quality of the project. Inspection is focused on the quality of the product.
Question 234: What is the BEST description of the difference between tolerances and control limits?
  • A: Tolerances are concerned with project quality. Control limits are concerned with product quality.
  • B: Tolerances can indicate if the process is out of control. Control limits specify a range of acceptable results.
  • C: Tolerances are a specified range of acceptable results. Control limits are thresholds that can indicate if the process is out of control.
  • D: Tolerances are concerned with product quality. Control limits are concerned with project quality.
Question 235: All of the following are an example of one of Ishikawa’s seven tools of quality except?
  • A: Flowcharting
  • B: Inspection
  • C: Run chart
  • D: Control charts
Question 236: You are the project manager for a project where quality is an important constraint, and you are trying to correct a problem with a machine that makes parts that are used in complex medical imaging equipment. As a result of carrying our your Control Quality process, you discover that unfortunately these parts are frequently made with defects. You have decided to hold a meeting to discuss the process of making the parts. You create a diagram that has branches that show the possible causes of the problems. Each of the branches breaks the cause down into more and more detail. What is this diagram called?
  • A: Fishbowl diagram
  • B: Cause and effect diagram
  • C: Pareto diagram
  • D: Scatter diagram
Question 237: You are trying to find the cause of an identified problem on your project by examining the various factors that might be linked to potential problems. What technique are you using?
  • A: Ishikawa diagram
  • B: Control chart
  • C: Pareto chart
  • D: Run chart
Question 238: The quality manager on your project wishes to analyze the data that is being received in the form of a list of defects that have occurred in the manufacturing department. The report comes with defects listed chronologically as they occurred, the cost of the repair necessary to correct each defect, the person involved, and a description of the defect. The quality manager would like to determine which of the defects should be corrected first according to the frequency of the defect occurring. Which of the following tools should she use?
  • A: Pareto diagram
  • B: Sampling inspection
  • C: Cause and effect diagram
  • D: Quality critical path
Question 239: You are explaining to your project team the ranking of causes for defects on your project to enable them to focus their corrective actions on those causes that are responsible for the greatest defects. What sort of diagram would you use for this?
  • A: Pareto chart
  • B: Scatter diagram
  • C: Control chart
  • D: Histogram
Question 240: While performing quality control inspections, you note down relevant data and use a vertical bar chart to show how often a particular variable state occurred. What is this sort of bar chart more commonly called?
  • A: Histogram
  • B: Pareto chart
  • C: Control chart
  • D: Scatter diagram
Question 241: While performing quality control inspections, you note down relevant data and use a chart similar to a control chart without displayed limits, which shows the history and pattern of a variation. What sort of chart are you using?
  • A: Fishbone diagram
  • B: Control charts
  • C: Pareto chart
  • D: Run chart
Question 242: A visual presentation of quality data gathered showing the relationship between a dependent and independent variable is known as what?
  • A: Run chart
  • B: Pareto chart
  • C: Control chart
  • D: Scatter diagram
Question 243: Your team members have completed work to perform quality control on the project. Which of the following outputs would you not expect them to produce as a result of doing this work?
  • A: Quality metrics
  • B: Validated changes
  • C: Change requests
  • D: Quality control measurements
Question 244: You and your team are working hard to produce a quality wireless headphone product capable of high-quality audio transmission. You are discussing an approach with your Quality Assurance Team Leader that will aim to reduce the variation the team is experiencing with the prototype headsets being produced. What technique are you discussing?
  • A: Six Sigma
  • B: Lean
  • C: Scrum
  • D: Kanban
Question 245: If a process is considered to have only 3.4 defects per million opportunities, which sigma class is this defined as?
  • A: Two Sigma
  • B: Three Sigma
  • C: Six Sigma
  • D: Twelve Sigma
Question 246: The terms Yellow Belt, Green Belt, and Black Belt are terms given to individuals that practice which methodology?
  • A: Rapid Application Development
  • B: Six Sigma
  • C: Scrum
  • D: Kanban
Question 247: You have been asked by senior management to focus on eliminating any bottlenecks that exist in your project’s processes. What methodology will be most effective in highlighting bottlenecks?
  • A: Prince2
  • B: MPMM
  • C: Lean
  • D: Kanban
Question 248: Your Quality Assurance Manager has requested that you assist her in mapping the value stream for the assembly of a new combustion engine. Value stream mapping is part of which methodology?
  • A: Waterfall
  • B: Scrum
  • C: Lean
  • D: Kaizen

Project Human Resource Management

Question 249: The PMBOK® Guide processes that organize, recruit, reward, manage, and lead the project team are collectively known as what?
  • A: Project Human Resource Management
  • B: Project Team Management
  • C: Project Management
  • D: Project Team Building and Development
Question 250: The project sponsor has several responsibilities while working with the project management team. Which of the following is not a responsibility of the project sponsor?
  • A: Influencing others in support of the project.
  • B: Completing the WBS.
  • C: Monitoring progress.
  • D: Project funding.
Question 251: A team member is studying towards obtaining the PMP® credential and has asked for your assistance with her study. She is having difficulty remembering the generally correct order of activities in the PMBOK® Guide Project Human Resource Management knowledge area. What is your answer to this question?
  • A: Plan Human Resource Management, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team
  • B: Develop Project Team, Acquire Project Team, Plan Human Resource Management, Manage Project Team
  • C: Acquire Project Team, Plan Human Resource Management, Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team
  • D: Plan Human Resource Management, Develop Project Team, Acquire Project Team, Manage Project Team
Question 252: You have completed your human resource management plan for your project. You recognize that the profession of project management features a lot of interdependencies, and you want to make sure that the human resource plan is used in other appropriate parts of your project work. This plan is used as an input into all of the following processes except?
  • A: Identify Risks
  • B: Estimate Costs
  • C: Estimate Activity Resources
  • D: Acquire Project Team
Question 253: While completing initial planning work on your project, you begin to develop your human resource plan. Which of the following inputs would not be of use to you to complete this plan?
  • A: Activity resource requirements
  • B: WBS
  • C: Enterprise environmental factors
  • D: Organizational process assets
Question 254: You are showing your project team members the organizational structure, and you point out where in the structure their role is located. What tool would be useful to you in preparing this information?
  • A: Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
  • B: Work breakdown structure (WBS)
  • C: Resource breakdown structure (RBS)
  • D: Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)
Question 255: You are using a matrix-based chart to give a clear indication of the connection between work packages and team members. Additionally, the chart shows who is responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed about the work. What is the common name of this type of chart?
  • A: RACI chart
  • B: Organizational breakdown structure
  • C: Work breakdown structure
  • D: Responsibility assignment matrix
Question 256: As a competent project manager you should be aware of the leading and foundational theories relating to the management of human resources and their practical application. Which of the following is not one of these theories?
  • A: Colbin’s Intuitive Behavior Modification Theory
  • B: Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs
  • C: McGregor’s Theory X and Theory Y
  • D: Herzberg’s Motivation-Hygiene Theory
Question 257: As a competent project manager you should be aware of the leading and foundational theories relating to the management of human resources and their practical application. Which of the following is not one of these theories?
  • A: Vroom’s Expectancy Theory
  • B: Ouchi’s Theory Z
  • C: McLachlan’s Theory of External Motivation
  • D: McClelland’s Human Motivation, Achievement, or Three Needs Theory
Question 258: While completing initial planning work on your project, you begin to develop your human resource management plan. The human resource management plan can include all the following information except?
  • A: Project organization charts
  • B: Staffing management plan
  • C: Cost estimates for staff time
  • D: Roles and responsibilities
Question 259: What does a resource calendar show?
