Chapter 13
Practice Exam 1
This sample test features nine subtests, just like the ASVAB. As you may have guessed, the sample tests in this book are paper-based tests. (Yes, I’m a master of the obvious.) When you take the actual ASVAB, it may be a paper-based or computer-based exam. The computer version has the same subtests as the paper version, but it follows a different time format and has a different number of questions.
Another difference with the computer-based test is that you can’t skip a question and go back to it, and you can’t change an answer after you enter it into the computer. Check out the computer-based test in greater detail in Chapter 3.
To get the most out of this sample test, take it under the same conditions as the real ASVAB:
- Allow yourself about 3 hours to take the entire exam, and take the whole thing at one time.
- Find a quiet place where you won’t be interrupted.
- Bring a timer that you can set for various lengths of time, some scratch paper (you get two pieces during the exam, but you can get more; just ask for it as needed), and a pencil.
- At the start of each subtest, set your timer for the specified period of time. Don’t go on to the next section until the timer has gone off, and don’t go back to a previous section. If you finish early, check your work for that section only.
- Use the answer sheet that’s provided.
- Don’t take a break during any subtest. You can take a short one- or two-minute break between subtests if you need it.
After you complete the entire sample test, check your answers against the answers and explanations in Chapter 14.
Your primary goal with this sample test is to determine your strengths and weaknesses. If you miss only one question on the Word Knowledge subtest but you miss 15 on Arithmetic Reasoning, you know where to spend your study time. If you’re not going to pursue a career that requires a score on a particular subtest or the type of knowledge a subtest covers, don’t worry about your score there. (See Appendix A for information on the subtests that various careers require good scores on.)
Answer Sheet for Practice Exam 1
Subtest 1: General Science
1. Which planet is named after the Greek god who personified the sky?
(A) Earth
(B) Mars
(C) Pluto
(D) Uranus
2. An animal that eats only meat is called a(n)
(A) omnivore.
(B) herbivore.
(C) carnivore.
(D) voracious.
3. The chemical process in which electrons are removed from a molecule is called
(A) respiration.
(B) recreation.
(C) oxidation.
(D) metabolism.
4. What is a single unit of quanta called?
(A) quantum
(B) quantumonium
(C) quantus
(D) quanfactorial
5. Light waves travel at a rate of about
(A) 186,000 miles per hour.
(B) 186,000 miles per minute.
(C) 18,600 miles per hour.
(D) 186,000 miles per second.
6. The largest planet in the solar system is
(A) Earth.
(B) Mars.
(C) Saturn.
(D) Jupiter.
7. The intestines are part of the
(A) circulatory system.
(B) nervous system.
(C) respiratory system.
(D) digestive system.
8. Joints that hold bones firmly together are called
(A) hinge joints.
(B) ball and socket joints.
(C) fixed joints.
(D) pivot joints.
9. Of the levels listed, the top or broadest level of the classification system for living organisms is called the
(A) class.
(B) phylum.
(C) kingdom.
(D) genus.
10. Which planet is the brightest object in the sky, aside from the sun and moon?
(A) Saturn
(B) Pluto
(C) Venus
(D) Mercury
11. The human heart includes
(A) 2 chambers.
(B) 3 chambers.
(C) 4 chambers.
(D) 5 chambers.
12. White blood cells
(A) produce antibodies.
(B) fight infections.
(C) carry oxygen and carbon dioxide.
(D) both A and B.
13. A measureable amount of protein can be found in all of the following foods EXCEPT
(A) eggs.
(B) meat.
(C) peas.
(D) apples.
14. What is the most abundant element, by mass, in the Earth’s crust?
(A) carbon
(B) oxygen
(C) gold
(D) salt
15. Osmosis is
(A) diffusion of water.
(B) transfer of oxygen.
(C) low blood sugar.
(D) protein.
16. A meter consists of
(A) 10 centimeters.
(B) 100 millimeters.
(C) 100 centimeters.
(D) 10 millimeters.
17. One light-year is
(A) the distance traveled by light in one year.
(B) the brightness of light at 30,000 miles.
(C) 17 standard Earth years.
(D) Spock’s birthday.
18. Electrons are particles that are
(A) positively charged.
(B) neutral.
(C) able to move freely.
(D) negatively charged.
19. The asteroid belt is located
(A) around Mercury.
(B) between Mars and Jupiter.
(C) inside the orbit of Venus.
(D) There is no such thing as an asteroid belt.
20. The atomic number of an atom is determined by
(A) the size of its nucleus.
(B) the number of protons.
(C) the number of electrons.
(D) its location in the periodic table.
21. The “control center” of a cell is called the
(A) nucleus.
(B) compound.
(C) mitochondria.
(D) atom.
22. How many planets in the solar system have rings?
(A) one
(B) two
(C) three
(D) four
23. The temperature at which a substance’s solid and liquid states exist in equilibrium is its
(A) melting point.
