Practice Questions

1. Which of the following are components you might find inside a PC? (Select the three best answers.)

A. CPU

B. Motherboard

C. Keyboard

D. Printer

E. RAM

F. Cable modem

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 25

2. Which device retains data over the long term?

A. CPU

B. RAM

C. Storage drive

D. Video card

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 25

3. To which type of technology would you install a x16 card?

A. Thunderbolt

B. PCIe

C. USB

D. DisplayPort

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 25

4. Which computer process checks all your components during boot?

A. CMOS

B. POST

C. BIOS

D. Lithium battery

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 25

5. You are planning to use an older PC for trade shows in several different countries. The PC only needs to work as a basic kiosk with an Internet browser. Which of the following is the most important factor for you to consider?

A. Maximum wattage

B. Input voltage

C. Number of SATA connections

D. TDP

E. Number of network connections

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 26

6. Which of the following could cause the POST to fail? (Select the two best answers.)

A. CPU

B. Power supply

C. Memory

D. Storage drive

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 26

7. Which of the following might you find as part of a tablet computer? (Select the two best answers.)

A. Flash memory

B. SATA storage drive

C. Multi-touch touchscreen

D. 24-inch display

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 26

8. Which of the following cloud concepts can allow for scalable services to clients?

A. Metered utilization

B. Shared resources

C. Rapid elasticity

D. High availability

E. SaaS

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 26

9. How should you hold RAM when installing it?

A. By the edges

B. By the front and back

C. With tweezers

D. With a punchdown tool

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 26

10. You have been tasked with setting up a specialized computer for video editing. Which of the following should you include with the computer? (Select the two best answers.)

A. Gigabit NIC

B. Hypervisor

C. SSD

D. Docking station

E. Dual monitors

F. NAS

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 27

11. How many pins are inside an SATA 3.0 data connector?

A. 15

B. 7

C. 24

D. 127

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 27

12. What is the term for the delay in the RAM’s response to a request from the memory controller?

A. Latency

B. Standard deviation

C. Fetch interval

D. Lag

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 27

13. What is the minimum number of storage drives necessary to implement RAID 5?

A. Two

B. Five

C. Three

D. Four

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 27

14. A user’s time and date keep resetting to January 1, 2015. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A. The BIOS/UEFI needs to be updated.

B. Windows needs to be updated.

C. The Windows Date and Time Properties window needs to be modified.

D. The lithium battery needs to be replaced.

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 28

15. Which type of adapter card is normally plugged into a PCIe x16 adapter card slot?

A. Modem

B. Video

C. NIC

D. Sound

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 28

16. Which of the following is a common type of CPU for a smartphone?

A. LGA 1700

B. SoC

C. Core i9

D. SODIMM

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 28

17. Which of the following components could cause the POST to beep several times and fail during boot?

A. Sound card

B. Power supply

C. Storage drive

D. RAM

E. LPDDR

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 28

18. Which of the following are ports you might find on smartphones and tablets? (Select the two best answers.)

A. eSATA

B. USB-C

C. Lightning

D. DVI

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 28

19. Which of the following has the fastest data throughput?

A. Optical drive

B. Hard disk drive

C. Solid-state drive

D. RAM

E. USB

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 29

20. Which of the following CPU cooling methods is the most common?

A. Heat sink

B. Heat sink and fan

C. Liquid cooling

D. Liquid nitrogen

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 29

21. You are tasked with fixing a problem with a video editing workstation. An unexpected clicking noise occurs every time the video editing program is started. The case fans have been replaced, but the noise remains. Diagnostics have also been run on the video card, and it appears to be operating normally. What action should you take first?

A. Perform a System Restore.

B. Replace the video card.

C. Replace the hard disk drive.

D. Perform a full data backup.

E. Scan for malware.

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 29

22. You are in the process of upgrading a lab’s systems from wireless-equipped laptops to thin clients. To support the VDI that you plan to implement, each client needs a 1 Gbps connection. Previously, the laptops connected to the organization’s 802.11n wireless network. Which of the following is needed for the thin clients to communicate with each other?

A. UPS

B. External storage drives

C. KVM

D. Network cables

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 30

23. Which of the following cable types should you use to connect a cable modem to a SOHO router?

A. RG-6

B. USB

C. Ethernet

D. HDMI

E. SATA

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 30

24. With which of the following technologies can you have two mobile devices transfer data simply by touching them together?

A. USB

B. NFC

C. Bluetooth

D. Wi-Fi

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 30

25. What type of power connector is used for a x16 video card?

A. Molex 4-pin

B. SATA 15-pin

C. PCIe 8-pin

D. P1 24-pin

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 30

26. Which of the following are output devices? (Select the three best answers.)

A. Speakers

B. Keyboard

C. Mouse

D. Printer

E. Display

F. Touchpad

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 31

27. What does the b in 1000 Mbps stand for?

A. megabytes

B. bits

C. bytes

D. bandwidth

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 31

28. When running cable through drop ceilings, which type of cable do you need?

A. PVC

B. Category 5e

C. Direct burial

D. Plenum

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 31

29. Which device connects multiple computers in a LAN?

A. Modem

B. Router

C. Switch

D. Firewall

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 31

30. Which of the following is the default subnet mask for IP address 192.168.1.1?

A. 255.255.0.0

B. 255.255.255.0

C. 255.0.0.0

D. 255.255.255.255

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 31

31. Which of the following is the minimum cable category needed for a 1000BASE-T network?

A. 802.11ax

B. Category 5

C. Category 5e

D. Category 6

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 32

32. Which of the following IP addresses can be routed across the Internet?

A. 127.0.0.1

B. 192.168.1.1

C. 129.52.50.13

D. 10.52.50.13

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 32

33. Which port number is used by an HTTPS web server by default?

A. 21

B. 25

C. 80

D. 443

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 32

34. Which of the following cable types have a copper medium? (Select the three best answers.)

A. Twisted pair

B. Coaxial

C. Fiber optic

D. Cat 6a

E. Multimode

F. 802.11ax

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 32

35. Which of the following cable types can protect against electromagnetic interference (EMI)? (Select the two best answers.)

A. UTP

B. STP

C. Fiber optic

D. Cat 6

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 33

36. You are configuring Bob’s computer to access the Internet. Which of the following are required? (Select all that apply.)

A. DNS server address

B. Gateway address

C. Email server name

D. DHCP server address

E. Domain name

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 33

37. Which of the following translates a computer name into an IP address?

A. TCP

B. UDP

C. DNS

D. FTP

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 33

38. A customer wants to access the Internet from many different locations in the United States. Which of the following is the best technology to enable the customer to do so?

A. Infrared

B. Cellular WAN

C. Bluetooth

D. 802.11ac

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 33

39. You just configured the IP address 192.168.0.105 in Windows. When you press the Tab key, Windows automatically configures the default subnet mask 255.255.255.0. Which of the following IP addresses is a suitable gateway address?

A. 192.168.1.100

B. 192.168.1.1

C. 192.168.10.1

D. 192.168.0.1

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 33

40. Which of the following is the name for a wireless network?

A. SSID

B. WPA

C. Screened subnet

D. DHCP

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 34

41. You configure a mobile device to connect to a Wi-Fi network on channel 165. Which of the following frequencies is the wireless connection using?

