Question 1
Which of the following is most likely to lead to the success of testing?
a. Point out in defect reports why the problems should not have happened.
b. Have a chart of the developers and the number of defects that they have created.
c. Communicate information about defects and failures in a constructive way.
d. Locate testers and developers in separate buildings, to aid internal team building.
Question 2
What is decision table testing?
a. Placing decisions in tables to make them easier to test.
b. A black-box technique to exercise combinations of causes and effects.
c. A table used to show sets of conditions and resulting actions.
d. A white-box test technique to test conditions and their outcomes.
Question 3
Which of the following is true of non-functional testing?
a. Non-functional testing always requires specialist skills.
b. Non-functional testing is technical so should be carried out by developers.
c. Non-functional testing should be carried out at all levels of testing.
d. Due to the nature of non-functional testing, the coverage achieved cannot be measured.
Which of the following correctly identifies a key role and associated responsibilities for a formal review?
a. Management assigns staff and executes control decisions in the event of inadequate outcomes.
b. Review leader assigns staff and takes overall responsibility for the review.
c. Reviewers, who must be subject matter experts, identify potential defects.
d. A moderator decides who will be involved and organises where and when a meeting will take place.
Question 5
Of the following, which is the most suitable test basis for component testing?
a. A detailed design.
b. A database module.
c. An interface definition.
d. A business process.
Question 6
Which of the following statements best describes the role of testing?
a. Testing ensures that the right version of code is delivered.
b. Testing can be used to assess quality.
c. Testing improves quality.
d. Testing shows that the software is error free.
Question 7
Which of the following best demonstrates the value of static testing?
a. Project A was late starting testing and subsequently overran the project target and budget.
b. Project B was late starting development because detailed requirements reviews were held but later completed on time and on budget.
c. Project C involved all testers in reviewing test specifications and subsequently completed late and over budget.
d. Project D overran because a defect occurred late in development, resulting in long delays.
Which of the following characteristics will affect the test effort required to achieve the testing objectives of a project?
a. The development model in use.
b. The number of testers available.
c. The availability of suitable test environments.
d. The cost of required testing tools.
Question 9
Which of the following is a common test metric?
a. Number of testers in a test team.
b. Number of test cases prepared.
c. Number of test cases run/not run.
d. Number of requirements to be tested.
Question 10
Which of the following is not a main consideration for tool selection?
a. Evaluation of the tool against clear requirements and objective criteria.
b. Evaluating how the tool fits with existing processes and practices, and determining what needs to change.
c. Identification of opportunities for an improved test process supported by the tool.
d. Identification of internal requirements for coaching and mentoring in the use of the tool.
Question 11
Youngsters aged 12 are incorrectly issued with ‘child’ tickets on an adventure park website, instead of an ‘adult’ ticket. Which of the following describes this?
a. Failure.
b. Unprofessional.
c. Error.
d. Defect.
Which of the following does not correctly describe how to derive test cases from a use case?
a. Use case tests can be designed to test all defined behaviour, including exceptional or alternative behaviour and error handling.
b. Use case testing is appropriate only for identifying behaviours that have not been defined.
c. Use case testing is used to ensure that all error handling is correctly executed.
d. Use case testing can be based on exceptional or alternative behaviours.
Question 13
Which of the following is generally true?
a. Code coverage is typically measured when carrying out functional testing.
b. Non-functional testing can make use of black-box techniques.
c. White-box testing focuses on system behaviours.
d. Functional testing is best done at system and acceptance testing.
Question 14
Which of the following statements about the purpose and content of a test plan is not correct?
a. The content of a master test plan must be completed before the project is initiated.
b. Test planning is a continuous activity and the content of test plans may change as the project progresses.
c. There may be separate test plans for different test types.
d. There is integration of test activities into the Software Development Life Cycle activities.
