Chapter 1: Core Hardware Components

1. A, B, E. RAM is memory, which is a temporary data storage area. SSD is a hard drive technology for data storage, and BD-ROM discs store data as well. PCI is an expansion slot type, and PSU is a power supply unit.
2. B. A network interface card (NIC) lets your computer participate on a network, either wired or wireless. Modems require telephone lines. PSU is a power supply unit and PCIe is an expansion slot type.
3. C. PCIe is the fastest expansion slot standard in the market today. PCI is much older and slower. Of the PCIe slots, PCIe x16 is the fastest. There is no PCIe x64 (not yet anyway).
4. D. Blu-ray discs (BD-ROM) store 25 GB per side per layer. That's far more than DVDs or CDs.
5. B. The chipset on the motherboard controls communications between the processor (CPU) and memory (RAM). The motherboard itself just provides connectivity.
6. A. Joe needs to make sure his power supply has a free connector, as well as enough power to supply the drive. Hard drives do not use expansion slots. The CPU and RAM are indifferent to how many hard drives a computer has.
7. B. Many sound cards had 15-pin joystick ports on them, as well as audio input and output jacks.
8. C. A solid-state drive (SSD) will provide faster bootup times than a conventional hard disk drive (HDD). Neither RAM nor CPUs provide storage space.
9. D. Virtual memory is hard drive space used as extra memory, if your system runs low on physical memory. It's slower than physical memory, though.
10. A, B. Parallel ATA (PATA) and Serial ATA (SATA) are two hard drive connection types. PCIe and AGP are expansion slots.
11. A. The BIOS stores configuration information such as time and date but is powered by the CMOS battery when the system is off. If the CMOS battery fails, the system will no longer retain its BIOS configuration.
12. B. Monika will definitely need SODIMMs, which are made for laptops. DIMMs are for desktop computers. SODIMMS come in both DDR2 and DDR3, so without more information you don't know which one she needs.
13. D. The power supply is connected to the motherboard with a 24-pin block connector.
14. A. Cache is temporary memory that is closer to the processor than RAM and is therefore slightly quicker. It usually comes in smaller quantities, though.
15. D. Your neighbor needs RAID 1, also known as disk mirroring. It writes data to both hard drives simultaneously. If one hard drive fails, the other will still be operational.
16. C. If you want to upgrade a BIOS, the best way to do so is to flash it.
17. B. The processor, or CPU, produces the most heat of any internal component. Care must be taken to ensure that the heat is properly dissipated or the processor will fail.
18. B. Dual inline memory modules (DIMMs) use 240-pin connectors. SODIMMS are smaller. SATA and PATA are hard drive connectors that are smaller as well.
19. A, B, C. Solid-state drives (SSDs) are faster, generate less heat, and quieter than conventional HDDs. They are not cheaper per megabyte than HDDs, though.
20. A, B. Network interface cards (NICs) and modems are devices that allow your computer to communicate with other computers and therefore are communications devices.