A. 2.4 GHz

B. 40 MHz

C. 5 GHz

D. 13.56 MHz

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 34

42. Which of the following connector types is used by fiber-optic cabling?

A. LC

B. RJ45

C. RG-6

D. RJ11

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 34

43. Which protocol uses port 53?

A. FTP

B. SMTP

C. DNS

D. HTTPS

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 34

44. Which of the following Internet services are wireless? (Select the two best answers.)

A. Cable Internet

B. Satellite

C. DSL

D. Cellular

E. Fiber optic

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 34

45. Which of the following terms best describes two or more LANs connected over a large geographic distance?

A. PAN

B. WAN

C. WLAN

D. MAN

E. SAN

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 34

46. Which device connects to the network and has the sole purpose of providing data to clients?

A. NAS

B. NAT

C. NAC

D. IaaS

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 35

47. You are making your own networking patch cable. You need to attach an RJ45 plug to the end of a twisted-pair cable. Which tool should you use?

A. Tone and probe kit

B. Cable tester

C. Crimper

D. Multimeter

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 35

48. Which port is used by RDP?

A. 80

B. 110

C. 443

D. 3389

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 35

49. Which of the following provides for a data plane and a control plane?

A. SDN

B. NIC

C. ONT

D. MAM

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 35

50. Which of the following printer failures can be described as a condition in which the internal feed mechanism stopped working temporarily?

A. No connectivity

B. Corrupt driver

C. Paper jam

D. Power cycle

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 36

51. A customer can barely hear sound from a laptop’s speakers. What should you do first?

A. Install a new sound driver.

B. Tap the speakers.

C. Search for a volume key.

D. Reinstall Windows.

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 36

52. After you replace a motherboard in a PC, the system overheats and fails to boot. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A. The GPU is not compatible with the CPU.

B. The new motherboard’s firmware is out of date.

C. Thermal paste was not applied between the heat sink and the CPU.

D. The case fan failed.

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 36

53. You use your laptop often. Which of the following is a simple, free way to keep your laptop running cool?

A. Keep the laptop on a flat surface.

B. Put the laptop in the freezer when not in use.

C. Direct a fan at the laptop.

D. Keep the laptop turned off whenever possible.

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 36

54. Which of the following are important factors when purchasing a replacement laptop AC adapter? (Select the two best answers.)

A. Current and voltage

B. Connector size and shape

C. Battery type

D. Inverter type

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 37

55. Eric uses an external monitor with his laptop. He tells you that his laptop will boot, but the system won’t display anything on the external screen. Which of the following solutions enables the display?

A. Connect the laptop to another external monitor.

B. Press the Fn and Screen keys one or more times until an image appears on the screen.

C. Press the Enter and Esc keys while the laptop is booting.

D. Press the Fn key while the laptop is booting.

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 37

56. Which type of printer uses a toner cartridge?

A. Inkjet

B. Laser

C. Impact

D. Thermal

E. 3D printer

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 37

57. Which of the following should not be connected to a UPS?

A. PCs

B. Monitors

C. Laser printers

D. Speakers

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 37

58. Terri finishes installing a printer for a customer. What should she do next?

A. Verify that the printer prints by using Microsoft Word.

B. Print a test page.

C. Restart the spooler.

D. Set up a separator page.

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 38

59. Which of the following best describes printing in duplex?

A. Printing on both sides of the paper

B. Printer collation

C. Full-duplex printer communication

D. Printing to file

E. 1200 DPI

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 38

60. Special paper is needed to print on which type of printer?

A. Impact

B. Thermal

C. Laser

D. Inkjet

E. 3D

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 38

61. Which of the following channels should you select for an 802.11 wireless network?

A. 6

B. 21

C. 802

D. 8080

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 38

62. Which environmental issue affects a thermal printer the most?

A. Moisture

B. ESD

C. Dirt

D. Heat

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 39

63. Which of the following occurs last in the laser printing process?

A. Charging

B. Exposing

C. Developing

D. Fusing

E. Cleaning

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 39

64. Which type of printer uses impact to transfer ink from a ribbon to the paper?

A. Laser

B. Inkjet

C. Impact

D. Thermal

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 39

65. Which of the following steps enables you to take control of a network printer from a remote computer?

A. Installing the printer locally and accessing the Sharing tab

B. Installing the printer locally and accessing the spool settings

C. Installing the printer locally and accessing the Ports tab

D. Connecting to the printer via FTP

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 39

66. A color laser printer produces images that are tinted blue. Which of the following steps should be performed to address this problem?

A. Clean the toner cartridge

B. Calibrate the printer

C. Change the fusing assembly

D. Clean the primary corona

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 39

67. A laptop cannot access the wireless network. Which of the following statements best describe the most likely causes of this? (Select the two best answers.)

A. The function key for wireless was pressed by accident.

B. The user installed a new web browser.

C. The wireless network was forgotten in Windows.

D. The computer is obtaining an IP address automatically.

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 40

68. A desktop computer does not have a lit link light on the back of the computer. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this?

A. Wi-Fi was disabled.

B. USB is malfunctioning.

C. The system did not POST correctly.

D. The network cable is disconnected.

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 40

69. Which of the following IP addresses does a technician see if a computer running Windows is connected to a multifunction network device and is attempting to obtain an IP address automatically but is not receiving an IP address from the DHCP server?

A. 172.16.10.10

B. 192.168.0.10

C. 169.254.10.10

D. 192.168.10.10

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 40

70. For which type of PC component are 80 mm and 120 mm common sizes?

A. Case fans

B. CPUs

C. Heat sinks

D. Memory modules

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 40

71. An exclamation point next to a device in Device Manager indicates which of the following?

A. A driver is not properly installed for this device.

B. The device is disabled.

C. The driver is not digitally signed.

D. The device driver needs to be upgraded.

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 41

72. Beep codes are generated by which of the following?

A. CMOS

B. RTC

C. POST

D. Windows

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 41

73. Which of the following indicates that a printer is network ready?

A. An RJ11 jack

B. A USB connector

C. An RJ45 jack

D. An SCSI connector

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 41

74. You just turned off a printer to perform maintenance on it. Which of the following should you be careful of when removing the fuser?

A. The fuser being hot

B. The fuser being wet

C. The fuser being fragile

D. The fuser releasing toner

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 41

75. Which of the following connectors can allow for video, audio, and data?

A. HDMI

B. DVI

C. DisplayPort

D. USB-C

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 42

76. You are attempting to make a connection to the Internet with a laptop, but there is no Wi-Fi availability. Your smartphone currently has access to the Internet. Which of the following will allow the laptop to connect to the Internet?

A. PRL

B. Hotspot

C. GPS

D. PoE injector

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 42

77. One of your customers purchased a device that can perform firewall duties, routing tasks, packet inspection, and antivirus scanning. Which of the following devices was purchased?

