Chapter 15
Practice Exam 2
I’ve designed the second practice test so you can see how much you’ve improved. This exam is exactly like the first one from Chapter 13, except (of course) the questions are different. I hope you used the results from the first practice exam to determine your weak areas and spent some time hitting the ol’ books and recharging your thinking cap.
To get the most out of this practice exam, take it like you’d take the real ASVAB under the same conditions:
- Allow yourself about three hours to take the entire exam, and take the whole thing at one time.
- Find a quiet place where you won’t be interrupted.
- Bring a timer that you can set for various lengths of time, some scratch paper, and a pencil.
- At the start of each subtest, set your timer for the specified period of time. Don’t go on to the next section until the timer has gone off, and don’t go back to a previous section. If you finish early, check your work for that section only.
- Use the answer sheet that’s provided.
- You don’t get any breaks in between subtests during the real thing, so try to keep moving along as best as you can.
After you complete the entire sample test, check your answers against the answer explanations and key in Chapter 16.
Answer Sheet for Practice Exam 2
Subtest 1: General Science
1. What is the change in body form that an insect undergoes from birth to maturity?
(A) transformation
(B) metamorphosis
(C) trinity
(D) transmutation
2. An earthquake that measures 4 on the Richter scale would be how many times stronger than an earthquake that measured 2?
(A) 2 times stronger
(B) 4 times stronger
(C) 10 times stronger
(D) 100 times stronger
3. Muscles attach to bone with
(A) nonconnective tissue.
(B) ligaments.
(C) tendons.
(D) rubber bands.
4. The male part of a flower is called
(A) the stamen.
(B) the pistil.
(C) the throttle.
(D) stubborn.
5. Blood leaving the lungs is
(A) hydrogenated.
(B) coagulated.
(C) watery.
(D) oxygenated.
6. Which river is the longest?
(A) Mississippi
(B) Nile
(C) Colorado
(D) Congo
7. The branch of science that studies matter and energy is called
(A) chemistry.
(B) physics.
(C) oceanography.
(D) trigonometry.
8. Which type of cloud’s name comes from the Latin word meaning “rain”?
(A) nimbus
(B) cirrus
(C) strato
(D) alto
9. Deoxyribonucleic acid is better known as
(A) antacid.
(B) carbohydrates.
(C) triglyceride.
(D) DNA.
10. The instrument used to measure wind speed is
(A) barometer.
(B) anemometer.
(C) altimeter.
(D) fanometer.
11. Electric charges can be
(A) positive or negative.
(B) positive or neutral.
(C) negative or neutral.
(D) neutral only.
12. Which planet in the solar system has the most moons?
(A) Neptune
(B) Saturn
(C) Jupiter
(D) Uranus
13. The law of universal gravitation was discovered by
(A) Albert Einstein.
(B) Isaac Newton.
(C) Alexander Graham Bell.
(D) Rod Powers.
14. Which U.S. space program is responsible for putting 12 men on the moon?
(A) Gemini
(B) Titan
(C) Voyager
(D) Apollo
15. Animals that eat both plants and animals are called
(A) herbivores.
(B) carnivores.
(C) omnivores.
(D) ambidextrous.
16. Unlike most other fish, sharks have no
(A) gills.
(B) bones.
(C) liver.
(D) heart.
17. What human organ is responsible for detoxification of red blood cells?
(A) liver
(B) kidneys
(C) intestines
(D) stomach
18. Kinetic energy is the energy that
(A) is produced by sound waves.
(B) an object potentially has.
(C) is possessed by a moving object.
(D) results from the attraction of two magnets.
19. The terrestrial planets consist of
(A) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune.
(B) Pluto and Neptune.
(C) Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars.
(D) any planet.
20. A step-up transformer
(A) increases the voltage in a power line.
(B) decreases the voltage in a power line.
(C) doesn’t affect the voltage in a power line.
(D) measures the voltage in a power line.
21. Which animal has the heaviest brain?
(A) human
(B) elephant
(C) rhinoceros
(D) sperm whale
22. The sun is what type of star?
(A) O type
(B) G type
(C) F type
(D) M type
23. Molecules are created when
(A) matter is created.