(B) boiling point.
(C) anti-freezing point.
(D) concentration point.
24. The atmosphere of Mars is composed mostly of
(A) oxygen.
(B) carbon dioxide.
(C) helium.
(D) Mars has no atmosphere.
25. Not counting the sun, the closest star to the Earth is
(A) Rigel.
(B) Proxima Centauri.
(C) Antares.
(D) Betelgeuse.
Subtest 2: Arithmetic Reasoning
1. If a car is towed 12 miles to the repair shop and the tow charge is $3.50 per mile, how much does the tow cost?
(A) $12.00
(B) $3.50
(C) $42.00
(D) $100.00
2. The sum of two numbers is 70. One number is 8 more than the other. What’s the smaller number?
(A) 31
(B) 33
(C) 35
(D) 36
3. A sales manager buys antacid in bottles by the gross. If he goes through 3 bottles of antacid every day, how long will the gross last?
(A) 144 days
(B) 3 days
(C) 20 days
(D) 48 days
4. Jenny’s test grades are 93, 89, 96, and 98. If she wishes to raise her average to 95, what does she need to score on her next test?
(A) 100
(B) 99
(C) 97
(D) 95
5. A waitress earns an average tip of 12% of the cost of the food she serves. If she serves $375 worth of food in one evening, how much money in tips will she earn on average?
(A) $37
(B) $45
(C) $42
(D) $420
6. How many square feet of carpeting are needed to carpet a 12-foot-x-12-foot room?
(A) 24
(B) 120
(C) 48
(D) 144
7. Carpet stain protector costs $0.65 per square yard to apply. How much will it cost to apply the protector to a 16-foot-x-18-foot carpet?
(A) $187.20
(B) $62.40
(C) $20.80
(D) $96.00
8. A printing plant that produces baseball cards has a monthly overhead of $6,000. It costs 18 cents to print each card, and the cards sell for 30 cents each. How many cards must the printing plant sell each month in order to make a profit?
(A) 30,000
(B) 40,000
(C) 50,000
(D) 60,000
9. Joe received an hourly wage of $8.15. His boss gave him a 7% raise. How much does Joe make per hour now?
(A) $0.57
(B) $8.90
(C) $8.72
(D) $13.85
10. Alice leaves her house, driving east at 45 miles per hour (mph). Thirty minutes later, her husband Dave notices she forgot her cellphone and sets off after her. How fast must Dave travel in order to catch up with Alice 3 hours after he leaves?
(A) 49 mph
(B) 50.5 mph
(C) 52.5 mph
(D) 54 mph
11. A baker made 20 pies. A Boy Scout troop buys one-fourth of his pies, a preschool teacher buys one-third of his pies, and a caterer buys one-sixth of his pies. How many pies does the baker have left?
(A) 
(B) 15
(C) 12
(D) 5
12. Miriam bought five cases of motor oil on sale. A case of motor oil normally costs $24.00, but she was able to purchase the oil for $22.50 a case. How much money did Miriam save on her entire purchase?
(A) $7.50
(B) $1.50
(C) $8.00
(D) $22.50
13. A security guard walks the equivalent of six city blocks when he makes a circuit around the building. If he walks at a pace of eight city blocks every 30 minutes, how long will it take him to complete a circuit around the building, assuming he doesn’t run into any thieves?
(A) 20.00 minutes
(B) 3.75 minutes
(C) 22.50 minutes
(D) 7.5 minutes
14. The population of Grand Island, Nebraska, grew by 600,000 people between 1995 and 2005, one-fifth more than the town council predicted. The town council originally predicted the city’s population would grow by
(A) 400,000
(B) 500,000
(C) 300,000
(D) 100,000
15. Joan is taking an admissions examination. If she has to get at least 40 of the 60 questions right to pass, what percent of the questions does she need to answer correctly?
(A) 30%
(B) 40%
(C) 
(D) 
16. A teacher deposits $3,000 in a retirement fund. If she doesn’t add any more money to the fund, which earns an annual interest rate of 6%, how much money will she have in 1 year?
(A) $180
(B) $3,006
(C) $3,180
(D) $6,000
17. The high school track measures one-quarter of a mile around. How many laps would you have to run in order to run three and a half miles?
(A) 12
(B) 14
(C) 16
(D) 18
18. Karl is driving in Austria, where the speed limit is posted in kilometers per hour. The car’s speedometer shows that he’s traveling at a rate of 75 kilometers per hour. Karl knows that a kilometer is about 
of a mile. Approximately how many miles per hour is Karl traveling?
(A) 47
(B) 120
(C) 50
(D) 53
19. A carpenter earns $12.30 an hour for a 40-hour week. His overtime pay is 
times his base pay. If he puts in a 46-hour week, how much is his weekly pay?