  • A: The annual leave for staff throughout the project
  • B: The cost of staff members over time
  • C: The human resource level, constraints, and commitment over time
  • D: Any programmed team-building activities throughout the project
Question 260: You are currently attempting to acquire project team members on a project that is just about to start. You are meeting resistance from the functional managers of the staff you want to use on your project, and it appears that you may have to seek help from external consultants. Your project sponsor is concerned about the impact this process is having on the project. All of following are potential adverse effects of not acquiring your project team except?
  • A: Reduced quality
  • B: Decreased customer satisfaction
  • C: Reduced project costs
  • D: Delays to project schedules
Question 261: Your construction manager approaches you about a particular team member that has just been assigned to the project. She thinks that he does not have the required skills to complete the work expected of him and suggests that this team member be assigned to a different project. What is your BEST course of action?
  • A: Arrange for the team member to get the necessary training.
  • B: Tell your construction manager to fire the team member immediately.
  • C: Tell your construction manager that it is ok if the team member learns on the job.
  • D: Arrange for the team member to be assigned to another project.
Question 262: You are in the process of obtaining the staff members you require on your project from other functional areas within your organization. You have made a request to a particular functional manager to have one of her staff members assigned part time to your project. The functional manager is concerned about the effect this will have on her operational goals and suggests instead that the staff member be assigned to your project for 30% of her time instead of 50%. What technique are you engaged in?
  • A: Negotiation
  • B: Pre-assignment of staff
  • C: Acquisition
  • D: Acquire project team
Question 263: The software project you are working on is using developers from different geographic areas around the world because the high level of experience required for this project could not be obtained locally. With the different time zones you are having difficulty organizing regular meetings between all the project team members. What would be the BEST thing you could do to improve communication between your virtual team?
  • A: Only meet with those team members in your office and tell them to let the other team members know what was discussed.
  • B: Insist they all make themselves available at 10 AM your time once a week.
  • C: Run multiple meetings on the same topic so that everyone gets the same message.
  • D: Use real-time and recorded web-based video conferencing.
Question 264: What is the PMBOK® Guide process of improving the competencies, team interaction, and the overall team environment to enhance project performance known as?
  • A: Acquire Project Team
  • B: Plan Human Resource Management
  • C: Develop Project Team
  • D: Manage Project Team
Question 265: You are holding a weekly project meeting when a disagreement between two members of the project team begins. The disagreement is over a technical detail of the project. It is important that the conflicting opinions of the two team members be resolved as quickly as possible. It is even more important that the difference of opinion be resolved correctly. What is your BEST course of action?
  • A: You should make the decision right away to save time and not let the two disagreeing parties stay in disagreement very long.
  • B: End the meeting and give everyone a few days to cool off.
  • C: Assign someone to find out more factual information about the problem.
  • D: You should suggest a compromise between the two disagreeing team members.
Question 266: Which of the following is not an objective of developing your project team?
  • A: Improve team members’ knowledge and skills.
  • B: Get everyone to align themselves with the culture of the project office.
  • C: Improve trust and agreement between team members.
  • D: Create a dynamic and cohesive team culture.
Question 267: The Tuckman theory of team development states that team development generally follows a sequence of stages. Which is the correct order of those stages?
  • A: Storming, Norming, Forming, Performing, Adjourning
  • B: Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning
  • C: Forming, Norming, Storming, Performing, Adjourning
  • D: Performing, Forming, Norming, Storming, Adjourning
Question 268: You have offered everyone on your team an individual financial bonus if they are the first to complete a particular piece of work. Instead of motivating the team, your offer has caused unhealthy competition in some staff and apathy in others. What could be the problem with your offer?
  • A: Your team does not respect you as project manager.
  • B: You offered too little money.
  • C: You offered too much money.
  • D: Your team culture does not support individualism.
Question 269: You have decided that all of your project team members must move into their own space within the organization’s main headquarters to improve efficiency and team building. What is this commonly called?
  • A: Assignment
  • B: Project team residential compatibility
  • C: Co-location
  • D: War room
Question 270: After completing some work required to develop your project team members, you have noted several outputs that have been produced. Which of the following is an output that you would expect to produce?
  • A: Team performance assessments
  • B: Team building activities
  • C: Staff assignments
  • D: WBS dictionary elements
Question 271: As a project manager, your greatest challenge has been managing your project team. You have decided to gain extra skills to help you in this task. All of the following are areas y ou should focus on except?
  • A: Negotiation
  • B: Communication
  • C: Remuneration
  • D: Leadership
Question 272: Your project is more than halfway through and you have a CPI of 1.08 and an SPI of 1.03. You attribute a lot of the success so far to the work being done by the team and the way in which they are working together. This has been as a result of the work you have done as project manager in managing the project team. In order to complete the work associated with managing the project team successfully, you have used a variety of inputs to help your efforts. Which of the following is not an input that you would have used?
  • A: Team performance assessments
  • B: Project staff assignments
  • C: Project management plan
  • D: Project performance appraisals
Question 273: In his theory of motivation of employees, Herzberg divided motivation factors into two classes: satisfiers and dissatisfiers. Which of the following are examples of satisfiers according to Herzberg?
  • A: Vacation time, assignment of a personal staff assistant
  • B: Work satisfaction, fringe benefits
  • C: Plush office space, performance-based salary raise
  • D: Sense of personal achievement, work satisfaction
Question 274: As a project manager, you understand how important effective management of your team is to the success of the project. Which of the following is not a key interpersonal skill that you should have as a project manager to help you manage your team?
  • A: Strong leadership skills with the ability to communicate the vision and inspire the project team to achieve high performance
  • B: The ability to be persuasive and have high levels of active and effective listening skills
  • C: A focus on prevention over inspection and an eye for detail when reporting your project status reports
  • D: Effective decision-making skills
Question 275: Your project has been underway for 18 months and currently has a CPI of 1.02 and an SPI of 1.07. During the project, two of your project team members have disagreed constantly over non-technical issues and on occasion have shown open hostility towards each other, often in front of other team members. Lately the situation has escalated, and during your last project team status meeting they openly shouted at each other. As project manager, you decide to call both team members into your office and explain to them that the best way to resolve this conflict is a give-and-take attitude and open dialogue. What conflict resolution technique are you using?
  • A: Collaborating and forcing
  • B: Confronting and problem solving
  • C: Smoothing and accommodating
  • D: Withdrawing and avoiding
Question 276: As part of your own professional development plan, you have approval from your senior manager to undertake leadership training. As part of your training, you have asked your team members for their opinion on what constitutes the key elements and characteristics of an effective leader. What are the key elements of effective leadership?
  • A: Fear and submission
  • B: Friendship and admiration
  • C: Vision and humor
  • D: Respect and trust
Question 277: Which of the following is not one of the four basic decision-making styles normally used by project managers?
  • A: Ideas to action
  • B: Coin flip
  • C: Command
  • D: Consensus
Question 278: You are faced with a large decision to make on your project. After fully defining the problem, you call in your team to brainstorm multiple solutions. You then define the evaluation criteria and rate the pros and cons of different options. Prior to making a decision, you go through a process of problem definition, solution generation, ideas to action, solution action planning, solution evaluation planning, and evaluation of the outcome and process. What process are you using?
  • A: Kouzes and Posner six-step decision making process
  • B: Shewhart and Deming’s plan-do-check-act cycle
  • C: Six-phase decision making model
  • D: Turner and Muller’s six-phase decision making process

Project Communications Management

Question 279: It is commonly acknowledged that one of the most important sets of skills a project manager should develop is their communication skills. All of the following are examples of communication skills except?
  • A: Reviewing the work breakdown structure to ensure team members know what has to be done.
  • B: Setting and managing expectations.
  • C: Persuading a person or organization to perform an action.
  • D: Listening actively and effectively.