A. UTM appliance

B. DHCP server

C. Proxy server

D. IDS appliance

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 42

78. Which of the following is the most important piece of information needed to connect to a specific wireless network?

A. Channel

B. MAC address

C. SSID

D. Administrator password

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 42

79. You are considering a cloud-based service for file storage and synchronization. Which of the following resources is the most critical to your design?

A. Disk speed

B. RAM utilization

C. CPU utilization

D. I/O bandwidth

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 43

80. Which of the following statements describes why the display on a laptop gets dimmer when the power supply from the AC outlet is disconnected?

A. The laptop cannot use full brightness when on battery power.

B. Power management settings on the laptop are configured for power saving.

C. To operate properly, laptop displays require an alternating current power source.

D. Security settings on the laptop are configured to dim the display.

Quick Answer: 24

Detailed Answer: 43

Quick-Check Answer Key

1. A, B, and E

2. C

3. B

4. B

5. B

6. A and C

7. A and C

8. C

9. A

10. C and E

11. B

12. A

13. C

14. D

15. B

16. B

17. D

18. B and C

19. D

20. B

21. D

22. D

23. C

24. B

25. C

26. A, D, and E

27. B

28. D

29. C

30. B

31. C

32. C

33. D

34. A, B, and D

35. B and C

36. A and B

37. C

38. B

39. D

40. A

41. C

42. A

43. C

44. B and D

45. B

46. A

47. C

48. D

49. A

50. C

51. C

52. C

53. A

54. A and B

55. B

56. B

57. C

58. B

59. A

60. B

61. A

62. D

63. E

64. C

65. C

66. B

67. A and C

68. D

69. C

70. A

71. A

72. C

73. C

74. A

75. D

76. B

77. A

78. C

79. D

80. B

Answers and Explanations

1. Answers: A, B, and E

Explanation: Common components inside a PC include the CPU, motherboard, and RAM, along with the power supply, adapter cards, and storage drives.

Incorrect answers: Keyboards (and mice) are input devices that are located outside the PC. Printers (and displays) are output devices that are located outside the PC. A cable modem is an Internet communication device that is outside the PC. Know the internal components of a PC!

2. Answer: C

Explanation: The storage drive (or hard drive) stores data over the long term. It stores the OS and data in a nonvolatile fashion, meaning the data won’t be erased when the computer is turned off.

Incorrect answers: The CPU calculates data and sends it to RAM for temporary storage; the RAM (which is volatile) is cleared when the computer is turned off. The video card stores temporary video data within its onboard memory, but this, like RAM, is volatile and is cleared when the computer is turned off.

3. Answer: B

Explanation: PCI Express (PCIe) expansion slots accept x1, x4, and x16 cards (pronounced “by one,” “by four,” and “by sixteen,” respectively).

Incorrect answers: PCIe is by far the most common expansion slot for video cards (which are usually x16). Thunderbolt is a technology used primarily with Mac computers for displays and for data transfer. USB stands for Universal Serial Bus; it is a standard for connecting external equipment to a computer, not an expansion bus for use with cards. DisplayPort is a video technology that provides connectivity between the video card and the monitor.

4. Answer: B

Explanation: The POST (power-on self-test) is part of the Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) or Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI). It runs a self-check of the computer system during boot and stores many of the parameters of the components within the CMOS.

Incorrect answers: BIOS is known as firmware. The lithium battery powers the CMOS while the computer is off. It remembers settings such as the time and date and passwords. The CMOS, BIOS, and the lithium battery are not processes, but they do work hand in hand with each other.

5. Answer: B

Explanation: The input voltage is the most important thing to consider (of the listed answers at least). Different countries have different standard input voltages. For example, the United States uses 115 volts alternating current as a standard; countries in Europe and elsewhere use 230 volts. In this case, you would want to make sure that the older PC can auto-select voltages or that it at least has a switch to change from 115 V to 230 V.

Incorrect answers: Because this PC will be used for very basic purposes, the maximum wattage, number of SATA or network connections, and thermal design power (TDP) rating should not make a difference. However, you should make sure that the PC has the correct video connections and appropriate USB connections to work as a kiosk.

6. Answers: A and C

Explanation: The CPU and memory need to be installed properly for the POST to run (and to pass).

Incorrect answers: Storage drives may or may not be installed properly, but they are not necessary for the POST to complete. If the power supply is defective, the system simply will not boot and will not even get to the POST stage.

7. Answers: A and C

Explanation: A tablet computer often contains flash memory as main storage and a multi-touch touchscreen. Smartphones are similarly equipped.

Incorrect answers: SATA storage drives and 24-inch displays are more likely to be found on PCs than on tablet computers.

8. Answer: C

Explanation: Rapid elasticity means that a service, compute power, or networking bandwidth can be increased when needed. This kind of scalability is integral to cloud computing.

Incorrect answers: With metered utilization (or measured services), a cloud provider or an ISP measures the amount of data being sent, received, and stored, as well as network usage and computer usage. Shared resources (or resource pooling) means that multiple systems (or customers) share the same physical hardware, servers, and networking connections. With high availability, a server or service is available with little to no downtime. SaaS stands for software as a service, and SaaS examples include services such as browser-based email.

9. Answer: A

Explanation: Hold RAM by the edges to avoid contact with the pins, chips, and circuitry.

Incorrect answers: Touching the front and back is not advised because it requires touching the chips on the RAM module. Tools are not needed, and if they are used, metallic ones could be damaging to the module. Plastic tweezers are used to remove screws that fall into tough-to-reach places in the case. A punchdown tool is used to terminate networking cables to patch panels or to punch blocks.

10. Answers: C and E

Explanation: You should incorporate a solid-state drive (SSD) and dual monitors for the video editing workstation. Video files, such as .MP4 and .AVI, are big files that require a decent-size storage drive. An SSD—possibly an M.2 or similar drive—helps work with these files efficiently, especially in the video rendering stage. Having dual monitors (or more than two) is important when editing. You will generally want to have an editing window and a separate playback window.

Incorrect answers: A gigabit NIC is quite common. Chances are that the computer will have it already, but such NICs—and especially 10 Gbit NICs—are more important for servers than for personal computers. The hypervisor is the type of virtualization software manager that you are using—for example, VMware or VirtualBox. A docking station is a device used with a laptop to charge it and to replicate video and other peripherals. Network-attached storage (NAS) is a multi-drive storage device that connects directly to a network. It often uses magnetic drives but could use SSDs as well. It doesn’t use a screen; instead, you remotely administer it, usually from a browser.

11. Answer: B

Explanation: The SATA version 3.0 data connector has 7 pins.

Incorrect answers: The SATA power connector has 15 pins. ATX 12 V 2.0 and higher power connections have 24 pins. Among other things, 127 is the maximum number of USB devices you can connect to the computer.

12. Answer: A

Explanation: Memory latency—or CAS (column address strobe) latency—happens when a memory controller tries to access data from a memory module. It is a slight delay (usually measured in nanoseconds) while the memory module responds to the memory controller. It is also known as CL. The memory controller (also known as the northbridge) has a specific speed at which it operates. If the CPU asks the chip for too much information at once, this might increase latency time while the memory controller works.