(A) $602.70
(B) $492.00
(C) $565.80
(D) $110.70
20. An office building has 30 employees and provides 42 square feet of work space per employee. If five more employees are hired, how much less work space will each employee have?
(A) 6 square feet
(B) 7 square feet
(C) 7.5 square feet
(D) 36 square feet
21. Stan bought a monster truck for $2,000 down and payments of $450 a month for five years. What’s the total cost of the monster truck?
(A) $4,250
(B) $29,000
(C) $27,000
(D) $34,400
22. Darla spent $120.37 on groceries in January, $108.45 in February, and $114.86 in March. What was the average monthly cost of Darla’s groceries?
(A) $343.68
(B) $110.45
(C) $114.86
(D) $114.56
23. Keith is driving from Reno to Kansas City to meet his girlfriend. The distance between the two cities is 1,650 miles. If Keith can average 50 miles per hour, how many hours will it take him to complete his trip?
(A) 8 hours
(B) 30 hours
(C) 33 hours
(D) 82 hours
24. Michael needs 55 gallons of paint to paint an apartment building. He would like to purchase the paint for the least amount of money possible. Which of the following should he buy?
(A) two 25-gallon buckets at $550 each
(B) eleven 5-gallon buckets at $108 each
(C) six 10-gallon buckets at $215 each
(D) fifty-five 1-gallon buckets at $23 each
25. As a member of FEMA, you’re required to set up a contingency plan to supply meals to residents of a town devastated by a tornado. A breakfast ration weighs 12 ounces, and the lunch and dinner rations weigh 18 ounces each. Assuming a food truck can carry 3 tons and that each resident will receive 3 meals per day, how many residents can you feed from one truck during a 10-day period?
(A) 150 residents
(B) 200 residents
(C) 250 residents
(D) 300 residents
26. A train headed south for Wichita left the station at the same time a train headed north for Des Moines left the same station. The train headed for Wichita traveled at 55 miles per hour. The train headed for Des Moines traveled at 70 miles per hour. How many miles apart are the trains at the end of 3 hours?
(A) 210 miles
(B) 165 miles
(C) 125 miles
(D) 375 miles
27. A carpenter needs to cut four sections, each 3 feet, 8 inches long, from a piece of molding. If the board is only sold by the foot, what’s the shortest length of board she can buy?
(A) 15 feet
(B) 14 feet
(C) 16 feet
(D) 12 feet
28. Kiya had only one coupon for 10% off one frozen turkey breast. The turkey breasts cost $8.50 each, and Kiya wanted to buy two. How much did she pay?
(A) $16.15
(B) $17.00
(C) $15.30
(D) $7.65
29. A recruiter travels 1,100 miles during a 40-hour workweek. If she spends 
of her time traveling, how many hours does she spend traveling?
(A) 22
(B) 
(C) 16
(D) 8
30. Your car uses gasoline at the rate of 21 miles per gallon. If gasoline costs $2.82 per gallon and you drive for 7 hours at a speed of 48 miles per hour, how much will you pay for gasoline for the trip?
(A) $38.18
(B) $45.12
(C) $47.73
(D) $59.27
Subtest 3: Word Knowledge
1. Tim promised to meet us at the apex.
(A) top
(B) bottom
(C) canyon
(D) river
2. Assimilate most nearly means
(A) absorb.
(B) react.
(C) pretend.
(D) lie.
3. Brittle most nearly means
(A) soft.
(B) fragile.
(C) study.
(D) hard.
4. Datum most nearly means
(A) fiscal year date.
(B) congruence.
(C) fact.
(D) positive result.
5. The exchange student was proficient in French, German, and English.
(A) poor
(B) knowledgeable
(C) adept
(D) exacting
6. The judge imposed a severe penalty due to Tom’s actions.
(A) scheduled
(B) made an example of
(C) levied
(D) questioned
7. Mary went to the store and bought peanuts galore.
(A) abundant
(B) salty
(C) on sale
(D) roasted
8. He ran headlong into the fight.
(A) headfirst
(B) reluctantly
(C) happily
(D) recklessly
9. Frugal most nearly means
(A) quiet.
(B) amazing.
(C) delayed.
(D) economical.
10. The word most opposite in meaning to stimulate is
(A) support.
(B) arrest.
(C) travel.
(D) dislike.
11. Licit most nearly means
(A) historical.
(B) lawful.
(C) storied.
(D) willfully.
12. Vacate most nearly means
(A) crawl.
(B) impel.
(C) exhume.
(D) leave.
13. The sergeant gave his reasoned opinion.
(A) irate
(B) logical
(C) impressive
(D) uninformed
14. Tacit most nearly means
(A) loud.
(B) understood.
(C) commendable.
(D) transparent.
15. The brass was not burnished.
(A) yellow
(B) dull
(C) expensive
(D) polished
16. The commodity was sold.
(A) product
(B) stock
(C) idea
(D) table
17. Her motives were contrived.
(A) premeditated
(B) emotional
(C) obscure
(D) amusing
18. Supplicate most nearly means
(A) to make superior.