Question 15
Which of the following statements about decision coverage is correct?
a. Decision coverage is a measure of the number of white-box tests that have been executed.
b. Decision testing is the percentage of decision outcomes in a test object exercised by a suite of tests divided by the total number of decision outcomes in the test object.
c. Decision testing compares the number of decision outcomes executed by a suite of tests with the total number of tests.
d. Decision testing is the percentage of decision outcomes in a test object divided by the number of decision outcomes exercised by a suite of tests.
Which of the following correctly explains error guessing?
a. Error guessing is based on testing for the types of mistakes that developers tend to make.
b. Error guessing is a technique for creating lists of mistakes, defects and failures that can be used by developers to avoid mistakes in the future.
c. Error guessing is based solely on the tester’s experience of past mistakes.
d. Error guessing uses evidence from defect reports to ensure that the defect reported is no longer present.
Question 17
Which of the following is a valid entry criterion for a testing phase?
a. Testers are available to carry out the tests.
b. A suitable test environment is available.
c. All previous phases of testing have been completed.
d. The defects reported in previous phases have been cleared.
Question 18
Which of the following lists of activities are correctly sequenced for a product review process?
a. Distributing the work product, estimating effort and timescale, reviewing the work product, creating defect reports, analysing potential defects.
b. Estimating effort and timescale, distributing the work product, gathering metrics, analysing potential defects, creating defect reports.
c. Selecting reviewers, explaining scope and objectives, noting potential defects, evaluating quality characteristics, fixing defects found.
d. Identifying the review type, distributing the work product, analysing potential defects, fixing defects, communicating identified defects.
Question 19
What is a test oracle?
a. A person who knows most about testing within an organisation.
b. A means to identify expected results for specific test inputs.
c. A process to identify test conditions from source documents.
d. A means of estimating how long testing will take.
Question 20
Which of the following statements about exploratory testing is correct?
a. In exploratory testing, predefined tests are executed, logged and evaluated dynamically during test execution.
b. Exploratory testing is strongly associated with model-based test strategies and can incorporate other black-box techniques.
c. In exploratory testing, test results are used to learn more about the software under test and to create additional tests for areas that may need more testing.
d. Exploratory testing always uses session-based testing to ensure that tests are documented.
Question 21
Which of the following are part of test execution?
a. Identifying suitable test techniques, determining testing tasks and drawing up a test schedule.
b. Creating test suites from the test procedures, building the test environment and preparing test data.
c. Comparing actual results with expected results, running tests manually or using tools, and logging the outcome of tests run.
d. Examining the test basis, evaluating the quality of the test basis, and identifying and prioritising test conditions.
Question 22
What is the key difference between the metrics-based approach to estimation and the expert-based approach?
a. The metrics-based approach uses a mathematical equation to calculate total effort, whereas the expert-based approach uses data from previous projects.
b. The metrics-based approach uses data from previous projects, while the expert-based approach uses the experience of the tester doing the tests.
c. The expert-based approach uses the experience of testers, while the metrics-based approach uses previous estimates as a guide.
d. The expert-based approach uses the experience of experts, while the metrics-based approach uses data from former similar projects.
Question 23
Which of the following statements about checklist-based testing is correct?
a. Checklists are used to ensure that there is no variability in the actual testing.
b. Checklists can be used to support functional but not non-functional testing.
c. During analysis, testers may select an existing checklist and use it without modification or create a new checklist; modifications to existing checklists are not allowed.
d. In checklist-based testing, testers design, implement and execute tests to cover test conditions found in a checklist.
Which of the following test tool types is classified as a test tool for test execution and logging and is also considered more appropriate for use by developers than by testers?
a. Model-based testing tools.
b. Test-driven development tools.
c. Test data preparation tools.
d. Coverage tools.
Question 25
Which of the following is a complete definition of how configuration management supports testing?
a. It ensures that testware and system components are uniquely identified.
b. It identifies and maintains the system components, the testware and the relationship between them.
c. It ensures that all identified documents are referenced unambiguously in test documentation.
d. It ensures that all test items are version controlled, tracked for changes and related to each other.