(B) matter is destroyed.
(C) atoms combine together.
(D) atoms are separated.
24. An example of an embryonic plant would be a
(A) tree.
(B) rose.
(C) seed.
(D) cabbage.
25. The vernal equinox is
(A) the first day of winter.
(B) near the equator.
(C) the first day of spring.
(D) a lunar eclipse.
Subtest 2: Arithmetic Reasoning
1. If you roll two six-sided dice, what’s the probability of NOT rolling a five on either die?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
2. Jack loaned Bob $1,500 at an annual interest rate of 7%. After one year, how much will Bob owe Jack?
(A) $105
(B) $1,500
(C) $1,605
(D) $1,507
3. A 2-ton truck is taxed at a rate of $0.12 per pound. How much is the total tax bill?
(A) $480
(B) $240
(C) $120
(D) $600
4. If 
and 
, solve for y in the equation 
.
(A) 40
(B) 45
(C) 50
(D) 55
5. A half-pint of cream is what part of a gallon?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
6. The cost of a protein bar increased from $2.50 to $2.80. The percent increase to the $2.80 rate was how much?
(A) 16%
(B) 10%
(C) 15%
(D) 12%
7. An aircraft flies over Boondock Air Force Base at 10:20 a.m. At 10:32 a.m., the aircraft passes over Sea Side Naval Air Station, 120 miles away. How fast is the aircraft traveling?
(A) 400 mph
(B) 500 mph
(C) 600 mph
(D) 700 mph
8. Last year, Margot grew 50 bushels of corn in her backyard. This year, the yield has increased 8%. How many bushels of corn did Margot grow this year?
(A) 56
(B) 52
(C) 60
(D) 54
9. Junior has saved money in his piggy bank over the winter. He wants to buy a $30 computer game. If he has 14 one-dollar bills, 16 half dollars, 12 quarters, 8 dimes, 25 nickels, and 10 pennies, how much more does he need to borrow from Dad to buy the game?
(A) $27.15
(B) $2.85
(C) $2.95
(D) $1.85
10. Debbie receives a weekly salary of $80, plus a 5% commission on any sales. During the week, she has $800 in total sales. What’s the ratio of her commission to her salary?
(A) 2:1
(B) 1:2
(C) 3:1
(D) 1:3
11. How many quart cans can be filled from 25 gallons of paint?
(A) 50
(B) 75
(C) 100
(D) 80
12. If a crew of four people can paint the barn in three days, how long will it take a crew of two people?
(A) 4 days
(B) 
(C) 8 days
(D) 6 days
13. Brian works for five hours and is paid $24. Christina works for three hours and is paid $10.95. How much more per hour does Brian make than Christina?
(A) $1.15
(B) $1.25
(C) $1.35
(D) $1.37
14. Margaret is getting married and must be ready by 11:15 a.m. If it’s now 8:30 a.m., how much time does she have to get ready?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
15. An accounting-firm employee is asked to shred 900 documents. If he can shred documents at a rate of 7 per minute, the number of documents remaining after 
hours of shredding is
(A) 630
(B) 90
(C) 270
(D) 810
16. A home stereo depreciates by 20% each year. What’s the value of a stereo, purchased new for $1,200, after two years?
(A) $768
(B) $693
(C) $827
(D) $654
17. Janet’s old pickup truck can only reach a speed of 45 miles per hour. If she drives at top speed, how long will it take her to reach a city 135 miles away?
(A) 3 hours
(B) 2 hours
(C) 4 hours
(D) 
18. A blouse normally costs $18.50. How much money is saved if the blouse is purchased at a 20% discount?
(A) $1.85
(B) $14.80
(C) $4.50
(D) $3.70
19. A clerk’s weekly salary of $320 is increased to $360. The percent increase is
(A) 
(B) 11%
(C) 
(D) 12%
20. Two go-carts are racing on a circular track with a circumference of 360 feet. Camera One is following Go-Cart One, and Camera Two is following Go-Cart Two. If the angle between the two cameras is 40 degrees, how far apart are the two go-carts?