(B) to be unnecessary.
(C) to beg.
(D) to be expansive.
19. The word most opposite in meaning to hypocrisy is
(A) honesty.
(B) happy.
(C) angry.
(D) threatening.
20. Bob found the peaches to be extremely succulent.
(A) large
(B) tasteless
(C) old
(D) juicy
21. The Army soldiers were ordered to immediate garrison duty.
(A) field
(B) combat
(C) latrine
(D) fort
22. Furtherance most nearly means
(A) advancement.
(B) finance.
(C) practicality.
(D) destruction.
23. Domicile most nearly means
(A) office.
(B) shopping.
(C) home.
(D) vacation.
24. Abrogate most nearly means
(A) recover.
(B) aid.
(C) foreclose.
(D) abolish.
25. Compensation most nearly means
(A) religion.
(B) commission.
(C) boathouse.
(D) shower.
26. He gave a brusque account of the events.
(A) passionate
(B) lengthy
(C) uncensored
(D) abrupt
27. The vote resulted in the demise of the proposed new law.
(A) passage
(B) death
(C) postponement
(D) abatement
28. We commemorated our veterans during the ceremony.
(A) denied
(B) remembered
(C) thanked
(D) took pictures of
29. Bore most nearly means
(A) deepen.
(B) hide.
(C) burrow.
(D) jump.
30. That custom still prevails.
(A) angers
(B) persists
(C) surprises
(D) excites
31. Defray most nearly means
(A) invade.
(B) obstruct.
(C) pay.
(D) reverse.
32. Chasm most nearly means
(A) abyss.
(B) sky.
(C) mountain.
(D) valley.
33. Fundamental most nearly means
(A) radical.
(B) religious.
(C) basic.
(D) excessive.
34. Susceptible most nearly means
(A) travel.
(B) resistant.
(C) limited.
(D) vulnerable.
35. Emblem most nearly means
(A) symbol.
(B) picture.
(C) statue.
(D) religion.
Subtest 4: Paragraph Comprehension
An important stage of personal time management is to take control of appointments. Determined by external obligation, appointments constitute interaction with other people and an agreed-on interface between your activities and those of others. Start with a simple appointment diary. List all appointments, including regular and recurring ones. Now, be ruthless and eliminate the unnecessary. There may be committees where you can’t productively contribute or where a subordinate may be able to participate. Eliminate the waste of your time.
1. Effectively managing your appointments allows you to
(A) spend more time with your subordinates.
(B) delegate responsibility to subordinates.
(C) make more efficient use of your time.
(D) attend only the most important meetings.
The U.S. Congress consists of 100 senators and 435 representatives. Two senators are elected from each state. The number of representatives from each state is based on population, although each state has at least one representative. Senators serve six-year terms, and representatives serve two-year terms.
2. According to this passage,
(A) there are equal numbers of senators and representatives.
(B) the number of representatives from each state is decided by a lottery.
(C) it’s possible for a state to have no representatives.
(D) senators and representatives have different term lengths.
Indo-European languages consist of those languages spoken by most of Europe and in those parts of the world that Europeans have colonized since the 16th century (such as the United States). Indo-European languages are also spoken in India, Iran, parts of western Afghanistan, and in some areas of Asia.
3. The author of this passage would agree that
(A) Indo-European languages are spoken in areas all over the world.
(B) Indo-European languages include all the languages spoken in the world.
(C) only Europeans speak Indo-European languages.
(D) Indo-European language speakers can easily understand one another.
In privatization, the government relies on the private sector to provide a service. However, the government divests itself of the entire process, including all assets. With privatized functions, the government may specify quality, quantity, and timeliness requirements, but it has no control over the operations of the activity. Also, the government may not be the only customer. Whoever the government chooses to provide the services would likely provide the same services to others.
4. This paragraph best supports the statement that
(A) the government must closely supervise privatized functions.
(B) privatized functions consist of a mixture of government employees, military personnel, and private contractors.
(C) privatized functions are those institutions that provide services only to a government agency.
(D) privatized functions provide essential services to the government.
The success or failure of a conference lies largely with its leader. A leader’s zest and enthusiasm must be real, apparent, and contagious. The leader is responsible for getting the ball rolling and making the attendees feel as if the meeting is theirs and its success depends on their participation. A good, thorough introduction helps establish the right climate.
5. A good title to this paragraph would be
(A) “Lead by Example.”
(B) “The Importance of Proper Introductions.”
(C) “Leading a Successful Conference.”
(D) “Conference Participation Basics.”
Cloud seeding is accomplished by dropping particles of dry ice (solid carbon dioxide) from a plane onto super-cooled clouds. This process encourages condensation of water droplets in the clouds, which usually, but not always, results in rain or snow.