Incorrect answers: The terms standard deviation and fetch interval deal with CPUs. Lag is similar to latency but is more commonly associated with network connections.

13. Answer: C

Explanation: Because RAID 5 uses striping with parity, a third drive (disk) is needed. You can have more than three drives as well.

Incorrect answers: Two drives are enough for plain RAID 0 striping, so two is the exact number you need for RAID 1 mirroring. RAID 6 and RAID 10 require four disks at a minimum.

14. Answer: D

Explanation: If the time and date keep resetting—for example, to a date such as January 1, 2015—chances are that the lithium battery needs to be replaced. These are usually nickel-sized batteries; most PCs use a CR2032 lithium battery. You can check the voltage on such a battery by using a multimeter; to work properly, such a battery should register above 3 volts.

Incorrect answers: Updating the BIOS/UEFI allows the PC to “see” new devices and communicate with them better, but it will not fix the time issue. Updating Windows will not fix this problem, but it should be done often to keep the computer secure. Other date and time synchronization problems can be fixed in the clock settings within the notification area. Windows client computers should be configured to synchronize to a time server.

15. Answer: B

Explanation: The PCI Express (PCIe) x16 expansion slot is used primarily for video.

Incorrect answers: Modems, network interface cards (NICs), and sound cards usually connect to PCIe x1 slots. Some cards require a minimum of PCIe x4.

16. Answer: B

Explanation: System on a chip (SoC) is a type of CPU used in smartphones and tablet computers. The 64-bit versions are common in mobile devices; they incorporate a variety of functionality within the CPU.

Incorrect answers: LGA 1700 is a type of CPU socket used in PCs. It is designed to be the replacement for the very common LGA 1200 socket and can work with a variety of Intel CPUs. As of the writing of this book, Core i9 is Intel’s latest version of high-powered CPUs. A small outline dual inline memory module (SODIMM) is the most common type of memory in laptops. It is the smaller cousin of the standard DIMM found in PCs.

17. Answer: D

Explanation: RAM is one of the big four factors (along with CPU, motherboard, and video) that can cause the POST to fail. Different RAM errors can cause the POST to make different series of beeps. Consult your motherboard documentation for more information about the different beep codes.

Incorrect answers: The sound card does not have an effect on the POST. If the power supply has a problem, the computer either will not boot at all (and not even enter POST) or will have intermittent problems (such as shutting down unpredictably). Storage drive problems result in a variety of errors. Although the POST will complete in these cases, the operating system will not boot. Low-Power Double Data Rate (LPDDR) is a common type of RAM used in mobile devices.

18. Answers: B and C

Explanation: Mobile devices such as smartphones and tablets commonly incorporate ports such as USB-C (and microUSB) and Apple’s Lightning connector.

Incorrect answers: eSATA (used by external storage devices) and DVI (used by video cards) are found on some PCs.

19. Answer: D

Explanation: RAM is much faster than the rest of the options listed. For instance, if you have PC4-25600 DDR4 RAM (aka DDR4-3200), your peak transfer rate is 25,600 megabytes per second (MB/s) (which could also be shown as 25.6 GB/s).

Incorrect answers: The rest of the devices in the incorrect answers are listed in descending order of data throughput:

• Hard disk drive or solid-state drive: For example, 600 MB/s for SATA 3.0, 1969 MB/s for SATA Express, and 3500 MB/s for typical M.2 drives. M.2 is very fast but still a fraction of RAM speeds (as of the writing of this book in 2022).

• USB: For example, 5 gigabits per second (Gbps) for version 3.0 and 20 Gbps for version 3.2 (which equates to 2.5 GB/s).

• Optical drives, though not used often, might still be found in some systems, especially older ones. CD-ROMs typically transfer 7.5 MB/s. DVD-ROMs typically transfer 21 MB/s. Blu-ray discs can typically transfer 72 MB/s.

20. Answer: B

Explanation: The most common CPU cooling method is the heat sink and fan combination. The heat sink helps to disperse the heat away from the CPU, whereas the fan blows the heat down and through the fins; the power supply exhaust fan and possibly additional case fans help the heat escape the case. Heat sink and fan combinations are known as active cooling methods.

Incorrect answers: A heat sink used by itself provides passive cooling; it requires no power but is not enough to cool most desktop PCs. Liquid cooling is a more extreme method used in custom PCs such as gaming computers and possibly audio/video workstations and virtualization machines. It uses a coolant similar to the way an automobile does. Liquid nitrogen would be plain foolish and is not a legitimate answer.

21. Answer: D

Explanation: The first action you should take is to perform a full data backup. Clicking noises can indicate that the computer’s magnetic-based hard drive is damaged and might fail. Immediately back up the drive’s contents before taking any other action.

Incorrect answers: It is less likely, but the clicking noise can also be caused by a fan. However, the case fans have already been replaced, and it is uncommon for a video card fan to make that noise unless a cable is brushing against it (which is also unlikely). As you gain experience, you will find that fan noise and hard disk drive clicking are usually two different sounds. The damage to the hard drive could possibly be caused by malware. After backing up data, scan the drive, and, if necessary, run a System Restore. The video card should not need to be replaced because the diagnostics indicate that it is running normally. After the backup, you should strongly consider replacing the hard drive, for two reasons: (1) The drive is clicking and is probably going to fail, and (2) video editing workstations require faster hard drives. The scenario implies that the system is using a magnetic-based hard drive (also known as a hard disk drive, or HDD). A solid-state drive (SATA or M.2) would run the video editing program more efficiently and would be better in the file-rendering phase. But keep in mind that these drives have no moving parts and therefore will not present any types of clicking sounds if they are about to fail. And know this: All drives fail. It’s not a matter of if but when!

22. Answer: D

Explanation: Network patch cables are required for the thin clients to communicate with each other (and anything else) at 1 Gbps. If the wireless network is 802.11n, its theoretical maximum data transfer rate is only 300 Mbps—which is not fast enough for the VDI requirements.

Incorrect answers: An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a battery backup for computers. External storage drives are not necessary with thin clients. A thin client has a small internal drive that may include an embedded OS, but the whole purpose of the thin client is to pull all data and possibly the OS/virtual desktop from the network. The faster the network, the better. In this case, KVM refers to a type of switch that can select between two or more systems and allow control from a single keyboard/video/mouse setup.

23. Answer: C

Explanation: Use an Ethernet networking patch cable to connect a cable modem to a SOHO router. This should be a typical straight-through twisted-pair cable that adheres to the T568B standard. It is the same type of cable that you would use to connect a PC to a switch or to an RJ45 jack.

Incorrect answers: RG-6 is a type of coaxial cable and is often used to connect a cable modem to a coaxial jack on the wall and, ultimately, to the network interface device (NID) in the home or office. Universal Serial Bus (USB) cables are used to connect peripherals to PCs, among other things. HDMI is a video standard. SATA is a storage drive standard.

24. Answer: B

Explanation: Near-field communication (NFC) allows you to have two mobile devices such as smartphones transfer data simply by touching them together (or bringing them in very close proximity of each other).

Incorrect answers: A USB port (for example, microUSB) allows for the transfer and synchronization of data to and from a mobile device and a PC or laptop. Bluetooth and Wi-Fi enable wireless connectivity but do not require that the devices touch or be in close proximity.