Question 280: Your project is experiencing a range of variations that require one of the contracts you are using to engage an external vendor to be amended. What sort of communication is most appropriate when dealing with changes to a contract?
  • A: Informal written
  • B: Formal written
  • C: Formal verbal
  • D: Electronic
Question 281: After conducting your stakeholder analysis, you determine that there are, excluding you, 7 stakeholders on the project. How many communication channels are there?
  • A: 7
  • B: 21
  • C: 28
  • D: 35
Question 282: There are 12 stakeholders including yourself on the project, so how many communication channels are there?
  • A: 66
  • B: 144
  • C: 78
  • D: 12
Question 283: All of the following are factors that influence the method of communication disbursement between team members except?
  • A: Availability of technology
  • B: Duration of the project
  • C: Local government regulations
  • D: Urgency of the need for information
Question 284: You are leading a team on a complex project that requires constant communication with influential stakeholders. Despite your best efforts, the message that you send to the stakeholders is disrupted and misunderstood. Communication between the sender and the receiver is often affected by communication barriers or noise. These include all of the following except?
  • A: Educational differences
  • B: Differences in motivation
  • C: Lack of a communications device
  • D: Cultural differences
Question 285: You are having difficulty concentrating on what a stakeholder is saying during a business meeting and you feel you are not fully understanding them. What technique could help you to understand them better?
  • A: Repeat the message back to the stakeholder.
  • B: Ask them to write everything down.
  • C: Ask to postpone the meeting until you feel better.
  • D: Ask them to speak slower.
Question 286: Your project team is scattered over three countries in three different time zones. Each project office has a different language as its first language, so to improve communication you have asked that all correspondence be conducted in English. In doing this, what are you trying to minimize in your team’s communication?
  • A: Environmental constraints
  • B: Cultural differences
  • C: Noise
  • D: Foreign accents
Question 287: The skill of listening involves more than just hearing the sounds. Which of the following is a characteristic of a good listener?
  • A: Takes good notes.
  • B: Repeats some of the things said.
  • C: Finishes the speaker’s sentences.
  • D: Agrees with the speaker.
Question 288: You are in the process of sending out your weekly project update to a wide range of stakeholders. This is an example of what sort of communication method?
  • A: Stakeholder management strategy
  • B: Pull communication
  • C: Interactive communication
  • D: Push communication
Question 289: You are using your intranet site to post large amounts of information that team members can log into to read. This is an example of what sort of communication method?
  • A: Encoding and decoding
  • B: Push communication
  • C: Interactive communication
  • D: Pull communication
Question 290: Your project team has spent a considerable amount of time and energy completing the stakeholder analysis and putting together the communications management plan but is now disagreeing what, how, and when different communication methods are to be used. Who should take responsibility for determining this?
  • A: Stakeholder representative
  • B: Project team
  • C: Project sponsor
  • D: Project manager
Question 291: You are regularly referring to your communications management plan to help guide your project communications. Which of the following would you not expect to find in your communications management plan?
  • A: The person responsible for authorizing the release of confidential information
  • B: Team members’ addresses and phone numbers
  • C: Glossary of common terminology
  • D: Stakeholder communication requirements
Question 292: As part of your project, you regularly hold status meetings with project team members and influential stakeholders. You endeavor at all times to ensure that these meetings are productive and contribute to successful communication on the project. All of the following are techniques to ensure your project meetings are more productive except?
  • A: Teleconferencing
  • B: Ground rules
  • C: A set start and finish time for the meeting
  • D: An agenda
Question 293: While carrying out the work described in your project communications plan, you go to great lengths to ensure that relevant information is disseminated to the correct stakeholders in the right way at the right time. As a senior project manager, you know that effective information distribution is a key factor in project success. This is because effective information distribution includes all of the following techniques except?
  • A: Writing style
  • B: Presentation techniques
  • C: Issue log
  • D: Choice of media
Question 294: You have decided to study for the PMP® credential and are currently learning the way in which the project life cycle can be described in terms of process groups associated with initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing activities. You then move on to studying the ways in which successful communication occurs in a project. In order to demonstrate how much you have learned, you are able to describe to a colleague how some aspect of project communication occurs in different process groups. The Manage Communications process occurs within which PMBOK® Guide process group?
  • A: Initiating
  • B: Planning
  • C: Executing
  • D: Monitoring and Controlling
Question 295: You and your project team have been in negotiations with a potential supplier for several hours over an important contract that will deliver a large part of the one product required to complete your project. You and your team are getting frustrated at the slow rate of progress on the negotiations but know it is important that they are done thoroughly. How important is non-verbal communication to the negotiations?
  • A: Very important
  • B: Not very important
  • C: Only important when the other party is silent
  • D: Only important during negotiations over cost
Question 296: You have called a team member into your office to deal with unacceptable behavior towards other project team members. After the meeting you decide to follow up to make clear what was discussed. What is the best form of communication to use in this instance?
  • A: Formal written
  • B: Formal verbal
  • C: Informal written
  • D: Informal verbal
Question 297: Your project sponsor has asked you to present a detailed project update to some high-level stakeholders who are concerned that the project is not meeting its agreed timeframes, its agreed budget, nor delivering the quality the customer is expecting. What information and method would be BEST to use in this situation?
  • A: A verbal presentation during a 10-minute meeting
  • B: A summary milestone report tabled as an agenda item at their next scheduled meeting
  • C: A PowerPoint presentation outlining the major issues, given in your office
  • D: A detailed performance report in writing with an accompanying presentation and time for questions and answers
Question 298: You are attempting to communicate with various project stakeholders and, despite your best efforts, you find that the information that you send to them is misunderstood. Cultural differences and using unfamiliar technology are the main problems contributing to this lack of understanding. What is the best term to describe these characteristics?
  • A: Decoding
  • B: Feedback
  • C: Noise
  • D: Transmission
Question 299: You are actively monitoring and controlling the project communications according to your approved communications management plan and are seeking to generate work performance information about the effectiveness of your project communications. Which of the following would be least useful to you?
  • A: Project communications
  • B: Issue log
  • C: Work performance data
  • D: Change requests
Question 300: You are using historical data about your project to forecast an estimated future outcome in your project performance reporting. This is an example of what forecasting method?
  • A: Budget forecasts
  • B: Judgmental methods
  • C: Econometric method
  • D: Time series methods
Question 301: Your project team has just finished the first round of soliciting information from experts about what they think the forecasted future performance on your project will be using information supplied to them. You are currently assessing the information supplied anonymously by the respondents and plan to request a second round of opinions to use in your project forecasts. What forecasting method are you using?
  • A: Judgmental method
  • B: Causal method
  • C: Earned value
  • D: Econometric method
Question 302: Which of the following would you not expect to see in a detailed project performance report?
  • A: Current status of risks and issues
  • B: Staff performance reviews
  • C: Forecasted project completion
  • D: Summary of changes approved in the period
Question 303: Several of your stakeholders are raising issues with you, and you are documenting their issues in an issue log and providing feedback to the stakeholders about the status and any resolution of the issues. Furthermore, you are using the issue log as an input into a process because it provides a repository for what has already happened in the project and a platform for subsequent communication to be delivered. Which process are you involved in?
  • A: Control Communications
  • B: Manage Communications
  • C: Plan Communications Management
  • D: Monitor and Control Project Work
Question 304: A project manager should spend approximately how much of their time communicating to team members and stakeholders to effectively contribute to project success?
  • A: 50%
  • B: 5%
  • C: 90%
  • D: 70%
Question 305: Which of the following has been identified as one of the single biggest reasons for project success or failure?
  • A: Enterprise environmental factors
  • B: Financial accountability and accuracy
  • C: Appropriate communication
  • D: The nature of the working relationship between project sponsor and the project manager
Question 306: There are 36 communications channels on a project. How many stakeholders are there in the project?