6. From this passage, it’s reasonable to assume that
(A) cloud seeding could be used to end a drought.
(B) cloud seeding is prohibitively expensive.
(C) cloud seeding is rarely used.
(D) cloud seeding can be accomplished by using regular ice.
To write or not to write — that is the question. If assigned a writing task, there’s no option. However, if someone is looking for a specific answer, find out if they need a short answer or a detailed one. Can the requirement be met with a telephone call, e-mail, or short note, or is something more necessary? A former CEO of a major corporation once commented that he had looked at 13,000 pieces of paper in a 5-day period. Think how much easier and more economical it would be if people would use the telephone, send an e-mail, or write a short note.
7. The main point of this passage is that
(A) written records are important because they provide detailed documentation.
(B) more businesspeople should invest time and energy improving their writing skills.
(C) writing may not be the best way to communicate information.
(D) it’s pointless for businesspeople to spend time improving their writing skills.
The transistor, a small, solid-state device that can amplify sound, was invented in 1947. At first, it was too expensive and too difficult to produce to be used in cheap, mass-market products. By 1954, though, these cost and production problems had been overcome, and the first transistor radio was put on the market.
8. According to this passage,
(A) there was no market for transistors before 1954.
(B) when transistors could be produced cheaply and easily, the transistor radio was put on the market.
(C) transistors were invented in 1947 by order of the Department of Defense.
(D) transistors are still expensive to produce.
I returned from the City about three o’clock on that May afternoon pretty well disgusted with life. I had been three months in the Old Country and was fed up with it. If people had told me a year ago that I would’ve been feeling like that I should’ve laughed at them; but there was the fact. The weather made me liverish, the talk of the ordinary Englishman made me sick, I couldn’t get enough exercise, and the amusements of London seemed as flat as soda water that had been standing in the sun.
9. The author is speaking of his travels in
(A) Spain.
(B) Great Britain.
(C) Germany.
(D) Scotland.
Surveys show that the average child under the age of 18 watches four hours of television per day. Although some of the programming may be educational, most isn’t. Spending this much time watching television interferes with a child’s ability to pursue other interests, such as reading, participating in sports, and playing with friends.
10. The author of this passage would agree that
(A) television viewing should be restricted.
(B) parents who let their children watch this much television are neglectful.
(C) reading, participating in sports, playing with friends, and watching television should all be given equal time.
(D) adults over 18 can watch as much television as they want.
Questions 11 and 12 are based on the following passage.
High school and college graduates attempting to find jobs should participate in mock job interviews. These mock interviews help students prepare for the types of questions they’ll be asked, make them more comfortable with common interview formats, and help them critique their performance before facing a real interviewer. Because they’re such a valuable aid, schools should organize mock job interviews for all of their graduating students.
11. The above passage states that mock job interviews
(A) frighten students.
(B) should be offered to the best students.
(C) help prepare students for real job interviews.
(D) should be organized by students.
12. From the above passage, it is reasonable to assume that
(A) mock interviews can increase a student’s confidence when he or she goes into a real job interview.
(B) mock interviews are expensive to organize.
(C) few students are interested in mock interviews.
(D) students don’t need job interview preparation.
Questions 13 through 15 are based on the following passage.
Due process, the guarantee of fairness in the administration of justice, is part of the 5th Amendment to the U.S. Constitution. The 14th Amendment further requires states to abide by due process. After this amendment was enacted, the U.S. Supreme Court struck down many state laws that infringed on the civil rights guaranteed to citizens in the Bill of Rights.
13. According to the above passage, due process
(A) is an outdated concept.
(B) guarantees fairness in the justice system.
(C) never became part of the U.S. Constitution.
(D) is the process by which winning lottery tickets are selected.
14. According to the above passage, it’s reasonable to assume that the 5th Amendment
(A) is about taxes.
(B) guarantees due process in all criminal and civil cases.
(C) guarantees due process in federal law.
(D) should never have become part of the Bill of Rights.
15. The author of the above passage would agree that
(A) without the passage of the 14th Amendment, many laws restricting civil rights would still exist in various states.
(B) the Supreme Court overstepped its jurisdiction when it struck down laws infringing on citizens’ civil rights.
(C) the Supreme Court had every right to strike down state laws before the passage of the 14th Amendment.
(D) the 14th Amendment was opposed by all states.
Subtest 5: Mathematics Knowledge
1. If 
, what’s the value of y in the equation 
?
(A) 14
(B) 16
(C) 18
(D) 20
2. The cube of 5 is
(A) 125
(B) 25
(C) 15
(D) 50
3. 
(A) 22.5
(B) 75.0
(C) 67.5
(D) 675.0
4. The fourth root of 16 is
(A) 4
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 2
5. What’s the equation of a line that passes through points (0, –1) and (2, 3)?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
6. 
(A) 12 feet
(B) 
(C) 10 feet
(D) 
7. 