(A) 30 feet
(B) 40 feet
(C) 50 feet
(D) 60 feet
21. Dinner at a nice restaurant costs $35.98. If Joan gave the cashier $40.00, how much change should she get back?
(A) $5.02
(B) $4.02
(C) $3.92
(D) $1.02
22. A balloonist circumnavigated the globe in 13 days, 12 hours, 16 minutes, and 13 seconds. A plane circumnavigates the globe in 4 days, 10 hours, 15 minutes, and 7 seconds. How much longer did it take for the balloon to go around the world?
(A) 12 days, 7 hours, 11 minutes, and 35 seconds
(B) 9 days, 2 hours, 1 minute, and 6 seconds
(C) 8 days, 14 hours, 16 minutes, and 6 seconds
(D) 9 days, 7 hours, 3 minutes, and 20 seconds
23. Darlene bought 12 boxes of cookies for $48.00. What was the cost of each box of cookies?
(A) $4.00
(B) $0.48
(C) $0.40
(D) $4.80
24. A tune-up increases a car’s fuel efficiency by 5%. If a car averaged 20 miles per gallon before the tune-up, how many miles per gallon will it average after the tune-up?
(A) 25
(B) 22
(C) 
(D) 21
25. A lumberjack wishes to drive a spike through the center of a tree with a circumference of 43.96 feet. What’s the minimum length of the spike needed to go completely through the tree, passing through the center?
(A) 14 feet
(B) 15 feet
(C) 16 feet
(D) 17 feet
26. A bin of hard candy holds 
pounds. How many 
boxes of candy can be filled from the bin?
(A) 30 boxes
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 14 boxes
27. A patio measures 12 feet by 14 feet. How many 8-inch-square paving stones are needed to pave the patio?
(A) 21
(B) 252
(C) 378
(D) 168
28. A computer programmer is making $25,000 per year, and 28% of her salary is withheld for federal and state deductions. How much is the computer programmer’s net pay?
(A) $20,000
(B) $7,000
(C) $18,750
(D) $18,000
29. Pam cuts a pie in half in a straight line. She then cuts a line from the center to the edge, creating a 55-degree angle. What’s the supplement of that angle?
(A) 55 degrees
(B) 125 degrees
(C) 70 degrees
(D) 130 degrees
30. A stack of lumber is 6 feet high. If each piece of lumber is 4 inches thick, how many pieces of lumber are in the stack?
(A) 72
(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 10
Subtest 3: Word Knowledge
1. Abeyance most nearly means
(A) trustworthiness.
(B) passion.
(C) suspension.
(D) business.
2. It was a sturdy table.
(A) well-built
(B) ugly
(C) thick
(D) small
3. Bullock most nearly means
(A) ox.
(B) inattentive.
(C) lazy.
(D) panther.
4. Brevity is the soul of wit.
(A) beauty
(B) intelligence
(C) terseness
(D) humor
5. Paradigm most nearly means
(A) twenty cents.
(B) model.
(C) heaven.
(D) basis.
6. He facilitated her promotion.
(A) hindered
(B) helped
(C) disliked
(D) ignored
7. Quiescence most nearly means
(A) kill.
(B) preserve.
(C) small.
(D) quiet.
8. The spectator enjoyed the game.
(A) competitor
(B) observer
(C) referee
(D) organizer
9. Joy reclined against the far wall.
(A) sat
(B) leaned
(C) jumped
(D) paraded
10. The teacher cited some examples.
(A) memorized
(B) finished
(C) specified
(D) examined
11. Surround most nearly means
(A) line.
(B) benefit.
(C) encircle.
(D) speaker.
12. Illustrious most nearly means
(A) illustrated.
(B) famous.
(C) foolish.
(D) intelligent.
13. Habitant most nearly means
(A) invalid.
(B) nun.
(C) seeker.
(D) dweller.
14. Tim had a penchant for engaging in subterfuge.
(A) religion
(B) evasion
(C) gambling
(D) danger
15. Megan found the new shoes to be ghastly.
(A) hideous
(B) cute
(C) large
(D) comfortable
16. Rigid most nearly means
(A) strong.
(B) weak.