25. Answer: C

Explanation: A x16 card is a PCI Express card. It can have one or two PCIe 8-pin (or 6-pin) power connectors.

Incorrect answers: Molex 4-pin power connectors are used by secondary devices, such as fans, monitoring devices, and older IDE hard drives. SATA 15-pin power connections are used by SATA-compliant drives. P1 24-pin power is the main power connection that the motherboard gets from the power supply.

26. Answers: A, D, and E

Explanation: Speakers, printers, and displays are output devices. A speaker outputs sound. A printer outputs paper with text and graphics. A display (or monitor) displays video.

Incorrect answers: Keyboards, mice, and touchpads are input devices. Another input device used by mobile devices is the stylus.

27. Answer: B

Explanation: The b in 1000 Mbps stands for bits, and 1000 Mbps is 1000 megabits per second or 1 gigabit per second. Remember that the lowercase b is used to indicate bits when measuring network data transfer rates, USB data transfer rates, and other similar serial data transfers.

Incorrect answers: Bytes and megabytes refer to parallel data transfers or the calculation and storage of data, where 8 bits equal a standard byte of information. Network data transfer rates are also known as speed or bandwidth.

28. Answer: D

Explanation: Plenum-rated cable needs to be installed wherever a sprinkler system is not able to spray water. This includes ceilings, walls, and plenums (airways). Plenum-rated cable has a protective covering that burns slower and gives off fewer toxic fumes than regular PVC-based cable.

Incorrect answers: PVCs in regular cable give off toxic fumes in the event of a fire. Category 5e cable can be obtained in regular or plenum-rated versions. Direct burial is cable that is run underground and should be kept away from electrical cables.

29. Answer: C

Explanation: A switch connects computers together in a local area network (LAN). In SOHO networks, a switch is usually a part of a multifunction network device. In larger networks, a switch is an individual device that has 24, 48, or 96 ports.

Incorrect answers: A modem connects a PC to the Internet either by way of a coaxial cable connection (as in a cable modem) or a dial-up connection over a plain old telephone service (POTS) line (as in a dial-up modem). A router connects one network to another. Although a SOHO multifunction device is often referred to as a router, it is not the router portion of that device that connects the computers in the LAN but the switch portion. A firewall protects all the computers on the LAN from intrusion.

30. Answer: B

Explanation: 192.168.1.1, by default, has the subnet mask 255.255.255.0, which is the standard subnet mask for class C IP addresses. However, remember that some networks are classless, which means that the network can use a different subnet mask.

Incorrect answers: 255.255.0.0 is the class B default subnet mask. 255.0.0.0 is the class A default subnet mask. 255.255.255.255 is the broadcast address for IP. It is not usable as a subnet mask for typical computers on the LAN.

31. Answer: C

Explanation: The minimum cable needed for 1000BASE-T networks is Category 5e. Of course, Cat 6 would also work, but it is not the minimum of the listed answers. 1000BASE-T specifies the speed of the network (1000 Mbps), the type (BASE = baseband, a single shared channel), and the cable to be used (T = twisted pair).

Incorrect answers: 802.11ax is a wireless standard, not a cable type. Cat 5 is typically suitable for 100 Mbps networks. Be on the lookout for newer, faster technologies. For example, Category 7 and Category 8 are newer and faster cable types.

32. Answer: C

Explanation: The only listed answer that is a public address (needed to get onto the Internet) is 129.52.50.13.

Incorrect answers: All the other answers are private IP addresses, which are meant to be behind a firewall. 127.0.0.1 is the IPv4 local loopback IP address. 192.168.1.1 is a common private IP address used by SOHO networking devices. 10.52.50.13 is a private address. (Note that the 10 network is common in larger networks.)

33. Answer: D

Explanation: A server running Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) uses port 443 inbound (by default).

Incorrect answers: Port 21 is the default port used by a server running File Transfer Protocol (FTP). (Note that port 20 is used by FTP clients to make connections to the server.) Port 25 is used by the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). Port 80 is used by regular HTTP, which is considered to be insecure and should be avoided whenever possible.

34. Answers: A, B, and D

Explanation: Twisted pair, coaxial, and Category 6a cable are all examples of network cables with a copper medium. They all send electricity over copper wire. Twisted pair is the most common type of cabling used in today’s networks.

Incorrect answers: Multimode is a type of fiber-optic cable; it uses light to send data over a glass or plastic medium. 802.11ax is not a cable but a standard that defines wireless transmissions over 2.4 and 5 GHz frequencies. It is known as Wi-Fi 6. (Note that Wi-Fi 6E can also transmit over the 6 GHz frequency spectrum.)

35. Answers: B and C

Explanation: Shielded twisted pair (STP) and fiber optic can protect against EMI.

Incorrect answers: Unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cannot protect against EMI. Unless otherwise mentioned, Category 6 cable is UTP. STP is shielded twisted pair. Unlike UTP, STP provides an aluminum shield that protects against EMI. UTP and coaxial have no such protection. Fiber optic uses a different medium altogether, transmitting light rather than electricity; therefore, EMI cannot affect fiber-optic cables.

36. Answers: A and B

Explanation: To get on the Internet, the DNS server address is required so that the computer can get the resolved IP addresses from the domain names that are typed in. The gateway address is necessary to get outside the network.

Incorrect answers: Email server information is not necessary if the person is just looking to get on the Internet. A DHCP server address is not necessary either; however, using one is an easier method. The beauty of DHCP is that you don’t need to know the DHCP server’s address to acquire an IP address. The domain name for your network is normally not needed, either; it is necessary only if you want to add the computer to the organization’s domain.

37. Answer: C

Explanation: The Domain Name System (DNS) protocol translates a computer name into an IP address. Whenever you type a web server name such as dprocomputer.com, a DNS server translates that name to its corresponding IP address.

Incorrect answers: Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is used to send data from one computer to another, using a guaranteed delivery system. An example of a TCP protocol is HTTPS. User Datagram Protocol (UDP), on the other hand, sends data in a streaming format, without the need for guaranteed delivery. An example of UDP would be the streaming of music over the Internet. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) allows you to send files between computers over the Internet.

38. Answer: B

Explanation: With cellular WAN, a phone or other mobile device sends data over standard cellular connections.

Incorrect answers: By themselves, none of the other options offer direct connections to the Internet. Infrared is used more often for very short-distance connections, allowing data to be “beamed” from one device to another. Bluetooth is also for short distances, but not as short as for infrared. Bluetooth headsets are commonly used with smartphones. 802.11ac is a Wi-Fi technology for LANs; a newer version is 802.11ax.

39. Answer: D

Explanation: 192.168.0.1 is the only suitable gateway address. Remember that the gateway address must be on the same network as the computer. In this case, the network is 192.168.0, as defined by the 255.255.255.0 subnet mask.

Incorrect answers: 192.168.1.100 is on the 192.168.1.0 network, and so is 192.168.1.1. 192.168.10.1 is on the 192.168.10.0 network. Don’t forget that a zero at the end of an IP address denotes the network number.