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
8. 
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
9. 
(A) 45
(B) 150
(C) 1,500
(D) 15
10. Which of the following is a prime number?
(A) 27
(B) 11
(C) 8
(D) 4
11. What’s the mode of the following series of numbers? 4 4 8 8 8 10 10 12 12
(A) 9
(B) 8
(C) 11
(D) 10
12. If 
, then 
(A) 4
(B) 12
(C) 64
(D) 16
13. Solve: 5!
(A) 25
(B) 125
(C) 120
(D) 15
14. 
(A) 30
(B) 300
(C) 150
(D) 3,000
15. If 
, then 
(A) 8
(B) 2xx
(C) 4
(D) 6
16. If 
, then x =
(A) 12
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 6
17. 
(A) 56
(B) 15
(C) 42
(D) 3,136
18. Which of the following fractions is the largest?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
19. If 
, then 
(A) 6
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 
20. If a circle has a radius of 12 feet, what’s its circumference most nearly?
(A) 24 feet
(B) 72 feet
(C) 75 feet
(D) 36 feet
21. An aquarium measures 16 inches long x 8 inches deep x 18 inches high. What’s its volume?
(A) 2,304 cubic inches
(B) 128 cubic inches
(C) 42 cubic inches
(D) 288 cubic inches
22. Triangle ABC is a(n)
© John Wiley & Sons Inc.
(A) right triangle.
(B) obtuse triangle.
(C) equilateral triangle.
(D) isosceles triangle.
23. The sum of the measures of the angles of a trapezoid is
(A) 360 degrees.
(B) 540 degrees.
(C) 180 degrees.
(D) 720 degrees.
24. Angles 1 and 2 are
© John Wiley & Sons Inc.
(A) supplementary.
(B) complementary.
(C) both obtuse.
(D) both right angles.
25. Convert 24% to a fraction.
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
Subtest 6: Electronics Information
1. Ohm’s law states
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
2. A resistor’s first three color bands are brown, black, and red. What is its value?
(A) 1,000 ohms
(B) 500 ohms
(C) 500 volts
(D) 50 volts
3. In the U.S., all metal equipment, electrical or not, connected to a swimming pool must be
(A) freestanding.
(B) bonded together.
(C) certified.
(D) none of the above
4. Voltage can also be expressed as
(A) watts.
(B) amps.
(C) current.
(D) electrical potential difference.
5. Newer cellphones contain a removable memory card, which is often called a
(A) SIM card.
(B) DIM chip.
(C) PIN card.
(D) PIN chip.
6. Made from a variety of materials, such as carbon, this inhibits the flow of current.
(A) resistor
(B) diode
(C) transformer
(D) generator
7. This is a type of semiconductor that only allows current to flow in one direction. It is usually used to rectify AC signals (conversion to DC).
(A) capacitor
(B) inductor
(C) diode
(D) transformer
8. Radar can operate at frequencies as high as
(A) 100,000 Hz.
(B) 100,000 kHz.
(C) 100,000 MHz.
(D) 500,000 MHz.
9. What do AC and DC stand for in the electrical field?
(A) amplified capacity and differential capacity
(B) alternating current and direct current
(C) accelerated climate and deduced climate
(D) none of the above
10. Changing AC to DC is called what?
(A) capacitance.
(B) impedance.
(C) rectification.
(D) induction.
11. A 5,000 BTU air conditioner can efficiently cool up to 150 square feet, or a 10-foot-x-15-foot room. What does BTU stand for?
(A) basic thermal unit
(B) basic temperature unit
(C) British thermal unit
(D) none of the above
12. Which is the most correct definition of current?
(A) the measure of electrical pressure
(B) the amount of electricity used in a heater
(C) the electricity used in heating a kilo of water
(D) the presence of electron flow
13. A device that transforms energy from one form to another is called
(A) a capacitor.
(B) a transducer.
(C) a transformer.
(D) magic.
14. Which one of the following is an active element?
(A) 
resistor
(B) 10 mH inductor
(C) 25 pF capacitor
(D) 10 V power supply
15. A light bulb is 60 watts. Operated at 120 volts, how much current does it draw?
(A) 0.5 amperes
(B) 5.0 amperes
(C) 50.0 amperes
(D) 7,200 amperes
16. A number-12 wire, compared to a number-6 wire,
(A) is longer.
(B) is shorter.
(C) is smaller in diameter.
(D) is larger in diameter.
17. A fuse with a higher-than-required rating used in an electrical circuit
(A) improves safety.
(B) increases maintenance.
(C) may not work properly.
(D) is less expensive.
18. Neutral wire is always
(A) whitish or natural.
(B) black.
(C) green with stripes.
(D) blue.
19. To measure electrical power, you would use a(n)
(A) ammeter.
(B) ohmmeter.
(C) voltmeter.
(D) wattmeter.