Question 26
A company rewards its sales people on the basis of their sales in each month. Sales staff who make sales worth more than £10,000 are paid the highest bonus, followed by those who earn more than £8,000, those who earn more than £5,000 and those who earn more than £3,000, with each group earning a bonus of 1 per cent less than the group above. Sales staff who earn £3,000 or less are paid no bonus for that month. What is the minimum number of test cases required to cover all valid equivalence partitions for calculating the sales bonus?
a. 6
b. 5
c. 4
d. 3
Question 27
Which of the following is the best reason to maintain traceability between the test basis and test work products?
a. Traceability ensures that all requirements have been tested.
b. Traceability assists in the impact analysis of potential changes.
c. Traceability enables the project to be delivered on time.
d. Traceability highlights who is to blame when defects are found.
A central heating system timer is calibrated in hours and minutes, using a 24-hour clock. The system allows up to four time zones for each day. On a particular day the system is set to switch on from 06.00 to 08.45, from 11.45 to 13.15, and from 16.45 to 22.45. Using a two-point boundary value system, which of the following times are needed to test this day’s functionality?
a. 06.00, 06.01, 08.45, 08.46, 11.45, 11.46, 13.15, 13.16, 16.45, 16.46, 22.45, 22.46
b. 05.59, 06.00, 08.44, 08.45, 11.44, 11.45, 13.14, 13.15, 16.44, 16.45, 2.244, 22.45
c. 06.00, 06.01, 08.44, 08.45, 11.44,11.45, 13.14, 13.15, 16.45, 16.46, 22.44, 22.45
d. 05.59, 06.00, 08.45, 08.46, 11.44, 11.45, 13.15, 13.16, 16.44, 16.45, 22.45, 22.46
Question 29
A requirements document for a new supermarket checkout system has been produced. It is 743 pages long and contains an overall description of the system, detailed workflows and use cases, with mocked up screenshots of specific functions, and an outline of the proposed approach to development. Which of the following is a key success factor for a successful review of this document?
a. The review team must include designers, developers and testers but the document is too technical for users to review.
b. The document should be reviewed in small chunks and defects fed back to the authors as early as possible.
c. The review must take the form of an inspection so that detailed metrics are available.
d. The review should be arranged at the earliest possible opportunity so that the development team is not held up.
Question 30
Which of the following is a trigger for maintenance testing?
a. A new feature is required for an iteration.
b. A fix is required before the system goes live.
c. The system functionality has been descoped to hit a deadline.
d. Data is being migrated for a live system to a different platform.
A system is being developed to manage the operation of a warehouse-based robot that collects items from shelves and takes them to a packaging area. The location in which the robot will operate also has human operators working, though in a separate area of the warehouse. How should a product risk analysis inform the testing?
a. By helping to determine the particular types and levels of testing to be performed.
b. By defining the specific safety features to be incorporated.
c. By mandating the use of particular test tools.
d. By mandating that all testers are experienced in safety-related systems.
Question 32
A university examination system sets all examinations for a module with the same criteria. A pass is awarded to any student who scores at least 40 per cent, a merit is awarded to any student scoring at least 60 per cent, and a distinction is awarded to any student scoring 85 per cent or over. Any student scoring at least 35 per cent but below 40 per cent is offered a viva voce exam and any student who scores at least 30 per cent but below 35 per cent is offered a resit. Any student scoring below 30 per cent is deemed to have failed the relevant module. All examination paper results are recorded as whole numbers. Which of the following sets of values needs to be identified for two-point boundary value analysis?
a. 0, 1, 30, 34, 35, 40, 41, 60, 61, 85, 86
b. 29, 30, 34, 35, 39, 40, 59, 60, 84, 85
c. 30, 31, 35, 36, 40, 41, 60, 61, 85, 86
d. 29, 30, 31, 34, 35, 36, 39, 40, 41, 59, 60, 61, 84, 85, 86
Question 33
A suite of tests has been run and some changes have been made to the relevant modules that have affected the priority of the tests.