40. Answer: A

Explanation: The service set identifier (SSID) is the name of the wireless network. This is the name you look for when locating a wireless network.

Incorrect answers: WPA, which stands for Wi-Fi Protected Access, is a connectivity protocol for wireless networks. A screened subnet (also known as a demilitarized zone, or DMZ) is an area between a LAN and the Internet that often houses web, email, and FTP servers. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a service that assigns IP addresses automatically to computers and other devices.

41. Answer: C

Explanation: The wireless connection is using the 5 GHz frequency range. 802.11n, 802.11ac, and 802.11ax use the 5 GHz range. Typical channels for Wi-Fi on 5 GHz include 36, 40, 44, 48, 149, 153, 157, 161, and 165.

Incorrect answers: 2.4 GHz is used by Wi-Fi standards such as 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n. (802.11n can use both 2.4 and 5 GHz.) The standard channels for 2.4 GHz Wi-Fi (in the United States) are between 1 and 11. 40 MHz is a common channel width in Wi-Fi networks when channel bonding is incorporated. 13.56 MHz is a standard channel for near-field communication (NFC).

42. Answer: A

Explanation: The LC connector is used with fiber-optic cabling. Other fiber connectors include SC and ST.

Incorrect answers: RJ45 is the connector used by twisted-pair networks. RG-6 is the cable used by cable Internet and TV; an F type connector is attached to the ends of an RG-6 cable. RJ11 is a standard phone line connector.

43. Answer: C

Explanation: The Domain Name System (DNS) protocol uses port 53 by default.

Incorrect answers: FTP uses ports 20/21. SMTP uses port 25 (or 587 or 465). HTTPS uses port 443.

44. Answers: B and D

Explanation: Satellite and cellular are examples of wireless Internet services.

Incorrect answers: Cable Internet, DSL, and fiber optic all use cabled connections.

45. Answer: B

Explanation: A wide area network (WAN) is a network in which two or more local area networks (LANs) are connected over a large geographic distance—for example, between two cities. The WAN requires connections to be provided by a telecommunications or data communications company.

Incorrect answers: A personal area network (PAN) is a small network made up of short-distance devices such as Bluetooth devices. WLAN stands for wireless local area network. This is the name that the IEEE uses for its 802.11 standards. The reason is that the term Wi-Fi, though widely used, is copyrighted. A MAN is a metropolitan (or municipal) area network; it can connect two or more LANs but does so in a small city-based area. A storage area network (SAN) is a network of connected storage devices and controllers that typically uses Fibre Channel technology to connect the hosts together.

46. Answer: A

Explanation: Network-attached storage (NAS) devices store data for network use. They connect directly to a network.

Incorrect answers: Network Address Translation (NAT) is used on routers to connect a group of computers on a private LAN to the Internet by using a single public IP address. NAC, which stands for network access control, is a group of technologies designed to allow or deny access by authenticating users. IaaS, which stands for infrastructure as a service, is a cloud-based technology organizations can use to offload their network infrastructure to a third party. (This is a tougher one to keep you on your toes!)

47. Answer: C

Explanation: Use an RJ45 crimper tool to permanently attach RJ45 plugs to the end of a cable.

Incorrect answers: You use a tone generator and probe kit to locate individual phone lines, but you can also use such a kit with network lines. (Note that this tool might also be referred to as a toner probe.) The better tool, however, for testing and locating is a continuity cable tester. A multimeter is great for testing AC outlets and for testing wires inside a computer, but it is not often used in networking applications.

48. Answer: D

Explanation: Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) uses port 3389 by default. This protocol allows one computer to take control of another remote system.

Incorrect answers: Port 80 is used by HTTP. Port 110 is used by POP3. Port 443 is used by HTTP Secure (or HTTPS), a protocol used during secure web sessions. It is often required that websites use HTTPS over HTTP whenever possible.

49. Answer: A

Explanation: Software-defined networking (SDN) is a technology in which a controlling server defines how data packets are sent through a network. It uses a data plane (for the actual data packets) and a control plane (for the administrative packets). An example of this is OpenFlow.

Incorrect answers: NIC stands for network interface card. A NIC is the main networking device in a PC or laptop. ONT stands for optical network terminal; it terminates the signal from a fiber-optic provider. MAM stands for mobile application management, which is a centralized solution that can install and update applications on Android and iOS smartphones and tablets.

50. Answer: C

Explanation: A failure that occurs due to the internal feed mechanism stopping is known as a paper jam. For example, an HP LaserJet might show error code 13.1 (or another number) on the display, which means a paper jam at the paper feed area. You should verify that the paper trays are loaded and adjusted properly.

Incorrect answers: A No Connectivity message means that the printer is not currently connected to the network. A corrupt driver loaded on a workstation would cause any print job from that computer either to fail or to print nonsense. A Power Cycle message means that the self-diagnostic program has encountered a problem and is telling you to shut down the printer and turn it back on. Doing so resets the printer, which can fix many of the issues that may occur.

51. Answer: C

Explanation: Search for the volume keys. They usually share two of the function keys, such as F9 for volume down and F10 for volume up. A mute button is usually included as well (for example, F11). Sometimes, the volume may be muted or set to the lowest position (though there might still be a slight audible noise). The volume is usually controlled by pressing the Fn key and the Volume Up or Volume Down key (or mute) simultaneously.

Incorrect answers: Installing a new sound driver isn’t necessary yet. Always check the physical volume first, and then check whether the volume is low or the sound is muted in Windows. Tapping the speakers is an interesting idea, but it has no place in this discussion. If a speaker is loose, it often makes scratchy noises; however, speakers rarely become loose on today’s laptops. Reinstalling Windows is the last thing you want to do. Check the simple solutions when troubleshooting problems such as no audio or video.

52. Answer: C

Explanation: If the motherboard was just replaced and the system overheats when booted, there’s a good chance that thermal paste was not applied to the CPU. When you install a new motherboard, the CPU must be removed from the old board and installed to the new one, or a new CPU needs to be installed. Either way, the heat sink must come off. Whenever a heat sink is connected (or reconnected) to a CPU, thermal paste (also known as thermal compound), or a thermal pad, should be applied; otherwise, CPU overheating can easily occur.

Incorrect answers: The GPU is the video card’s processor; it is not possible for the GPU to be incompatible with the CPU. It is possible for the video card to be incompatible with the expansion bus slots on the new motherboard, though. Even if the new motherboard’s firmware has not been updated, the system should not overheat. If the case fan fails, the computer should not overheat. The CPU will still have its own fan, and the power supply will still exhaust hot air.

53. Answer: A

Explanation: Laptops have airflow underneath them; if the unit is not on a flat surface, the airflow will be reduced or stopped altogether, leading to component damage.

Incorrect answers: The freezer is not a good idea because condensation could build up inside the unit. A fan won’t do much good unless the laptop is on a flat surface, and although it is plausible to keep the laptop turned off, doing so negates the reason for using the laptop and is not a proper solution.

54. Answers: A and B

Explanation: Make sure to purchase an AC adapter that is a true replacement. You can find one on the laptop manufacturer’s website. When you enter your model number, the website will tell you everything you need to know about current, voltage, and connector type. (These details are also listed on the brick portion of the power adapter.)