Chapter 2: Peripherals and Connectors

1. C. Thunderbolt was developed by Apple, in partnership with Intel. eSATA and S-video are industry standards. There is no Mac Video port.
2. C, D. Keyboards can be plugged into either USB or PS/2 ports. Parallel ports were used for printers, and serial ports were used for modems and older mice.
3. B. Twisted-pair network cables are terminated with RJ-45 connectors.
4. A. HDMI is the best video connection standard available today. DVI and component video are older standards. HEMI is not a video connector.
5. A, B, D. Component video is also named RGB, standing for the three colors it uses: red, green, and blue.
6. D. Laser printers use toner, which is an ink-like plastic powder. The toner is held to the paper via weak electrical charges and then melted onto the paper via the printer's fuser.
7. B. A touchpad is a pointing device similar to a mouse. It's located on most laptop keyboards just below the keys.
8. A, E. Network attached storage and smartphones are both input and output devices. Flat screens are output, whereas scanners and webcams are input devices.
9. B. The PS/2 connector is round and used for keyboards and mice. USB is also used for both devices, but it is rectangular.
10. A. The device you are looking for is network attached storage. External hard drives will give you extra storage but do not have built-in fault tolerance such as RAID 1 or RAID 5.
11. C. SuperSpeed is a trade name for USB 3.0, so your friend is talking about USB devices. SSDs are solid state hard drives, and CRTs are monitors. eSATA is an external standard used mostly for hard drives.
12. B. Color inkjet printers use cyan, magenta, yellow, and black ink. Those cartridges are called CMYK.
13. D. A webcam allows you to record or transmit video, which is needed for a video teleconference.
14. A. RJ-11 connectors are used at the ends of phone lines, which are plugged into modems. RJ-45 connectors are used on the ends of twisted-pair network cables.
15. C. Laser printers use a fuser, which heats and melts the toner into the paper.
16. A. CRT monitors used vacuum tubes to show images, which sometimes built up static charges. The Degauss button removed the built-up charges.
17. B, D. Joysticks today typically have USB connections. Older joysticks might have plugged into a game port, which was a 15-pin connector called a DA15.
18. C. DVI connectors are digital in nature, but they are backward-compatible with analog VGA devices.
19. B, C. RJ-45 connectors are at the ends of network cables, so they are a distinct possibility. FireWire can also be used to create a network for Mac OS X or Linux computers.
20. D. Although the answer of “stop typing” might be tempting, it's probably not the best answer if Robert wants to get work done. Disabling the touchpad will keep this problem from happening.

Chapter 3: Operating Systems

1. B. An operating system provides an environment for the software to function but does not coordinate between software applications.
2. D. Linux is the only open-source OS discussed in this book.
3. A. A piece of software written for an OS will work only on that type of OS.
4. C. Chromebooks often have very small hard drives, and they are not used for file storage. By default, all files are stored on Google's cloud.
5. A. When you delete a shortcut, nothing happens to the file the shortcut pointed to. The shortcut is just an easy way to access the file.
6. D. With the FAT and NTFS file systems, you cannot rename a file, or change any of the metadata, while the file is open or in use.
7. A. iPhones come with the iOS operating system.
8. B. Moving a file is analogous to a cut and paste. It takes the file from one folder and places it in another.
9. C. Android versions are currently named after different types of sweets. iOS versions don't have nicknames. OS X was named after big cats and is now named after California locations.
10. D. Chrome OS uses the Windows Switcher key to create a screen capture.
11. C. Linux is a kernel, which is the core of an OS. Linux packages are put together as distributions and marketed as such.
12. A. Accessibility options allow you to configure a computer to be easier for people with disabilities to use.
13. D. When you copy a file, the original file remains intact, and a new version of that file is created elsewhere on the hard drive. The new version is associated with the new folder.
14. A. The answer is it depends on the OS. For example, ext3 allows for 32,000 subdirectories, and ext4 allows for 64,000 subdirectories.
15. A. A Linux-based OS is called a distribution, which is a combination of the kernel, shell, and utilities needed for a fully functional OS.
16. C. File Allocation Table (FAT) does not have built-in security. All of the other OSs listed do.
17. D. Before the hard drive can be used for file storage, it needs at least one partition. Once it's partitioned, you can format the drive, which will install a file system.
18. A. Ctrl+S is usually a hot key to save a file within Word or Excel. It does not open the Start menu.
19. B. Any data or information inside a file is part of the file itself, not the metadata for the file. Metadata is information about the file, such as its name, size, creator, and security.
20. A. Windows 7 uses the Windows NT kernel. Windows 3.11 was created before the NT kernel was. Mac OS X and Chrome OS do not use the NT kernel.