  • A: 6
  • B: 36
  • C: 18
  • D: 9

Project Risk Management

Question 307: What is the best description of the objectives of the risk management work you will undertake on your project?
  • A: Increase the probability and impact of positive events and decrease the probability and impact of negative events.
  • B: Decrease the probability and impact of positive events and increase the probability and impact of negative events.
  • C: Decrease the probability and impact of any risks occurring on the project.
  • D: Assess the qualitative and quantitative probability and impact of positive and negative risk to the project.
Question 308: All of the following are characteristics of risks except?
  • A: Risk is always in the future.
  • B: Risk is an uncertain event or condition.
  • C: If a risk occurs, it will have an effect on at least one project objective.
  • D: Risk cannot be avoided.
Question 309: When completing your risk management plan you also decide to create a contingency plan. What is the main reason for creating a risk contingency plan?
  • A: Unknown risks that cannot be managed proactively.
  • B: To deal with known risks with a large uncertainty about the probability of occurrence.
  • C: Unknown risks that have been identified in the risk management plan.
  • D: Known risks that if they occur can have a larger-than-anticipated impact on your project.
Question 310: While completing your risk management plan you also decide to create a fallback plan. What is the main reason for creating a fallback plan?
  • A: To deal with known risks with a large uncertainty about the probability of occurrence.
  • B: Unknown risks that cannot be managed proactively.
  • C: Unknown risks that have been identified in the risk management plan.
  • D: Known risks that if they occur can have a larger-than-anticipated impact on your project.
Question 311: The willingness to accept varying degrees of risk is called what?
  • A: Risk tolerance
  • B: Risk acceptance
  • C: Risk planning
  • D: Risk analysis
Question 312: When should you begin risk management on a project?
  • A: When you are completing the monitoring and controlling.
  • B: Once project planning has commenced.
  • C: Once project execution has commenced.
  • D: As soon as a project is initiated or conceived.
Question 313: During a meeting to develop your risk management plan, a senior team member questions whether you have all the required inputs to develop a robust risk management plan that is appropriate for your project. Which of the following is not an input that you could use to complete this work successfully?
  • A: Risk management plan
  • B: Project charter
  • C: Stakeholder register
  • D: Project management plan
Question 314: You and your project team are currently involved in the process to plan your particular approach to risk management on your project and are using a variety of tools and techniques to assist you in producing the risk management plan. Which of the following is not a tool or technique used during the Plan Risk Management process?
  • A: Risk probability and impact assessment
  • B: Analytical techniques
  • C: Expert judgment
  • D: Meetings
Question 315: As part of your risk management planning, you develop a diagram showing the hierarchy of project risks arranged by risk category and subcategory. What is this diagram commonly called?
  • A: Risk assessment register
  • B: Risk breakdown structure
  • C: Probability and impact matrix
  • D: Risk register
Question 316: Your risk management planning session has produced definitions of risk probability and impact. These are used during which PMBOK® Guide process?
  • A: Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
  • B: Identify Risks
  • C: Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
  • D: Plan Risk Management
Question 317: Your team is carrying out the process of determining which risks may affect the project and documenting their characteristics. You are using a variety of tools and techniques, including documentation, reviews, information gathering techniques, checklist analysis, and SWOT analysis. What is the name of this process?
  • A: Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
  • B: Identify Risks
  • C: Perform Quantitative Risk analysis
  • D: Plan Risk Management
Question 318: You are congratulating your team for the time and effort taken to develop the first iteration of your project risk register. You are now contemplating the many uses that your risk register will have in your project and the many different areas in which it can be used as an input into the work being done. Which of the following PMBOK® Guide processes does not use the risk register as an input?
  • A: Control Risks
  • B: Manage Stakeholder Engagement
  • C: Plan Procurement Management
  • D: Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Question 319: You and your team are in the process of identifying all potential uncertainty and risk on your project. You wish to ensure that your risk register is as comprehensive as possible; as such you are looking for as many relevant inputs as possible to assist you in this process. Which of the following is not an input into this process?
  • A: Activity duration estimates
  • B: Assumptions analysis
  • C: Stakeholder register
  • D: Activity cost estimates
Question 320: You are using your risk management plan to guide the work needed to identify both positive and negative risks on your project. Which of the following is not a tool or technique you would find useful to complete this work?
  • A: Assumptions analysis
  • B: Information gathering techniques
  • C: Risk urgency assessment
  • D: Diagramming techniques
Question 321: You and your team are completing the process of identifying risks on your project, and you wish to use a particular type of diagram to represent risk characteristics. All of the following are diagramming techniques used during the Identify Risks process except?
  • A: Process flow chart
  • B: Cause and effect diagram
  • C: Pareto diagram
  • D: Influence diagram
Question 322: Your team has successfully identified many categories of risks, and within each category they have identified specific risk events that may impact your project. You have documented all of this information in an initial list of identified risks as part of the iterative development of your risk register. At this early stage, this document will generally have all of the following information on it except?
  • A: Cause
  • B: Event
  • C: Consequence
  • D: Probability
Question 323: Your team is carrying out the process to identify the risks to the project and is identifying strengths and weaknesses of the organization by looking at the way these strengths offset threats and opportunities that may serve to overcome weaknesses. What technique are they using?
  • A: SWOT analysis
  • B: Expert judgment
  • C: PERT analysis
  • D: PEST analysis
Question 324: As project manager on a project, you have begun the process of qualitatively assessing the probability and impact to risks that have been identified on your project. Which of the following is not an input you would find useful in completing this work?
  • A: Project charter
  • B: Risk management plan
  • C: Risk register
  • D: Scope baseline
Question 325: Your team is using the project risk register and has started a quantitative assessment of the risks. You tell your team that it is better to start with qualitative analysis first. What reasons do you give your team for this decision?
  • A: Quantitative analysis takes the numerical values assigned during the qualitative process and adds a more intuitive interpretation of the risks.
  • B: Qualitative analysis provides accurate numerical values based on probability and impact that can then be quantified.
  • C: There is no particular reason why one should be done before the other. It is just the way your organizational processes require the process to be completed.
  • D: Qualitative analysis provides a subjective and rapid means of prioritizing risks and indicating which risk can have quantitative analysis applied to them.
Question 326: Your team is using your risk register to prioritize risks for further analysis by assessing their probability of occurrence and impact. What PMBOK® Guide process best describes the work they are carrying out?
  • A: Plan Risk Management
  • B: Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
  • C: Identify Risks
  • D: Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Question 327: While completing your assessment of the risks on your project, you begin to examine the ones with the greatest potential threat to your project. You are using a diagram to help you complete this task, and you are currently looking at the high priority risks for further analysis. What diagram would best help you?
  • A: Probability and impact matrix
  • B: Scatter diagram
  • C: Pareto chart
  • D: Risk register
Question 328: An important aspect of your qualitative risk analysis is determining the validity of the information you are using. What is this technique commonly called?
  • A: Risk data quality assessment
  • B: Assumption analysis
  • C: Risk urgency assessment
  • D: Risk categorization
Question 329: Your team is completing the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on your project objectives. Which PMBOK® Guide process best describes the work they are carrying out?
  • A: Plan Risk Response
  • B: Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
  • C: Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
  • D: Identify Risks
Question 330: After completing work to perform qualitative risk analysis on identified risks in your risk register, you have produced several updates to your risk register. Which of the following processes described in the PMBOK® Guide indirectly uses these updates?
  • A: Identify Risks
  • B: Project Integration Management
  • C: Project Time Management
  • D: Plan Risk Responses
Question 331: Three-point estimating is a commonly used technique for g athering and analyzing data. It is used in all of the following project areas except?