(C) pliable.
(D) inflexible.
17. Billy yearned to join the fraternal organization.
(A) brotherly
(B) large
(C) fun
(D) special
18. Deplore most nearly means
(A) accept.
(B) insult.
(C) regret.
(D) salute.
19. Meager most nearly means
(A) space.
(B) sparse.
(C) brief.
(D) thirsty.
20. Weal most nearly means
(A) happiness.
(B) blow.
(C) scream.
(D) tire.
21. To be guileless, I think your hair looks ugly.
(A) helpful
(B) kind
(C) frank
(D) serious
22. The customs agent confiscated the goods.
(A) bought
(B) noticed
(C) seized
(D) stole
23. Dubious most nearly means
(A) long.
(B) beautiful.
(C) articulate.
(D) doubtful.
24. Illusion most nearly means
(A) mirage.
(B) distant.
(C) sight.
(D) perspective.
25. Becky developed a sudden craving for ice cream.
(A) disgust
(B) passion
(C) hatred
(D) desire
26. Enmity most nearly means
(A) enemy.
(B) hatred.
(C) anger.
(D) childish.
27. Arbor most nearly means
(A) native.
(B) tree.
(C) travel.
(D) delirious.
28. They terminated his contract.
(A) bought
(B) extended
(C) sold
(D) ended
29. Tim always considered Chuck to be a big buffoon.
(A) clown
(B) help
(C) liar
(D) pain
30. Null most nearly means
(A) zero.
(B) dull.
(C) unskilled.
(D) rapid.
31. Tom had to provide proof to the judge that he was not indigent.
(A) guilty
(B) rich
(C) poor
(D) ugly
32. Impertinent most nearly means
(A) fun.
(B) boring.
(C) rude.
(D) impatient.
33. Lustrous most nearly means
(A) expensive.
(B) lazy.
(C) cold.
(D) bright.
34. Pardon most nearly means
(A) courtesy.
(B) excuse.
(C) believe.
(D) respect.
35. Veracious most nearly means
(A) fast.
(B) slow.
(C) equal.
(D) truthful.
Subtest 4: Paragraph Comprehension
Questions 1 and 2 are based on the following passage.
There is not a single town of any size within a distance of forty miles, yet already the rural population of this county is quite large. The whole country, within a wide circuit north, south, east, and west, partakes of the same general character; mountain ridges, half tilled, half wood, screening cultivated valleys, sprinkled with farms and hamlets, among which some pretty stream generally winds its way. The waters in our immediate neighborhood all flow to the southward, though only a few miles to the north of our village, the brooks are found running in an opposite course, this valley lying just within the borders of the dividing ridge. The river itself, though farther south it becomes one of the great streams of the country, cannot boast of much breadth so near its source, and running quietly among the meadows, half screened by the groves and thickets, scarcely shows in the general view.
1. According to this passage,
(A) the author lives in a large city.
(B) the author lives in the country.
(C) the author lives on the seashore.
(D) the author lives on Mars.
2. According to this passage, the brooks are running in which direction within the author’s neighborhood?
(A) north
(B) south
(C) east
(D) west
The Panama Canal is a ship canal that cuts through the Isthmus of Panama, connecting the Atlantic and Pacific oceans. Although several foreign companies tried to build the canal throughout the 19th century, none were successful. After the U.S. helped Panama revolt against Colombia, the U.S. was given rights to the land the canal occupied. The U.S. government finished the canal in 1914.
3. According to this passage,
(A) Panama and Colombia fought a war over the Panama Canal.
(B) the U.S. was given rights to the canal land.
(C) foreign companies built the canal before the U.S. stepped in.
(D) Panama built the canal in 1914.
Extreme care must be exercised to ensure proper handling and cleaning of soiled U.S. flags. A torn flag may be professionally mended, but a badly torn or tattered flag should be destroyed. When the flag is in such a condition that it’s no longer a fitting emblem for display, destroy it in a dignified manner, preferably by burning.
4. According to this passage, torn flags should be
(A) mended.
(B) burned.
(C) destroyed.