Incorrect answers: The battery and AC adapter do need to work in conjunction with each other; because of this, they both need to be compatible with the laptop. The AC adapter does several things, including reducing voltage and converting from AC to DC, but it does not invert the signal. However, there is an inverter in the laptop; it powers the display. This question does not refer to that, but if you are ever troubleshooting an older CCFL display, the inverter type is very important.

55. Answer: B

Explanation: The Screen key (also known as the display toggle) is one of the keys available when you use the Fn (Function) key. It enables you to switch between the laptop display and an external display (or use both). The Fn key is used for a variety of secondary functions, including volume, brightness, and wireless toggle.

Incorrect answers: If the display toggle doesn’t work, try another external monitor. No other key combinations perform this task.

56. Answer: B

Explanation: Laser printers use toner cartridges.

Incorrect answers: Inkjet printers use ink cartridges. Impact printers (for example, dot-matrix printers) use ribbons. Thermal printers use specially coated paper that is heated. 3D printers use plastic/resin filament to build three-dimensional objects.

57. Answer: C

Explanation: Laser printers use large amounts of electricity, which could quickly drain the battery of the UPS. A laser printer should be plugged in to its own individual power strip.

Incorrect answers: PCs, monitors, and speakers can be connected to a UPS. In fact, if you want to have continued use (and protection) during a power outage, they should be!

58. Answer: B

Explanation: Print a test page after installation. If the test page prints properly, printing a page in Word should be unnecessary. Besides, you don’t know if the computer has Microsoft Word installed.

Incorrect answers: Restarting the spooler is not necessary if the printer has just been installed. The spooler should already be running. If the spooler has failed, that would be a separate troubleshooting scenario. Separator pages are not necessary; they are optional and can be configured in the Printer Properties window.

59. Answer: A

Explanation: When you are printing “duplex,” you are printing on both sides of the paper (if the printer has that capability). Some laser printers can do this, but printing this way creates a longer total paper path, which leads to more frequent paper jams.

Incorrect answers: Collation means that documents are printed in a standard order, usually numerically. Full-duplex in networking means that information can be sent and received simultaneously. A printer can have a full-duplex connection to the network, but this question refers to printing in duplex. Printing to file is a process that Windows can perform. Instead of selecting a physical printer when printing a document, Windows prints to a special file and saves that file with a .prn extension to a location of your choice. 1200 dots per inch (DPI) is the print quality. The higher the print resolution, the higher the print quality. 600 DPI or higher is considered to be “letter quality.”

60. Answer: B

Explanation: Regular paper can be used on all the listed printers except for thermal printers, which use specially coated paper that is heated to create the image.

Incorrect answers: A dot-matrix printer might use tractor-feed paper, but that is standard for many impact printers; it is also still considered regular paper. A laser printer or dot-matrix printer might use two-part paper, but two-part paper isn’t necessary for laser printers or dot-matrix printers to operate; thermal printers won’t work unless you use specially coated paper. Inkjet printers normally use standard copy paper for printing. Finally, 3D printers use a plastic filament, not paper.

61. Answer: A

Explanation: Of the listed answers, use channel 6 for 802.11 wireless networks. That would imply a 2.4 GHz connection using either 802.11ax, n, g, or b. The 2.4 GHz frequency range in the United States allows for channels 1 through 11.

Incorrect answers: Of these answers, 21 is outside the allowable 2.4 GHz range for any country. (On a separate note, it is a port number used with FTP.) Here, 802 has no meaning other than being the name of the IEEE protocol suite that includes wireless protocols such as 802.11ac. Also, it is far beyond the range of 5 GHz wireless networks, which are between 36 and 165. 8080 is a less commonly used HTTP port.

62. Answer: D

Explanation: Heat is the number-one enemy of a thermal printer. Keeping a thermal printer or thermal paper in a location where the temperature is too high could cause failure of the printer and damage to the paper.

Incorrect answers: Excessive moisture can cause rubber rollers and separation pads to fail over time, especially in laser printers. Electrostatic discharge (ESD) is always a foe—but only if you are working inside the printer. Dirt can clog up the works over time in any device. Heat is by far the most important factor to watch for with thermal printers.

63. Answer: E

Explanation: In the laser printing process, also known as the imaging process, the cleaning stage happens last.

Incorrect answers: The printing process includes the following steps, in this order: processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, and cleaning.

64. Answer: C

Explanation: Impact is a type of impact printer. It uses a printhead to physically impact the ribbon and transfer ink to the paper.

Incorrect answers: Laser printers apply toner to paper through varying voltages. Inkjet printers spray ink from a cartridge onto the paper. Thermal paper is specially coated and forms text when it is heated properly.

65. Answer: C

Explanation: After you install the driver for the printer locally, you can then take control of it by going to the properties of the printer and accessing the Ports tab. Then click the Add Port button and select the Standard TCP/IP Port option. You have to know the IP address of the printer or the computer that the printer is connected to.

Incorrect answers: The Sharing tab enables you to share the printer so that remote users can use it; however, the remote user would then somehow have to connect to the printer. The spool settings can be set so that the computer spools documents before sending pages to the printer, which helps with less powerful printers and printer congestion. Some printers can be accessed via FTP, but usually they are controlled and accessed in another way. Either way, making a connection to the printer is not taking control of the printer.

66. Answer: B

Explanation: After you install a printer, it is important to calibrate it for color and orientation, especially if you are installing a color laser printer or an inkjet printer. These calibration tools are usually built in to the printer’s software and can be accessed from Windows, or you can access them from the printer’s display.

Incorrect answers: If a toner cartridge needs to be cleaned, it probably has a leak and should be replaced. The fusing assembly needs to be changed only when it fails. Many printers indicate when the fuser is at 20% life and needs to be replaced soon. If the fuser fails, the toner will fail to stick to the paper. The primary corona wire can be cleaned; it is near the drum. Cleaning it can help with other types of print quality problems, such as lines and smearing, though on many printers this is not necessary.

67. Answers: A and C

Explanation: Most laptops have a special function key (for example, F12) that allows you to enable or disable the Wi-Fi connection with a single key press. Also, a wireless network can be “forgotten” in the operating system. If this happens, the laptop has to be reconnected to the wireless network.

Incorrect answers: After you are connected to a network, you can typically use whatever web browser you want, as long as the browser is compatible with the operating system that is in use. Client computers (such as laptops) normally obtain their IP addresses automatically from a DHCP server, so this is not a likely problem.

68. Answer: D

Explanation: The most likely answer in this scenario is that the network cable is disconnected. If the desktop computer is using a wired connection, it is most likely a twisted-pair Ethernet connection. When this cable is connected to the computer on one end and to a switch or another central connecting device on the other end, it initiates a network connection over the physical link. This link then causes the network adapter’s link light to light up. The link light is directly next to the RJ45 port of the network adapter. The corresponding port on the switch (or another similar device) is also lit. If the cable is disconnected, the link light becomes unlit, though there are other possibilities for this link light to be dark (for example, if the computer is off or if the switch port is disabled).