Chapter 4: Software Applications

1. C, D. The .aac and .m4a file formats are designed to replace .mp3. There is no .mp4 format, and .flac is a competing standard.
2. A. If a software product is giving you a limited number of uses, you must activate that software with the manufacturer. This typically requires you to have a software license and a product key.
3. C. Macs use .app files as applications.
4. B. The product key will be required to install or use any licensed software product. The manufacturer will include this on the installation media or email it to you.
5. A. The .iso format is used on optical media, such as CD-ROMs.
6. C. Single-user software licenses typically state that the software can be used on only one computer. John should uninstall it from the second computer unless he purchases a second license.
7. A. The .tiff format produces the best quality images, along with .png.
8. A. Word processing, spreadsheets, and presentation software are three examples of productivity software. Other types are email, PDF viewers, desktop publishing, personal information manager, and remote desktop software.
9. C. Mac OS X disk image files have a .dmg extension.
10. A. Drivers are designed to let the OS talk to hardware. Each piece of hardware must have a driver to work with the operating system.
11. B. The .tar (tape archive) file extension is listed among the compression file formats, but it doesn't actually use compression. All of the others do.
12. B, C. The two most important things to consider are if the software was written to work with that operating system and if the computer has enough hardware to run the application.
13. C. If you're ever missing a driver, go to the manufacturer's website to download it, and then install it.
14. A. Susan can go into the Software app in Control Panel to install or remove OS features, such as games.
15. D. Microsoft Excel will use the .xls or .xlsx file extension. (It uses others too, but not any of the other options listed.)
16. A. For security software such as antivirus protection, you should update the definition file at least once per week. Better yet, set the software to update automatically.
17. B. Batch files, or those with a .bat extension, are used to execute multiple commands at the same time from the Windows command prompt.
18. A, B. Software product keys are typically included on the package in which the installation CD-ROM was shipped. If the software was downloaded, then the manufacturer usually sends the software key via email.
19. D. Microsoft PowerPoint, which creates presentations, uses the .ppt and .pptx extensions.
20. A. If you receive emails with executable files from unknown sources, delete them. Some companies require you to report those types of emails to security or the IT department. In any case, do not open that attachment!

Chapter 5: Networking Technologies and Wireless Routers

1. A, D. For network communications on a TCP/IP network, an IP address and a subnet mask are required. If you want to communicate outside your network, a default gateway is also required. DHCP servers automatically assign clients IP configuration information.
2. A. Wired networks can provide the highest data throughput rates of any of the connection types.
3. C. Network Address Translation (NAT) is a service run on a router that translates private IP addresses into a public IP address, so you can get on the Internet.
4. D. Wireless routers will have a reset button on their bottom or back. Press and hold the button for about 30 seconds and the router will reset to factory specifications. If you never changed the password, then using admin would work, but I am hoping you changed the password!
5. B. The DHCP server automatically configures clients with TCP/IP information. If the server is not able to provide information, your computer will automatically configure itself with an APIPA address, which starts with 169.254.
6. C. The network password for clients to use is Tx$pr4y2.
7. D. Wired connections are more secure than wireless ones, and the only wired connection listed is UTP.
8. A. Addresses that are in the 192.168.x.x range are private IP addresses, as are those in the 10.x.x.x range and the 172.16.x.x–172.31.x.x range.
9. C. WPA2 is the most secure wireless security protocol in use today.
10. A. Cellular networks give you the best mobility, with a range of up to several miles. Even then, unless you go out of the range of a tower completely, you will be handed over to the next cell tower.
11. B. The 802.11ac standard is the fastest one available on the market today. In this list, 802.11n is the next fastest, followed by 802.11g and then 802.11a.
12. A, B. Cable Internet and DSL are the two fastest broadband options listed. Both satellite and cellular are slower.
13. D. Cellular has the longest delay, because the signal needs to travel the farthest distance.
14. B. Wired connections in general are faster than wireless ones, and fiber-optic cable can provide much faster speeds than copper cable can.
15. D. If you are in a remote location, it's very possible that satellite is the only option that will work for you.
16. B, D. Two additional security options are disabling SSID broadcasts and using MAC filtering. Neither is a true security method that will keep determined hackers off your network, but they will keep casual attackers at bay.
17. A. The ifconfig command is used on Macs and in Linux and UNIX to show your IP address and other TCP/IP configuration information.
18. A. The Service Set Identifier (SSID) is the wireless network name.
19. B, C. You should always change the SSID and the administrator password on a wireless router.
20. B. The guest network password for clients to use is tpg$2015.