  • A: Project risk management
  • B: Project time management
  • C: Project quality management
  • D: Project cost management
Question 332: If a project has a 40% chance of achieving a $17,000 profit and a 60% chance of achieving a $20,000 loss, what is the expected monetary value of the project?
  • A: -$3,000
  • B: $37,000
  • C: $5,200
  • D: -$5,200
Question 333: If a project has a 65% chance of a $200,000 profit and a 35% chance of a $100,000 loss, what is the expected monetary value for the project?
  • A: -$100,000
  • B: $100,000
  • C: $165,000
  • D: $95,000
Question 334: If a risk event has a 80% chance of occurring, and if it does occur, the consequence will be a $10,000 cost to the project, what does -$8,000 represent to the project?
  • A: Quantified risk
  • B: Probabilistic risk assessment
  • C: What-if analysis result
  • D: Expected monetary value
Question 335: After completing your risk register and a quantitative assessment of the financial value of prioritized risks on your project, you have a dollar amount added to your project budget. What is this amount typically called?
  • A: Contingent response strategy
  • B: Management reserve
  • C: Slush fund
  • D: Contingency reserve
Question 336: Which of the following is not an example of a probability distribution?
  • A: Normal distribution
  • B: Obtuse distribution
  • C: Triangular distribution
  • D: Beta distribution
Question 337: Your team is completing an exercise to determine which risks have the greatest potential impact on your project. They are assessing the extent to which the uncertainty of each element of the project affects the risk being examined when all other uncertain elements are held at static baseline values. What is this technique commonly known as?
  • A: Tornado diagram
  • B: Expected monetary value analysis
  • C: Sensitivity analysis
  • D: Modeling and simulation
Question 338: You are currently performing risk analysis on a large and extremely complex project. Your project team decides that the most comprehensive way to approach the process of risk analysis is to examine all the possible outcomes using an iterative computer simulation process to model a range of variables taken from a probability distribution. What is this technique known as?
  • A: Sensitivity analysis
  • B: Expected monetary value analysis
  • C: Monte Carlo analysis
  • D: Ishikawa analysis
Question 339: You have documented and quantitatively assessed the risk to your project and the potential outcomes in a diagram to show the different outcomes of events should a particular probability occur, in order to determine the expected monetary value. What is this technique generally called?
  • A: What-if scenario analysis
  • B: Decision tree analysis
  • C: Ishikawa diagram
  • D: Tornado diagram
Question 340: Your team has completed the process of assessing and documenting risks that may occur on your project. What is the next step to complete?
  • A: Identify risks.
  • B: Control risks.
  • C: Plan risk responses.
  • D: Execute the project tasks.
Question 341: A project manager is faced with making a large decision about a risk that her project team has identified. The risk involves the design of a car component. It has been found that the weld of the component where the load-bearing flange is located will corrode in a high salt environment. If this takes place, the component may fail and injure the driver and passenger. The project team decides that the design of the component should be modified by using corrosion-resistant materials. This will eliminate the risk from consideration. What is this risk response technique called?
  • A: Risk rejection
  • B: Risk acceptance
  • C: Risk avoidance
  • D: Risk transference
Question 342: You are managing a project to build a large hydro dam for electrical power generation, which will be built over a known seismically active area. Your team decides to strengthen the core structure of the dam to better tolerate any earth movements that may occur. This is an example of what sort of risk response?
  • A: Accept
  • B: Transfer
  • C: Avoid
  • D: Mitigate
Question 343: You have decided to take out insurance on your project to cover your project financially if a risk occurs. This is an example of what sort of risk response?
  • A: Transference
  • B: Mitigation
  • C: Sharing
  • D: Avoidance
Question 344: All of the following are acceptable responses to positive risks except?
  • A: Accept
  • B: Mitigate
  • C: Enhance
  • D: Exploit
Question 345: You are about to tender for a large, multi-billion dollar infrastructure project, and your general manager has just announced a joint venture with another company to help with risk management. This is an example of what sort of risk response?
  • A: Sharing
  • B: Avoidance
  • C: Mitigation
  • D: Exploiting
Question 346: You and your project team have completed your risk register, including planned responses to identified risks. What is your next step?
  • A: Update the work breakdown structure.
  • B: Begin the Control Risks process.
  • C: Perform another iteration of the risk register.
  • D: Update your project sponsor on the planned risk responses.
Question 347: You have completed the final steps to develop a complete risk register with identified risks, a priority assessment, a qualitative assessment of all risks, a quantitative assessment of the top priority risks, and you have also identified appropriate risk responses for each risk. Which of the following is not an expected output from completing this work?
  • A: Project document updates
  • B: Project management plan updates
  • C: Updates to the cost management plan
  • D: Contingent response strategies
Question 348: Your project has been underway for 9 months when a major problem occurs that is not included in the risk register. What is your BEST course of action?
  • A: Begin the process of evaluating the risk qualitatively, then quantitatively.
  • B: Begin the process of evaluating the risk quantitatively, then qualitatively.
  • C: Create a workaround.
  • D: Contact your project sponsor.
Question 349: Despite your best efforts at anticipating and documenting all risk and uncertainty on your project, you have encountered a completely unforeseeable risk that will incur significant extra cost to your project. You decide to approach your project sponsor and ask for permission to get these extra funds from a pool of money that they control. What is this pool of money generally referred to as?
  • A: Slush fund
  • B: Contingency reserve
  • C: Management reserve
  • D: Control account
Question 350: The project you are working on is over halfway through, and you have begun to measure that price increases on the steel that you require for the project have gone 8% over your estimate for price increases over the timeframe of the project. As a result, you put in place a policy to procure all the remaining steel required for the project and pay for it to be stored in a warehouse instead of ordering the steel as you require it. This is an example of what?
  • A: Contingent response strategy
  • B: Mitigation
  • C: Transference
  • D: Exploiting
Question 351: You are using your risk management plan and your risk register to check if your assessment of risks is accurate, if there are any new risks, or if new information is available about existing risks. Which of the following inputs would not be of use to you to complete this work?
  • A: Project management plan
  • B: Quality control measurements
  • C: Work performance reports
  • D: Risk register
Question 352: You are conducting the process of implementing your risk response plans, tracking identified risks, monitoring residual risks, and identifying new risks. What is this PMBOK® Guide process called?
  • A: Assess and Control Risks
  • B: Risk Management
  • C: Risk Assessment
  • D: Control Risks
Question 353: During your regular monitoring of the risks identified on your project, you examine and document the effectiveness of risk responses in dealing with identified risks and their root causes. What technique are you using?
  • A: Ishikawa analysis
  • B: Risk audits
  • C: Risk urgency assessment
  • D: Trend analysis
Question 354: The project team members assigned responsibility for controlling risks on your project are doing a great job. Which of the following is not an expected output of the work they are completing?
  • A: Project management plan updates
  • B: Change requests
  • C: Organizational Process Assets updates
  • D: Work performance data

Project Procurement Management

Question 355: During the process of procurement management, the organization you work for can be all of the following except?
  • A: Buyer and seller of products or services
  • B: Seller of services
  • C: Insolvent
  • D: Buyer of products
Question 356: As part of your commitment to advancing the profession of project management you are tutoring candidates wishing to sit the PMP® examination. The session you are about to give is focused on the Project Procurement Management knowledge area in the PMBOK® Guide. What is the generally accepted correct sequence of processes in the Project Procurement Management knowledge area?
  • A: Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Close Procurements
  • B: Conduct Procurements, Plan Procurement Management, Control Procurements, Close Procurements
  • C: Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Close Procurements, Control Procurements
  • D: Plan Procurement Management, Control Procurements, Conduct Procurements, Close Procurements
Question 357: You are carrying out the Contract Management and Change Control processes required to develop and administer contracts for you project. What is this PMBOK® Guide knowledge area called?