Incorrect answers: The Wi-Fi connection might have its own link light (for example, on the front of a laptop), but this is separate from the wired connection link light. Although it is unlikely, a malfunctioning USB controller or port could possibly be the cause of the unlit link light—but only if the computer is using a USB-based network adapter. Normally, the network adapter (and corresponding RJ45 port) on a PC is either integrated into the motherboard or is installed as a PCIe x1 adapter card. If the system doesn’t run the POST properly, it usually indicates a problem with the RAM, video, or other primary component of the system. Generally, a network adapter does not cause a failure during POST.

69. Answer: C

Explanation: If the computer fails to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server, Windows takes over and uses Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA). This address will be on the 169.254.0.0 network. APIPA is a type of link-local addressing.

Incorrect answers: All of the other addresses could possibly be obtained from a DHCP server. 172.16.10.10, 192.168.0.10, and 192.168.10.10 are all private IP addresses that could typically be obtained through DHCP.

70. Answer: A

Explanation: Case fans are measured in mm (millimeters); 80 mm and especially 120 mm are very common sizes. A case fan is used to exhaust heat out of the case. Case fans aid in keeping the CPU and other devices cool. The 120 mm is quite common in desktop and tower PCs, and the 80 mm is more common in smaller systems and 1U and 2U rackmount servers.

Incorrect answers: A CPU typically uses a heat sink/fan combination. However, the two are often connected. Memory modules don’t use fans, but they can be equipped (or purchased) with heat sinks of their own.

71. Answer: A

Explanation: If you see an exclamation point in Device Manager, it indicates that the device does not have a proper driver. Right-click the device in Device Manager and select Update Driver or install the driver directly from the manufacturer’s website.

Incorrect answers: If the device is disabled, it will have a down arrow next to it. If a driver was not digitally signed, the device might show up in the Unknown Devices category until it is installed properly. If a device has a working driver, upgrading it will be up to you, but you won’t necessarily be notified that the driver needs to be upgraded. This question may seem more like a 220-1102 question, but you have to be prepared for some overlap. Remember that some of the concepts of the 220-1101 and the 220-1102 exams are heavily intertwined!

72. Answer: C

Explanation: As the power-on self-test (POST) checks all the components of the computer, it may present its findings on the screen or in the form of beep codes. The POST is a part of the BIOS/UEFI.

Incorrect answers: The complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) stores information such as time and date and BIOS/UEFI passwords. RTC stands for real-time clock; it is the device that keeps time on the motherboard. Windows generates all kinds of error codes but not beep codes. The beep codes come from the POST, which happens before Windows boots.

73. Answer: C

Explanation: The RJ45 jack enables a connection to a twisted-pair (most likely Ethernet) network. A printer with a built-in RJ45 connector is network ready; so is a printer that is Wi-Fi enabled.

Incorrect answers: RJ11 ports are used by modems and dial-up Internet connections. If a printer has an RJ11 port, it is a multifunction printer acting as a fax machine. USB is the standard port for a printer; it allows the printer to connect to a PC or to a print server. SCSI connectors are not often found on today’s printers; such a connector indicates a local connection, not a network connection.

74. Answer: A

Explanation: The fuser heats paper to around 400° Fahrenheit (204° Celsius), which is comparable to the heat of an oven. If you need to replace the fuser, let the printer sit for 10 or 15 minutes after shutting it down and before performing maintenance.

Incorrect answers: The fuser is not wet or fragile, and it does not contain toner; the cartridge contains toner.

75. Answer: D

Explanation: USB-C can transmit audio, video, and data over one cable. That means it can be used for a variety of peripherals, including monitors.

Incorrect answers: The other three connectors, HDMI, DVI, and DisplayPort, are all video connectors. HDMI and DisplayPort can transmit audio and video (but not data), and DVI sends video only. (Note that VGA sends video only as well.)

76. Answer: B

Explanation: Set up a hotspot on the smartphone. Because the phone has access to the Internet (perhaps a 4G or 5G connection), that connection can be used. Creating a hotspot activates the smartphone’s ability to run a wireless network. Then the laptop can simply connect to that Wi-Fi network, and Internet access will pass through the smartphone.

Incorrect answers: Preferred roaming list (PRL) updates are important to have on a smartphone so that the device knows what frequency bands and service providers should be scanned. The Global Positioning System (GPS) is a worldwide system of satellites, towers, and other devices that can locate a device and provide for navigation. A Power over Ethernet (PoE) injector allows for a single device to be powered by way of the network connection; it’s handy if there is no AC outlet near the device.

77. Answer: A

Explanation: A unified threat management (UTM) appliance is one that does the work of several security devices. A UTM typically acts as a firewall, router, packet analyzer, and virus scanner, among other functions.

Incorrect answers: A DHCP server is used to automatically assign IP addresses to client computers over the network. A proxy server is used to cache and filter connections to the Internet (HTTPS, FTP, and so on). An intrusion detection system (IDS) appliance is used to detect whether an attacker has attempted to infiltrate a network or an individual device. If the appliance is used on the network, it is known as a network-based IDS (NIDS). If it is installed for a single system, it is known as a host-based IDS (HIDS). Going further, an intrusion prevention system (IPS) can detect malicious packets as well as prevent them from entering the network (or individual system).

78. Answer: C

Explanation: The service set identifier (SSID) is the most important piece of information required to connect to a wireless network; it is the name of the wireless network.

Incorrect answers: The wireless channel number isn’t necessarily needed as the wireless access point (WAP) might autonegotiate the channel. Also, MAC address filtering is not enabled by default, so the MAC address might not be needed. (In fact, the admin would enter this at the WAP, not from the client computer.) You need the administrator password only if you want to make configuration changes to the wireless access point. For example, if you want to implement MAC filtering, you have to log in to the WAP with an admin password to configure it.

79. Answer: D

Explanation: I/O bandwidth is the most critical of the resources listed in the question. When you are considering file storage and file synchronization, you need to know the maximum input/output operations per second (IOPS) that the cloud provider can deliver. (Get actual reports of previous customers as proof!) IOPS gives you a concrete measurement of data that you can use for analysis.

Incorrect answers: Disk speed is not enough for the planning of file storage. Plus, it might not even be a factor if the cloud provider is using SSDs, NVMEs, and so on. RAM and CPU utilization percentages are important, but they become more vital if you will be working with virtual machines. It’s also important to monitor these percentages regularly.

80. Answer: B

Explanation: The power management settings on a laptop can cause the display to automatically dim when the AC adapter is unplugged. In fact, this is the default on many laptops to conserve battery power. These settings can be configured within Power Options in Windows.

Incorrect answers: You can certainly set the display to full brightness when on battery power; doing so just isn’t recommended. Laptops can operate properly when connected to the AC power adapter or when using the battery only. The display brightness of a laptop isn’t affected by any security settings.

Great Job So Far!

You have completed the first 220-1101 practice exam. This is the easiest of the three 220-1101 practice exams. If you did not get 90% of the answers correct on this exam, I recommend that you study further before doing anything else. If you did answer 90% or better, then take a break before continuing on!