Chapter 6: Network Sharing and Storage

1. D. A client-server network is one where servers control security for the network, as well as provide resource sharing and management.
2. B, D. To join a homegroup, the computer must be running Windows 7 or newer. The person who wants to join must also know the password to the homegroup.
3. A. A small network in one geographical location is a local area network (LAN). It could be either peer-to-peer or client-server depending on how you set it up.
4. B. Since all client computers are running Windows 7, you can create a homegroup. A homegroup requires a password to join, and you are able to share files across the network without requiring the users to have individual accounts on all computers.
5. C. Bluetooth devices create personal area networks (PANs) called piconets. Multiple piconets can be connected to form a scatternet.
6. B. Mary should have Modify privileges. If you give her full control, she can take ownership and grant others access. Read will not let her make changes. There is no Edit share permission.
7. D. In this situation, all users will need user accounts on all computers. Five users on five computers means 25 total user accounts.
8. D. If the printer is attached to Martha's local computer, then her system needs to be operational for others to use her printer.
9. D. Client-server networks are also called domains. A server (or multiple servers) manages security and is often called a domain controller.
10. A. Google Drive and Google Docs are examples of Software as a Service, or SaaS.
11. B. Direct attached storage (DAS) is the best choice here for quick and cheap storage. DAS can be as simple as an external hard drive.
12. B. The Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP), also called the SSH File Transfer Protocol, uses SSH for security. It also uses port 22.
13. A. The proper context to use when mapping a shared drive is \servernamesharename.
14. C. A network drive is a mapped logical drive on your computer, pointing to a shared drive on another computer.
15. A. Network attached storage (NAS) is an external hard drive (or multiple hard drives) complete with its own file management and sharing software.
16. B. Cloud computing uses virtualization, which means that multiple servers can be created on one physical server.
17. A, D. There are two options for directly connecting two PCs to each other. The first is a USB direct link cable. The second is a Cat 5 (or Cat 6) crossover cable. It needs to be a crossover cable so that the signals sent from one end are directed to the receive pins at the receiving end.
18. C. Web servers use HTTP, which uses port 80. That was most likely blocked. HTTPS, which is secure, uses port 443. FTP uses ports 20 and 21.
19. B. Since all computers are running Windows 7 or newer, you can configure them as a homegroup to share resources. Homegroups are easier to configure and share resources within than workgroups.
20. B, C. HTTPS can use either TLS or SSL for encryption of its connection.