  • A: Plan Procurement Management
  • B: Close Procurements
  • C: Project Integration Management
  • D: Project Procurement Management
Question 358: All of the following are examples of legally binding agreements except?
  • A: Agreement
  • B: Subcontract
  • C: Organizational process assets
  • D: Purchase order
Question 359: You are just about to begin the process of procuring services from external providers and you think there may be a standard set of rules governing this process. Where would it be BEST to look for these rules?
  • A: Lessons learned
  • B: Organizational Process Assets
  • C: The PMBOK® Guide
  • D: Your organization’s legal team
Question 360: You have completed the work described in the contract as per the required specifications but the customer is complaining that the product is not what they wanted. What is your BEST course of action?
  • A: Ask your project sponsor to clarify the scope of the project.
  • B: Restart the project and complete the work the way the customer wants it.
  • C: Ask the customer to note their concerns in writing and present them to your project team at the next team meeting.
  • D: Enter the Close Procurements process.
Question 361: Which of the following is not a term used to describe the buyer in a contract?
  • A: Client
  • B: Entrepreneur
  • C: Service requestor
  • D: Prime contractor
Question 362: Which of the following is not a term used to describe the seller in a contract?
  • A: Service provider
  • B: Vendor
  • C: Dealer
  • D: Contractor
Question 363: You and your project team are completing the process of producing your procurement management plan and want to make sure that you have completed a robust process and used all possible and appropriate inputs. Which of the following is not an input into the work to plan procurement management on your project?
  • A: Requirements documentation
  • B: Activity resource requirements
  • C: Stakeholder register
  • D: Make-or-buy decisions
Question 364: You are carrying out the procurement of services necessary for your project. After consulting with your Organizational Process Assets, specifically the procurement guidelines, which specify that you are to use the most commonly used contract type, you offer the seller what type of contract?
  • A: Time and materials
  • B: Firm-fixed-price
  • C: Fixed-price-incentive-fee
  • D: Cost-plus-incentive-fee
Question 365: You discover that there is a part of the project that contains some risk. Your strategy to deal with this risk is to subcontract the work to an outside supplier by using a firm-fixed-price contract. Which of the following must you do?
  • A: You should assign a member of the project team to monitor the activity of the supplier to make sure that the supplier deals with the risk properly if it occurs.
  • B: You should make every effort to make sure that the supplier is made aware of the risk after the contract is signed.
  • C: You should make certain that the project team does not reveal the risk to the supplier until the contract is signed.
  • D: You should make sure that the supplier understands the risk before the contract is signed.
Question 366: You are the project manager for a project that is well underway. You are using a contractor that has agreed to a fixed-price contract that calls for a single, lump sum payment on completion of the contract. The contractor’s project manager contacts you and informs you that cash flow problems are making it difficult for the contractor to pay employees and subcontractors. The contractor then asks you for a partial payment for work accomplished to date. What is your best course of action?
  • A: Make no payments to the contractor until all the work is completed as per the terms of the agreed contract.
  • B: Negotiate a change to the contract to allow payments to the contractor.
  • C: Pay for work accomplished to date.
  • D: Start making partial payments to the contractor.
Question 367: Your organization is providing services to another organization as part of a project. Which of the following contract types would your organization most prefer to engage in to carry out the work?
  • A: Fixed-price-incentive-fee contract
  • B: Fixed-price with economic price adjustment
  • C: Firm-fixed-price
  • D: Cost-plus-incentive-fee
Question 368: Your project has begun with a planned series of iterations that will gradually define the scope of work required. You are negotiating with a potential supplier of services. What is the BEST form of contract to enter into?
  • A: Fixed-price-incentive-fee
  • B: Time and materials
  • C: Cost-plus-fixed-fee
  • D: Firm-fixed-price
Question 369: During your project there has been an unforeseen amount of work that requires urgent and immediate attention from an external contractor to ensure it does not adversely affect the project. What sort of contract for services is BEST to use in this instance?
  • A: Fixed-price incentive fee
  • B: Time and materials
  • C: Cost-plus-fixed-fee
  • D: Cost-plus-incentive-fee
Question 370: You are leading your team through the process of making procurement decisions and selecting the appropriate procurement documentation to use when procuring services from external contractors. Which of the following is not a form of procurement document?
  • A: Request for fixed price contract (RFPC)
  • B: Request for proposal (RFP)
  • C: Request for quotation (RFQ)
  • D: Request for information (RFI)
Question 371: Several procurement specialists on your team have completed the procurement management plan for your project. Which of the following is not an output you would expect from them?
  • A: Source selection criteria
  • B: Procurement statement of work
  • C: Procurement management plan
  • D: Project scope statement
Question 372: You are the project manager on a large project to develop a new customer information database for your organization. You are currently assessing the merits of developing key components of the required software in-house by your own development team compared to getting an external contractor to complete the work. What technique are you using?
  • A: Risk-related contract decisions
  • B: Make-or-buy analysis
  • C: Source selection criteria
  • D: Expert judgment
Question 373: You are letting your project team analyze responses received to some of your procurement documents and you are beginning the process of selecting the successful seller. Which of the following is not an example of selection criteria used to select sellers?
  • A: Technical capability
  • B: Make-or-buy decision
  • C: Management approach
  • D: Proprietary rights
Question 374: You are currently obtaining seller responses to an RFP you issued and, after assessing the responses, you expect to select a seller and award a contract for delivery for services on your project. What process are you carrying out?
  • A: Close Procurements
  • B: Plan Procurement Management
  • C: Conduct Procurements
  • D: Control Procurements
Question 375: You are carrying out the process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and an awarding a contract. You wish to make sure that you complete the process thoroughly and use any and all inputs that may be useful to you. Which of the following is not an input into the Conduct Procurements process?
  • A: Procurement statement of work
  • B: Source selection criteria
  • C: Resource calendars
  • D: Project management plan
Question 376: You have just finished preparation of an exhaustive RFP for your project and are about to send it out to potential service providers. Based on past acceptable performance, you decide to send the RFP to a small group of potential suppliers and not all of the suppliers who may be interested in providing a response. What technique are you using?
  • A: Bidder conference
  • B: Qualified seller list
  • C: Procurement management plan
  • D: Proposal evaluation technique
Question 377: After soliciting responses from prospective sellers, you are in the process of considering each seller’s response against a set of criteria in order to determine who will be the seller selected to provide the required services. The process is giving a greater weight to previous experience in this type of work than it is giving to the price submitted. What technique are you using?
  • A: Weighted average calculation
  • B: Weighted criteria
  • C: Expert judgment
  • D: Procurement negotiations
Question 378: You are carrying out a bidder conference that is attended by five potential sellers of services to your project. You have spent a considerable amount of time explaining the statement of work and answering questions from the sellers at the bidder conference. During a break in the afternoon, one of the sellers approaches you and asks a question relating to the statement of work. What is your BEST course of action?
  • A: Ask the seller to leave the room and remove him from the process.
  • B: Refuse to provide an answer to the seller.
  • C: Provide an answer to the seller.
  • D: Explain to the seller that they should wait until the session begins again and then submit their question.
Question 379: You are in the process of ensuring that the seller you have engaged to provide a product for your project is meeting the contractual requirements expected of them. What PMBOK® Guide process are you carrying out?
  • A: Conduct Procurements
  • B: Control Procurements
  • C: Close Procurements
  • D: Plan Procurement Management
Question 380: As part of your project, you are looking to make sure that you complete the Control Procurements process properly in order to ensure that you are managing procurement relationships, monitoring contract performance, and making changes and corrections to contracts as appropriate. As part of this process, you want to make sure that you are using all the appropriate inputs. Which of the following processes does not provide an input into the work to control procurements?