The original priorities were as follows:
|
Test case |
Priority |
|
1 |
H |
|
2 |
M |
|
3 |
H |
|
4 |
L |
|
5 |
L |
|
6 |
H |
After the initial tests some remedial work was done, and this work has changed the dependencies between the test cases as follows:
Test case 3 is now dependent on test case 5
Test case 2 is now dependent on test case 3
What should be the sequence of tests in the test execution schedule?
a. 1, 3, 6, 2, 4, 5
b. 1, 6, 5, 3, 2, 4
c. 1, 5, 3, 2, 6, 4
d. 1, 6, 3, 2, 5, 4
Question 34
Which of the statements about the state transition diagram and table of test cases is true?
a. The given test cases cover all valid transitions and at least one invalid transition in the state transition diagram.
b. The given test cases test all valid transitions but not invalid transitions in the state transition diagram.
c. The given test cases test only some of the valid transitions in the state transition diagram.
d. The given test cases represent only some of the valid transitions and all invalid transitions in the state transition diagram.
A defect report has been raised for a system that separates apples from a conveyor belt into different sizes and diverts them to appropriate belts. The test found that the system correctly channelled apples below a certain size but failed to detect larger apples and divert them to their own belt.
The dated defect report has a title and provides a short summary of the defect, the degree of risk involved and the severity allocated to the defect. It identifies the test script that was run and the expected result of the test, which was that apples above 10 cm in diameter should be diverted to belt 4.
Which of the following information, if any, is the most important omission from this defect report?
a. Recommendations.
b. Actual result.
c. Priority to fix.
d. Author.
Question 36
Requirements for a new supermarket checkout system are being reviewed by a team made up from checkout staff, developers, testers, technical support and management.
The requirements document provides detailed explanations of scenarios involving common problem situations, such as missing bar codes, unreadable labels, damaged goods and customers who find they have insufficient funds to pay the final bill.
It is important that the system meets all the needs of all the key stakeholders.
Which of the following review techniques is the best one to select to ensure that the right outcomes are achieved?
a. Checklist-based.
b. Scenarios and dry runs.
c. Ad hoc.
d. Perspective-based.
Question 37
Which of the following best describes the purpose of impact analysis for maintenance testing?
a. To determine if the test cases are out of date.
b. To determine if the current system should be changed.
c. To identify areas of code where maintainability might be an issue.
d. To identify areas of the testing process that could be improved.
Which of the following do you want to find in the mindset of a tester?
i. Professional pessimism.
ii. Attention to detail.
iii. Assuming nothing will go wrong.
iv. The confirmation bias.
v. Ability to design solutions.
a. i and iii.
b. iv and v.
c. iii and iv.
d. i and ii.
Question 39
A vehicle insurance policy is subject to certain surcharges on the standard premium, added as percentages of the standard premium under certain conditions. The conditions are cumulative, so each condition that is met affects the premium.
Penalty points are applied for specific infringements of driving regulations and each offence can attract up to 3 penalty points. If a driver infringes more than one aspect of the driving regulations, only the highest penalty is applied.
The following decision table has been designed to test the logic for determining insurance premiums.
Which test case must be eliminated because it is infeasible?
a. T1
b. T4
c. T5
d. T6
Which of the following statements correctly describes the defect clustering testing principle?
a. Testing should be targeted at the most junior developer’s code. This is where most defects will occur.
b. If no defects are found in the first 25 per cent of the time available, the code can be deemed safe to deliver to production.
c. Testing effort is to be targeted at what is thought to be the riskiest areas, and later those areas where there are more defects found.
d. Finding and fixing defects does not help if the system built is unstable and does not match user needs/expectations.