Chapter 7: Mobile Devices

1. A. To scroll down, you need to “pull” the page up, so swipe up.
2. B. POP3 uses 110, IMAP uses port 143, and SMTP uses 25. HTTPS uses port 443.
3. D. To zoom in on a map, you use reverse pinch.
4. C. SMTP is used to send email. IMAP and POP3 are receiving protocols. SNMP is a network management protocol.
5. D. The gyroscope detects rotational movement within a mobile device.
6. A. IMAP natively uses port 143. IMAP with SSL uses port 993. POP3 uses ports 110 and 945 with SSL.
7. B. Not all apps support rotation, and Settings is one of them. The app needs to be specifically programmed to support rotation.
8. C. To have two Bluetooth devices communicate with each other, they need to be paired.
9. C. With biometrics enabled, she can use either the passcode or her fingerprint to access a locked device.
10. D. Bluesnarfing is stealing data using a Bluetooth connection. Bluejacking is sending a spam message via Bluetooth.
11. B. The Wi-Fi settings are in the Settings app in Android as well as in iOS.
12. A. The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to send email. It uses port 25. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) is used to retrieve email and uses port 110.
13. D. The proper steps in order are to verify wireless capabilities, turn on Wi-Fi, locate SSID, enter the wireless password, and verify the Internet connection.
14. B, C. For syncing and backing up iPhones (and iPads), you can use iCloud to back up to the Internet or use iTunes to back up to a local computer.
15. A, B. The IMAP and POP3 protocols are used to retrieve email. SMTP is for sending email. SNMP is a network management protocol.
16. D. Airplane mode turns off all wireless connections on your mobile device.
17. B. Odds are that your company uses the same email server for incoming and outgoing messages, so using the same server name as the IMAP server will probably work. IMAP is for receiving email and not for sending.
18. D. The Google Play store has apps for Android devices. iTunes is for iOS devices only. Google Drive is the name of Google's cloud-based storage.
19. C. IMAP uses port 143. SMTP uses 25, and POP3 uses 110. HTTPS uses port 443.
20. A. For games and other apps for an iPad, she should use the iTunes store. It's accessed by tapping the App Store icon on the home page.

Chapter 8: Security Threats

1. E. Hackers may have different motivations, but their activities can include stealing usernames and passwords, modifying website content, disrupting network communications, and analyzing network traffic.
2. C. A retrovirus works by directly attacking antivirus software designed to keep it at bay. If the virus can disable the antivirus software, then it can infect the computer.
3. A, D. Examples of physical security risks include hardware damage and theft, software and license theft, shoulder surfing, and dumpster diving.
4. D. A Trojan horse might look like helpful software but will actually do harm to your computer. An example could be a program that looks like a security scanner but actually installs malware. (Ironic, isn't it?)
5. B. Going through the trash to find confidential information is considered dumpster diving, and it's illegal in most areas. Social engineering means trying to get information out of another person. Phishing is social engineering via email.
6. A. A keylogger is a program that tracks a user's keystrokes and then transmits that information back to the attacker. This can be used to gather usernames and passwords.
7. B, D. Social engineering occurs when attackers ask people for information to help them gain access to sensitive information. Examples of this are shoulder surfing and phishing.
8. B. A worm is a piece of self-replicating malware that can either do damage itself or act as a transport for other malware. If acting as a transport, the malware it carries is its payload.
9. D. Phishing is a form of social engineering where an attacker sends an email asking for personal information to use in an attack. This might also be considered spam, but phishing is more specific here.
10. C. Adware will create pop-ups advertising websites, even when you don't want it to. It's possible it was attached to the search engine that Rose downloaded.
11. C. Shoulder surfing is trying to see private information on someone else's computer. This can include information on the computer screen, but also can be something like trying to see a password.
12. B. This is one case where using a password cracker is legal and helpful. Just don't ever use one on a system where you don't have explicit permission to do so!
13. D. All current end-user operating systems are susceptible to viruses and malware.
14. A. A backdoor is an attempt to avoid normal security mechanisms. A backdoor can be as simple as using the default password if it wasn't changed, or it can be a malware program.
15. C. An armored virus covers itself with protective code, like a suit of armor, to make it harder to detect and eliminate.
16. D. Ransomware is malware that demands money or else something bad will happen to your computer.
17. A. Programs such as Microsoft Excel and Word can be modified (for good purposes) by using small programs called macros. Virus programmers can also use macros for bad purposes too.
18. B. Spam is the receipt of unsolicited emails. It can also refer to repeated messages sent by someone, which serve no purpose other than to annoy.
19. B. A multipartite virus can affect multiple areas of your computer, such as the boot sector on the hard drive and the file system.
20. D. In the UNIX world, root is the name of the all-powerful Administrator account. A rootkit will grant an attacker full control over a computer, much like an administrator would have.