  • A: Control costs
  • B: Monitor and Control Project Work
  • C: Perform Integrated Change Control
  • D: Direct and Manage Project Work
Question 381: As part of your project, you are looking to make sure that you complete the Control Procurements process properly in order to ensure that you are managing procurement relationships, monitoring contract performance, and making changes and corrections to contracts as appropriate. In order to do this process thoroughly, you have decided to review all the possible tools and techniques that you could use. All of the following are tools or techniques used in the Control Procurements process except?
  • A: Inspections and audits
  • B: Performance reporting
  • C: Work performance information
  • D: Claims administration
Question 382: You are the project manager on a large project that has been underway for five years. Your project has consistently reported a CPI of 1.2 and an SPI of 1.3. Delivery of the expected product of the project has been in accordance with the customer’s expectations and you are beginning the process of closing the project. Your project team is confused about which process to complete first, the Close Procurements process or the Close Project process. What is your BEST advice to your project team?
  • A: Complete the Close Project process first and then the Close Procurements process so that any final payments incurred by the Close Project process can be made.
  • B: Only complete the Close Project process because it incorporates the Close Procurements process.
  • C: Complete the Close Procurements process first because the contracts need to be closed before the project can be closed by the Close Project process.
  • D: It does not matter which order they are completed in as long as they are both completed according to the organization’s project management guidelines.
Question 383: You and your project team are completing the work required by contract with a buyer when your general manager decides to suddenly terminate the contract due to factors that are outside of your control. What is your BEST course of action?
  • A: Contact the buyer and explain the situation to them.
  • B: Begin the Close Procurements process.
  • C: Review the WBS for errors in the scope of work.
  • D: Explain to your manager that you are contractually bound to carry out the work.
Question 384: As part of closing out all contracts used on a project, you want to make sure that you demonstrate to your team what is considered best practice in this area and have available to you all of the potential tools and techniques that could assist. Which of the following is not a tool or technique used in the Close Procurements process?
  • A: Bidder conferences
  • B: Procurement negotiations
  • C: Procurement audits
  • D: Records management system
Question 385: You are completing the Close Procurements process and are informing sellers that the contract has been completed. What is the BEST way to do this?
  • A: At the completion party
  • B: In person
  • C: Via email
  • D: By written letter
Question 386: You have entered into an agreement with a seller to provide the goods you require for your project. You have selected to use a fixed-price-incentive-fee form of contract with a target cost of $100,000, a target price of $120,000, a ceiling price of $140,000, with a sharing ratio of 80/20 to the buyer. What is your point of total assumption?
  • A: $125,000
  • B: $140,000
  • C: $120,000
  • D: $130,000

Project Stakeholder Management

Question 387: You are putting together your stakeholder management plan and have identified the need to gather information about all of the different project stakeholders as soon as possible. This recognizes that the ability of stakeholders to influence the project is greatest at which point in the project?
  • A: During the project execution.
  • B: At the close of the project.
  • C: At the beginning of the project.
  • D: It is equal throughout a project.
Question 388: You are compiling a register of all people, groups, and organizations that can potentially and actually be affected by the project. What is the collective term for this group?
  • A: Sponsor
  • B: Customers
  • C: Team members
  • D: Stakeholders
Question 389: During work to initiate your project you have begun to identify stakeholders and gather information about them to allow you to successfully manage their expectations. All of the following are stakeholder attributes you should analyze as part of this work to identify stakeholders except?
  • A: Their interest in the project.
  • B: Their expectations of the project.
  • C: Their influence on the project.
  • D: Their personal conflict resolution style.
Question 390: During work to initiate your project you have begun to identify stakeholders and gather information about them to allow you to successfully manage their expectations. Which of the following is not an input you would use to complete this work?
  • A: Procurement documents
  • B: Project charter
  • C: Stakeholder register
  • D: Lessons learned
Question 391: With the help of your project team, you identify all potential project stakeholders and information about them. You then interview all of the stakeholders you have identified in an effort to learn more about their interaction with your project and also to gain knowledge of any other stakeholders you may not be aware of. After completing this process, you then identify the potential impact or support each stakeholder could generate. Finally, you assess how the key stakeholders are likely to react in various situations so you can plan for this. What are you carrying out?
  • A: Stakeholder management strategy
  • B: Stakeholder analysis
  • C: Stakeholder register assimilation
  • D: Stakeholder communications analysis
Question 392: You are showing your team the relative interest and power each identified stakeholder has in your project. W hat is the BEST way to show this information?
  • A: Salience model
  • B: Control chart
  • C: Stakeholder register template
  • D: Power/interest grid
Question 393: You have just taken over a project that has been underway for 8 months. The project is performing well and is currently reporting a CPI of 1.2 and an EAC of $1.2 m. As part of your familiarization process, you want to understand who the stakeholders on the project are. Where would you find this information?
  • A: Stakeholder management strategy
  • B: Organizational process assets
  • C: Stakeholder register
  • D: Email distribution list
Question 394: You have just taken over a project that is nearing the end of its life cycle. Shortly after taking control of the project you note that a particular stakeholder is having a negative impact on the project. You decide that this presents an unacceptable risk to the project and look for a way to manage the stakeholder. Which document will you look for to help you do this?
  • A: Stakeholder analysis matrix
  • B: Stakeholder analysis
  • C: Stakeholder register
  • D: Stakeholder management appropriation register
Question 395: After considerable effort involving your project team members and experts with experience in communications, you have developed your project communications management plan. This can now be used as an input into which of the following PMBOK® Guide processes?
  • A: Estimate Costs
  • B: Plan Quality Management
  • C: Manage Stakeholder Engagement
  • D: Close Project or Phase
Question 396: You are completing the process of communication and working with stakeholders to meet their needs and addressing issues as they occur. Which process are you completing?
  • A: Stakeholder Analysis
  • B: Manage Communications
  • C: Manage Stakeholder Engagement
  • D: Control Communications
Question 397: Your project is halfway through its expected duration and has a CPI of 1.3 and an SPI of 1.2. Your project sponsor has told you during a meeting that in her eyes the project is a failure because of the feedback she has been getting from important stakeholders on the project. You are surprised at this because the project is performing well financially and is ahead of schedule and you are sure the quality of the work you are completing is of a high standard and meets customer requirements. As the meeting closes, your project sponsor asks what you intend to do about the situation. Your BEST response would be what?
  • A: Revisit the manage stakeholder expectation process in your communications management plan.
  • B: Quit the project.
  • C: Say nothing.
  • D: Send out an e-mail to all stakeholders telling them how great the project is performing financially and time-wise.
Question 398: What is your primary goal in managing and identifying stakeholder expectations?
  • A: Your primary goal in identifying and managing stakeholder expectations is to be able to introduce key stakeholders to each other so they can exchange project information.
  • B: Your primary goal in identifying and managing stakeholder expectations is to be able to contact stakeholders when you need to send project communications.
  • C: Your primary goal in identifying and managing stakeholder expectations is to either get stakeholders to support your project or at least not to oppose it.
  • D: Your primary goal in identifying and managing stakeholder expectations is to be able to determine which of the stakeholders can be most easily influenced and which will require a greater amount of effort.
Question 399: You and your project team are systematically gathering and analyzing quantitative and qualitative information to determine which stakeholder’s interests should be taken into account throughout the project. You have identified the interests, expectations, and influence of individual stakeholders and related to them the purpose of the project. What tool or technique are you using?
  • A: Meetings
  • B: Expert judgment
  • C: Information gathering techniques
  • D: Stakeholder analysis
Question 400: You are using a classification model for stakeholder analysis that describes classes of stakeholders based on their power, urgency, and legitimacy. What is the name of this particular model of stakeholder analysis?