20. What will happen if you operate an incandescent light bulb at less than its rated voltage?
(A) The bulb will burn brighter and last longer.
(B) The bulb will burn dimmer and last longer.
(C) The bulb will burn brighter but won’t last as long.
(D) The bulb will burn dimmer but won’t last as long.
Subtest 7: Auto & Shop Information
1. Overheating the engine can cause all of the following problems EXCEPT
(A) burned engine bearings.
(B) enlarged pistons.
(C) melted engine parts.
(D) improved fuel efficiency.
2. The device that converts an automobile’s mechanical energy to electrical energy is called the
(A) converter.
(B) alternator.
(C) battery.
(D) brakes.
3. A primary advantage of the electronic ignition system over conventional ignition systems is that
(A) the electronic ignition system is less expensive to repair.
(B) the electronic ignition system requires a lower voltage to provide a higher voltage for spark.
(C) the electronic ignition system allows for use of a lower octane fuel.
(D) all of the above
4. The primary purpose of piston rings is to
(A) seal the combustion chamber and allow the pistons to move freely.
(B) connect the piston to the crankshaft.
(C) allow fuel to enter the piston cylinder.
(D) provide lubrication to the piston cylinder.
5. The crankshaft typically connects to a
(A) flywheel.
(B) fuel pump.
(C) muffler.
(D) battery.
6. What component allows the left and right wheels to turn at different speeds when cornering?
(A) differential
(B) camshaft
(C) valve rotator
(D) battery
7. If a car’s ignition system, lights, and radio don’t work, the part that’s probably malfunctioned is the
(A) cylinder block.
(B) water pump.
(C) carburetor.
(D) battery.
8. A good tool to cut intricate shapes in wood would be a
(A) ripsaw.
(B) hacksaw.
(C) coping saw.
(D) pocket knife.
9. A two-stroke engine will normally be found on
(A) small cars.
(B) large diesel trucks.
(C) trucks, vans, and some cars.
(D) snowmobiles, chainsaws, and some motorcycles.
10. A belt sander would best be used to
(A) cut wood.
(B) finish wood.
(C) shape wood.
(D) keep your pants up.
11. A car equipped with limited-slip differential
(A) can be readily put into all-wheel (four-wheel) drive.
(B) won’t lock up when the brakes are applied steadily.
(C) transfers the most driving force to the wheel with the greatest amount of traction.
(D) is rated for off-road driving.
12. Big block engines generally have
(A) more than 5.9 L of displacement.
(B) better gas mileage than small block engines.
(C) less than 6 L of displacement.
(D) air conditioning.
13. A good tool for spreading and/or shaping mortar would be a
(A) cement shaper.
(B) hammer.
(C) trowel.
(D) broom.
14. Plumb-bobs are used to
(A) clean pipes.
(B) check vertical reference.
(C) fix the toilet.
(D) carve stones.
15. Rebar is used to
(A) measure the depth of concrete.
(B) reinforce concrete.
(C) stir concrete.
(D) smooth concrete.
16. Annular ring, clout, and spring head are types of
(A) hammers.
(B) saws.
(C) nails.
(D) screwdrivers.
17. A ripsaw cuts
(A) against the grain of the wood.
(B) with the grain of the wood.
(C) most materials, including metal.
(D) only plastic.
18. A cam belt is also known as a
(A) piston.
(B) timing belt.
(C) transmission belt.
(D) lug nut.
19. To check for horizontal trueness, the best tool to use is a
(A) steel tape rule.
(B) plumb bob.
(C) level.
(D) sliding T-bevel.
20. A bucking bar is used to
(A) pull nails.
(B) pry wood apart.
(C) form rivet bucktails.
(D) drive screws.
21. Washers that have teeth all around the circumference to prevent them from slipping are called
(A) shake-proof washers.
(B) jaw washers.
(C) flat washers.
(D) split-lock washers.
22. The tool below measures
© John Wiley & Sons Inc.
(A) an inside curve.
(B) an outside curve.
(C) the depth of a hole.
(D) the thickness of wire.
23. The object below is a type of
© John Wiley & Sons Inc.
(A) nut.
(B) washer.
(C) screw.
(D) bolt.
24. The tool below is used to
© John Wiley & Sons Inc.
(A) finish concrete.
(B) spread joint compound.
(C) smooth wallpaper.
(D) dress wood.
25. The chisel used to cut metal is
© John Wiley & Sons Inc.
(A) No. 1
(B) No. 2
(C) No. 3
(D) No. 4
Subtest 8: Mechanical Comprehension
1. An induction clutch works by
(A) magnetism.
(B) pneumatics.
(C) hydraulics.
(D) friction.
2. If a first-class lever with a resistance arm measuring 2 feet and an effort arm measuring 8 feet are being used, what’s the mechanical advantage?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 1
3. The bottoms of four boxes are shown below. The boxes all have the same volume. If postal regulations state that the sides of a box must meet a minimum height, which box is most likely to be too short to go through the mail?