Chapter 9: Security Best Practices

1. A, D. All four answers are device-hardening options. If you are worried about local theft, installing a hardware lock is a must. In addition, if your device does get stolen, encryption will prevent thieves from accessing your files unless they know your username and password.
2. D. A screensaver password will require someone to enter your password to gain access to the computer. File encryption won't help if the attacker has access to the computer as you.
3. B, C. You should disable Bluetooth and Near Field Communications (NFC) to help prevent attacks. Autofill is a browser setting. There is no FFC in this context.
4. A. Secure websites start with HTTPS://. Also tell her to look for the lock symbol nearby.
5. D. The only plausible answer is that someone else had your username and password and logged onto the computer as you.
6. A, B, C. Adware can give you a barrage of pop-ups as well as cause browser and search engine redirection.
7. A. A software firewall protects your computer against malicious network traffic. Antispyware and antivirus software packages are good, but they protect against malicious programs.
8. D. Chrome's version of private browsing is called Incognito. Microsoft's version of private browsing is called InPrivate.
9. A. Disabling the Guest account is a good security measure to reduce the number of entry points a potential attacker could use. You cannot disable the Administrator account, although renaming it is a good idea.
10. C. You should recognize untrusted source warnings and act on them appropriately. Good practices include limiting the use of personally identifiable information (PII), disabling Autofill, and updating plugins, toolbars, and extensions.
11. B. Multifactor authentication increases security by requiring users to use more than one method to authenticate. They need to use two or more items among something they know, something they have, and something they are.
12. D. Rachel is experiencing Autofill, which is a feature in a browser that automatically populates your information in the right fields when you start entering any of the information. It can be convenient, but it can also be a potential security risk.
13. B, D. You should use complex passwords that are still easy for you to remember. Changing default passwords is a good idea, as is not reusing a password on multiple systems or after it has been changed.
14. E. Shoulder surfing, keyloggers, and unsecured wireless networks are all potential security risks associated with public workstations.
15. A, B. Single sign-on can be a convenience for users, but it does introduce potential security risks. It does not require multifactor authentication, and it will work across different operating systems and software platforms.
16. A, C. Strong passwords are long, complex, and use a variety of symbols, numbers, and letters. Passwords should not contain any personally identifiable information (PII), and patterns in passwords make them easier to guess.
17. C. Antivirus software programs protect against worms and Trojan horses. Software firewalls can prevent malicious network traffic but do not recognize viruses or worms.
18. D. It's possible that your friend sent you a very cool executable file. It's also possible that her email has been hijacked and you've just been sent a virus or other malware. Don't click it until you talk to her first and verify that it's legitimate.
19. C, D. Two things you can do are upgrade your browser to the newest version (as well as any plugins, toolbars, and extensions) and configure security zones (if you are using IE). Enabling Autofill and accepting all cookies can increase your security risk.
20. A. Web browser plugins, toolbars, and extensions can add functionality to your web browser. To make sure you maintain the best security possible, ensure that they are updated to their most current versions.