  • A: Pareto chart
  • B: Power/interest grid
  • C: Influence/impact grid
  • D: Salience model
Question 401: As part of your analysis of stakeholder engagement, you have classified each stakeholder as either being unaware, resistant, neutral, supportive, or leading when it comes to the level of their engagement with the project. This is an example of what sort of technique?
  • A: Stakeholder analysis
  • B: Information gathering technique
  • C: Analytical technique
  • D: Expert judgment
Question 402: As a senior project manager on a complex project with many stakeholders, you are consistently having to coordinate and harmonize stakeholders towards supporting the project and accomplishing the project objectives. In order to do this, you are using your skills to facilitate consensus, influence people, negotiate agreements, and modify organizational behavior to accept the project outcomes. These are examples of what?
  • A: Information gathering techniques
  • B: Interpersonal skills
  • C: Communication methods
  • D: Management skills
Question 403: You are managing a complex project with many stakeholders, each with their own interest in the project. You have begun the process of monitoring overall project stakeholder relationships and adjusting your stakeholder expectation management strategies and plans for engaging stakeholders to suit the changing project circumstances. Your goal is to increase the efficiency and effectiveness of stakeholder engagement activity. What process are you are engaged in?
  • A: Manage Stakeholder Engagement
  • B: Control Stakeholder Engagement
  • C: Control Communications
  • D: Manage Communications
Question 404: While controlling stakeholder engagement on your project, you are generating a number of updates relating to the state of project stakeholder relationships and their level of engagement and satisfaction with your project. Which of the following is not an Organizational Process Asset that would be updated as a result of this process?
  • A: Issue log
  • B: Project records
  • C: Project presentations
  • D: Stakeholder notifications

Professional Ethics

Question 405: A colleague of yours, who was your mentor in your earlier career, still claims to have the PMP® credential but you know that it expired several years ago. What should you do FIRST?
  • A: Let your manager know and let them deal with it.
  • B: Report your colleague to PMI.
  • C: Approach your colleague and ask them to remove any reference to the credential.
  • D: Do nothing as it does not affect your colleague’s work performance.
Question 406: A project is nearing the end and is reporting a CPI of 1.01 and a SPI of 1.3. The project manager has been reassigned to another more urgent project, and you have been brought in to close the project. While reviewing the financial accounts for the project, you discover that the previous project manager made a large payment that was not approved in accordance with the policies of your company. What is the BEST thing you can do?
  • A: Notify the project sponsor.
  • B: Do nothing as the project has come in under budget.
  • C: Confront the previous project manager and ask him to explain.
  • D: Carry on as if nothing had happened.
Question 407: The project administrator working for you on the project does not have the level of skills you assumed he had. What is your BEST course of action?
  • A: Assign him lower-level tasks and bring in another more qualified person.
  • B: Do nothing; he will learn on the job.
  • C: Assign the project administrator to another project.
  • D: Organize training for him.
Question 408: You and your project administrator have been working on a detailed project progress report to present to high-level stakeholders. You leave it up to the project administrator to complete the report, and he e-mails it to you on the day of the meeting. You are having a busy day and don’t get a chance to read the report, but as you walk into the meeting you notice some large errors in the financial reporting section of the report. What is your BEST course of action?
  • A: Get the project administrator to appear before the stakeholders to explain the mistakes.
  • B: Give the report to the stakeholders and point out the project administrators errors.
  • C: Give the report in the meeting and accept the blame personally for any errors.
  • D: Reschedule the meeting for another time to give you the chance to fix the errors.
Question 409: You are completing a large infrastructure project in a foreign country. The government officials of the country are extremely grateful for the work you are doing and one of them sends a large cash payment to you to thank you and your team for the work they have done. What should you do?
  • A: Gratefully accept the payment and send a thank you card to the donor.
  • B: Accept the payment and divide it up among team members.
  • C: Refuse the payment.
  • D: Ask the government official if you can have a car instead of cash.
Question 410: You are currently preparing monthly status reports for your project and you are planning on reporting that the project has an SPI of 1.02 and a CPI of .83. Your project sponsor approaches you and says that she has been given a directive by the CEO of the company to report only positive figures or else he is afraid the shareholders in the company will demand changes to the organization. You are confident that the next month’s status report will show a CPI greater than 1. What should you do?
  • A: Explain to your project sponsor the reasons why you believe the project reporting should be honest.
  • B: Report the CPI based on what you believe next months figures will be.
  • C: Resign from the project.
  • D: Report the project sponsor’s behavior to the CEO.
Question 411: You are the project manager for a large project that has been completed on time and on budget. The customer and all of the stakeholders are very pleased with the results. As a direct result of the successful completion of the project, your project sponsor approves a bonus of $10,000 to you. There are twelve members on your project team. However, one of the people on the project team has been a very low contributor t o the project; the other eleven have all been above standard. What should you do with the money?
  • A: Divide the money equally among all the team members.
  • B: Ask the team members how they would divide the money.
  • C: Keep the money yourself; you deserve it, and the manager gave it to you.
  • D: Divide the money equally among the team members except for the substandard team member.
Question 412: You are the project manager for a large software implementation project that is nearing completion when you discover that one of your technicians has been taking shortcuts with the code being written and it is below the standard required in the technical specification. You and a senior team member review the code and form the opinion that it will probably not affect the functionality of the final software product. What is your NEXT course of action?
  • A: Carry on as planned and submit a change request.
  • B: Stop the project and start again, this time writing the code as per the specification.
  • C: Record the discrepancy, inform the customer, and look for ways to ensure the project won’t be affected.
  • D: Ignore the problem.
Question 413: You are the project manager for a project that has high visibility, and your project sponsor wants you to prepare a presentation for her to present at a conference. Most of the material in the presentation will be facts that are the results of your project. Your sponsor intends to present the material under her own name, and your name will not appear. What is your BEST course of action?
  • A: Do the work as you were told by your manager.
  • B: Explain to the sponsor that the correct thing to do is to acknowledge all authors and contributors to the work and, if necessary, refuse to work on the presentation unless you are listed as a co-author.
  • C: Present your own presentation.
  • D: Meet with your project sponsor’s manager and discuss the problem.
Question 414: You are working in a foreign country delivering a reconstruction project after a large natural disaster. It is normal in this country for government officials to request bribes to assist with processing the consents you require. During a meeting with a government official, he mentions that if you pay a $500 bribe you can have the consent you require tomorrow. What is your BEST course of action?
  • A: Pay the $500 out of your own pocket.
  • B: Refuse to pay the bribe.
  • C: Ask the official for an invoice so the payment can be made by the project.
  • D: Report the official to his manager.
Question 415: You are working on a project to construct a new water treatment plant and are waiting on consents required from the government before you can proceed with the work. During a meeting with a government employee to discuss the required consent, the employee mentions that the consent can be processed faster if you are willing to pay a processing fee. What is your BEST course of action?
  • A: Walk out of the meeting and notify your project sponsor.
  • B: Explain that you are not permitted to pay bribes.
  • C: Pay the fee if your project budget has allowed for it.
  • D: Ask the employee if he will accept goods instead of cash so you can hide the transaction better.
Question 416: You have just completed the selection of a preferred seller for an upcoming project and have scheduled a meeting in 2 days to finalize the contract when your manager informs you that due to current economic conditions the project will now probably not be going ahead but the definite answer will be provided by the CEO in 3 days. What is your BEST course of action?
  • A: Go ahead with the meeting and complete the negotiations, knowing you can use the termination clause to end it.
  • B: Postpone the meeting until the fate of the project is clear.
  • C: Go ahead with the meeting, but make an excuse to not sign the contract.
  • D: Cancel the meeting and let the other party know why.
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