© John Wiley & Sons Inc.
(A) No. 4
(B) No. 2
(C) No. 1
(D) No. 3
4. Looking at the figure below, when Anvil B lands on the seesaw, Anvil A will
© John Wiley & Sons Inc.
(A) remain stationary.
(B) hit the ground hard.
(C) rise in the air quickly.
(D) enter the stratosphere.
5. Air pressure at sea level is about 15 psi. What’s the amount of force exerted on the top of your head, given a surface area of 24 square inches?
(A) 360 pounds
(B) 625 pounds
(C) 
pound
(D) 180 pounds
6. The force produced when a boxer’s hand hits a heavy bag and “bounces” off it is called
(A) response time.
(B) bounce.
(C) recoil.
(D) gravity.
7. In the figure below, if Gear 1 has 25 teeth and Gear 2 has 15 teeth, how many revolutions does Gear 2 make for every 10 revolutions Gear 1 makes?
© John Wiley & Sons Inc.
(A) about 
(B) 12
(C) about 
more
(D) about 20
8. A cubic foot of water weighs about 62.5 pounds. If an aquarium is 18 feet long, 10 feet deep, and 12 feet wide, what’s the approximate pressure in pounds per square inch (psi) on the bottom of the tank?
(A) 2 psi
(B) 4 psi
(C) 5 psi
(D) 7 psi
9. Springs used in machines are usually made of
(A) plastic.
(B) bronze.
(C) nylon fiber.
(D) steel.
10. A clutch is a type of
(A) universal joint.
(B) coupling.
(C) gear differential.
(D) cam follower.
11. When Cam A completes one revolution, the lever will touch the contact point
© John Wiley & Sons Inc.
(A) once.
(B) never.
(C) four times.
(D) twice.
12. A single block-and-fall is called a
(A) fixed pulley.
(B) gun tackle.
(C) runner.
(D) sheave.
13. In the figure below, if the fulcrum supporting the lever is moved closer to the anvil, the anvil will be
© John Wiley & Sons Inc.
(A) easier to lift and will move higher.
(B) harder to lift but will move higher.
(C) easier to lift but will not move as high.
(D) harder to lift and will not move as high.
14. The mechanical advantage of the block-and-tackle arrangement shown below is
© John Wiley & Sons Inc.
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 1
15. In the figure below, if the cogs move up the track at the same rate of speed, Cog A will
© John Wiley & Sons Inc.
(A) reach the top at the same time as Cog B.
(B) reach the top after Cog B.
(C) reach the top before Cog B.
(D) have greater difficulty staying on track.
16. If a house key, a wooden spoon, a plastic hanger, and a wool jacket are all the same temperature on a cool day, which one feels the coldest?
(A) key
(B) spoon
(C) hanger
(D) jacket
17. In the figure below, assume the valves are all closed. To fill the tank but prevent it from filling entirely, which valves should be open?
© John Wiley & Sons Inc.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2, and 3 only
(C) 1, 2, and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3, and 5 only
18. If Gear A is turned to the left,
© John Wiley & Sons Inc.
(A) Gear B turns to the right and Gear C turns to the left.
(B) Gear B turns to the left and Gear C turns to the left.
(C) Gear B turns to the right and Gear C turns to the right.
(D) Gear B turns to the left and Gear C turns to the right.
19. If Gear 1 moves in a clockwise direction, which other gears also turn clockwise?
© John Wiley & Sons Inc.
(A) 3 and 5
(B) 3, 4, and 5
(C) 2 and 5
(D) 3 and 4
20. The pressure gauge in the figure below shows a reading of
© John Wiley & Sons Inc.
(A) 15.0
(B) 19.5
(C) 21.0
(D) 23.0
21. A way to determine the amount of power being used is to
(A) multiply the amount of work done by the time it takes.
(B) multiply the distance covered by the time it takes to move a load.
(C) divide the amount of work done by 550 pounds per second.
(D) divide the amount of work done by the amount of time it takes.
22. A wood tool, a silver tool, and a steel tool are placed in boiling water for cleaning. Which tool will get hot most quickly?
(A) steel
(B) wood
(C) silver
(D) All three are equally hot.
23. A runner is being used in the figure shown. How much effort is the boy who’s lifting the 50-pound anvil using? Disregard friction, wind resistance, and the weight of the pulley and the rope.
© John Wiley & Sons Inc.
(A) 50-pound effort
(B) 100-pound effort
(C) 25-pound effort
(D) 10-pound effort
24. In the figure below, at what point was the ball traveling most slowly?
© John Wiley & Sons Inc.
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
25. In the figure below, which angle is braced most solidly?
© John Wiley & Sons Inc.
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) All are braced equally solidly.
Subtest 9: Assembling Objects