Chapter 10: Buying and Configuring a Workstation

1. A. The first thing to determine is what the computer will be used for. Then, you can move on to determine what OS is needed, what type of system they should get, and the budget.
2. D. If the image is distorted, it's most likely due to an aspect ratio that is not correct for the monitor. For example, if you selected a standard resolution for a widescreen monitor, the image would be distorted.
3. D. Macs tend to be a little more expensive than comparable PC counterparts; therefore the correct answer is OS X.
4. D. After setting up and verifying the Internet connection, the next step is to install additional software (if applicable). If the user does not have any additional software to install, then proceed to updating security and other software.
5. A, C. The weight, battery life, and screen size are all important factors that are more relevant to laptops than they are to desktops. Having a car adapter is nice, but it is an accessory that can be purchased separately.
6. A. You probably chose a resolution that is not supported by the monitor, and it can't display it. If you wait for 15 seconds, the system will revert to the previous setting, which you should be able to see. Then choose a different resolution.
7. B, D. Android and iOS dominate the mobile market, including smartphones and tablet computers.
8. B. Widescreen monitors use 16:10 aspect ratios. High definition televisions use 16:9, and standard VGA monitors use 4:3.
9. D. The biggest advantage for Joe is that he can choose his own hardware. He can get the processor, memory, video card, and other hardware he wants without being constrained by preconfigured choices from manufacturers. He will have to buy his own OS, but this is not a major factor. Tech support will be free because he will provide it himself!
10. C. Localization settings are chosen during the initial setup wizard but can easily be changed in Windows Control Panel.
11. A, C. Graphic design workstations should have better processors, memory, and video systems than standard workstations.
12. D. The last step in the workstation setup process is to perform basic cable management tasks, such as moving them out of the way and securing them.
13. A. Home theater systems need upgraded audio and video systems. Therefore, an upgraded GPU (video card) will help the system deliver the quality that's expected.
14. C. The best time to install and configure peripherals is after installing the security software.
15. C, D. Audio/video editing workstations need superior audio and video performance. An enhanced video card with its own GPU is needed. The workstation will also need a large amount of hard drive space for storage of large files.
16. D. After configuring the Internet connection, verify that it works! The next step in the process after configuring and verifying the Internet connection is to install additional software, if applicable.
17. C. The first step in setting up a workstation is to plug in the cables.
18. B. Per the exam objectives, uninstalling unneeded software should occur after plugging in cables, powering on the computer, setting up the OS, installing security software, and configuring peripherals.
19. A. After completing the OS setup wizard, the next step is to install security software. Remember that the security software is the second most important piece of software on the computer, so it should be taken care of immediately after the OS setup.
20. C. Applications can't be deleted during the initial OS setup wizard. Deleting the icons does not properly uninstall programs, and you might still get reminders. Control Panel is the best option to remove software applications.

Chapter 11: Computer Support and Backups

1. B, C. To identify the problem, you can talk to users, gather information, and isolate the issue. Using external resources such as the Internet is part of the process to establish a theory of probable cause.
2. D. If the hard drive is not detected, or if a specific folder needed to load Mac OS X is not detected, the Mac will display a flashing question mark.
3. B. Always test the simple stuff first. Assuming user error is not a good way to endear yourself to your clients.
4. D. Whenever setting up a new backup system or making a change to an existing backup solution, verify that the backup works. Once you have done that, then you can perform other tasks.
5. A. The solution might have worked, and it might not have. Based on if it appeared to or not, you should establish a further plan of action. If it worked, you can move on to verifying full functionality. If not, you may need to go back to trying additional solutions.
6. B. The System Configuration utility, or MSCONFIG, allows users to see which applications are loading at the startup of Windows. If too many programs load on startup, it will slow down the boot process.
7. D. Older applications might not work with current operating systems unless you use compatibility mode.
8. A. The Windows Recovery Environment is a feature of Windows Vista and newer setup programs that lets you repair an installation of Windows when booting to the installation CD. All of the other options require the OS to load before using them.
9. B. The last step in the troubleshooting process, and one that is often overlooked, is to document the work. (Cleaning up is important to do if you made a mess, but it's not specifically a step in the troubleshooting process.)
10. C. Local backup solutions will always be faster than network storage or cloud-based solutions. This is because the transfer rate to a local hard disk or optical disc is faster than network connections.
11. A. A normal (or full) backup will back up all selected files and then clear the archive bit. An incremental backup will clear the archive bit as well, but it will not back up files that have not been changed since the last backup.
12. B. Always check the manufacturer's website first. Since it's hardware, check that manufacturer and not the OS manufacturer.
13. C. Incremental backups will back up only the files that have changed since the last backup. They are the quickest backups to make.
14. B. STOP errors, also known as the Blue Screen of Death (BSOD), are generated by Windows. The faulty memory module may have caused the error, but Windows generated the message.
15. D. The most likely cause of intermittent hard locks like this is an overheating system. Power the system down, give it a chance to cool off, and then inspect for damage or excessive dust in the fans. With the case open, power it back on and ensure that all cooling fans are running.
16. C. A black-screen error usually comes from the BIOS, such as a message indicating that the hard disk is not bootable.
17. C. The most likely culprits of a computer slowdown are the processor and the memory. If he can run fewer applications at once, that might help. Otherwise, he might want to consider a computer upgrade.
18. D. A POST card is a circuit board you insert into an open slot on the motherboard. It displays a two-digit code to tell you where the system is in the booting process. This is useful when nothing is displayed onscreen.
19. A. A system image makes a copy of the entire hard drive, which can be used in the case of a complete system failure. It takes a long time to make and you can't restore individual files from one like you can with a normal backup program.
20. B. The most likely cause is the power supply, since there are no fans spinning. Of course, don't forget to first check that it's plugged in!

Chapter 12: Environmental and Safety Concepts

1. B. The manufacturer of the ink cartridge will have an MSDS on their website.
2. C. Ammonia can ruin the coating on a monitor screen, so it should never be used. Many common glass cleaners contain ammonia, so be careful of them.
3. A. The keyboard and mouse should be approximately level with the user's elbows, so the elbows can be at 90 degrees and there is little to no bend required in the user's wrists. If the desk does not allow for this, then adjustments to the desk or seating arrangement should be made.
4. C. Humans can feel a shock of as little as 3,000 volts. However, computer equipment can be damaged by as little as 300 volts.
5. A. Neck issues can be caused by a monitor being too high or too low, causing the user to strain their neck up or down in order to read it. The top of the screen should be at or slightly below eye level for optimal placement.
6. B. Shocks from static electricity can hurt a bit, but generally they won't kill a person. This is because the amps of an electric shock are low.
7. C. Electromagnetic interference (EMI) can cause loss of data due to crosstalk, which occurs when one electrical signal interferes with another.
8. A. All of the answers (toner cartridge, inkjet cartridges, scanners, and batteries) should be recycled. The only one of the four that is a known carcinogen is laser printer toner.
9. G. All three answers provided are correct. Feet should be flat on the floor or on a footrest. The user should be sitting upright with the hips bent 90 degrees or slightly more. Elbows should be at the sides and at a 90 degree angle. The lower back should have lumbar support from the chair.
10. A, C. CRT monitors and power supplies contain capacitors, which can store energy even after they are powered off and unplugged. Never open either one.
11. C. Computers like it colder than humans do. Below freezing is not good though, because if there is frost, and it's heated by computer components, that can form water, which can cause a short circuit.
12. A. ESD is short for electrostatic discharge, which is static electricity.
13. C. An uninterruptable power supply (UPS) is a device with batteries in it that can power a computer in the event of a power failure.
14. D. Batteries should always be taken to a recycling center to dispose of them properly.
15. B. A good range for humidity for computers is between 40 and 80 percent, but the ideal is around 50 percent.
16. B. There are two ways to remove debris from a keyboard. The first is to blow it out with compressed air. The second is to turn it upside down and shake or tap it.
17. A, B. Antistatic wrist straps and bags are good to use to help reduce the risk of ESD. Antistatic mats to work on computers are useful as well. Shuffling your feet actually increases the risk of ESD.
18. C. Maximizing airflow around a computer is a good thing. You don't want to set the system on the edge of the desk, though, because that introduces a risk of having the computer falling off or getting knocked over.
19. A, B. An uninterruptable power supply (UPS) and surge protector can protect your computer equipment versus power surges. Power strips can accommodate multiple components but do nothing to protect against surges.
20. B. The Restriction of Hazardous Substances (RoHS) Directive, which took effect in 2006, restricts the use of lead, mercury, cadmium, hexavalent chromium, polybrominated biphenyls, and polybrominated diphenyl ether in the manufacture of various types of electronic equipment.