(D) all of the above
Medieval guilds were similar to modern-day labor unions. These groups of merchants or craftspeople set rules regarding economic activity in order to protect themselves. Some guilds held considerable economic power, but even small guilds protected members. Guilds also served a social purpose.
5. According to this passage, guilds
(A) had only one purpose.
(B) had little in common with modern labor unions.
(C) exploited workers.
(D) held considerable economic power.
After a series of well-publicized failures by various inventors, Orville and Wilbur Wright succeeded in flying and controlling a heavier-than-air craft on December 17, 1903. The War Department, stung by its investment in a failed effort by Samuel Langley and compounded by the Wright’s own secretiveness, initially rejected the brothers’ overtures toward the government to buy the aircraft. Prevailing sentiments held that the immediate future still belonged to the balloon. In August 1908, the two brothers delivered the first Army aircraft to the U.S. Government. That the U.S. government managed to purchase an airplane was a minor miracle. For more than four years after the Wright brothers’ successful flight at Kitty Hawk, North Carolina, the government refused to accept the fact that man had flown in a heavier-than-air machine.
6. Which of the following statements is NOT supported by the above passage?
(A) The U.S. Government felt that balloons were more practical than airplanes.
(B) The Wright brothers’ own secretiveness contributed to their problems in getting the government interested in their aircraft.
(C) The historic flight took place on the East Coast.
(D) It took more than six years for the Wright brothers to interest the U.S. Government in their airplane.
If anyone should be inclined to overrate the state of our present knowledge of mental life, all that would be needed to force him to assume a modest attitude would be to remind him of the function of memory. No psychologic theory has yet been able to account for the connection between the fundamental phenomena of remembering and forgetting; indeed, even the complete analysis of that which one can actually observe has as yet scarcely been grasped. Today forgetting has perhaps grown more puzzling than remembering, especially since we have learned from the study of dreams and pathologic states that even what for a long time we believed forgotten may suddenly return to consciousness.
7. The primary subject of this paragraph is
(A) bowling.
(B) puzzles.
(C) memory.
(D) government service.
Troy weight is based on a pound of 12 ounces and an ounce of 480 grains. Common, or avoirdupois, weight is based on a pound having 16 ounces and an ounce having 437.5 grains. A common pound has 7,000 grains while a troy pound has 5,760.
8. According to this passage,
(A) in common weight, an ounce is less than 438 grains.
(B) a troy pound and a common pound are the same weight.
(C) common weight and avoirdupois weight are different measures.
(D) a troy ounce equals 437.5 grains.
Good leaders get involved in their subordinates’ careers. People merely obey arbitrary commands and orders, but they respond quickly and usually give extra effort for leaders who genuinely care for them. An often neglected leadership principle in today’s environment of technology and specialization is knowing the workers and showing sincere interest in their problems, career development, and welfare. Leadership is reflected in the degree of efficiency, productivity, morale, and motivation demonstrated by subordinates. Leadership involvement is the key ingredient to maximizing worker performance.
9. A key leadership principle that’s often ignored is
(A) leading by example.
(B) showing sincere interest in the problems of the workers.
(C) ensuring workers have access to the most modern technology.
(D) maximizing worker performance.
Leukemia is a blood disease in which white blood cells in the blood or bone marrow reproduce rapidly, interfering with the body’s ability to produce red blood cells. Red blood cells are needed to perform vital bodily functions.
10. According to this passage,
(A) white blood cells perform no vital function in the body.
(B) no treatment for leukemia exists.
(C) leukemia makes it hard for the body to produce red blood cells.
(D) white blood cells are found only in the blood.
Questions 11 and 12 are based on the following passage.
Any discussion of distinctive military capabilities would be incomplete without looking at their relationship to the Joint Service vision of the future. JV 2020 guides all the Services into the next century with its vision of future war fighting. JV 2020 sets forth four overarching operational concepts: dominant maneuver, precision engagement, focused logistics, and full-dimensional protection. Each of these operational concepts reinforces the others. The aggregate of these four concepts, along with their interaction with information superiority and innovation, allows joint forces to dominate the full range of military operations from humanitarian assistance through peace operations to the highest intensity conflict.
11. According to the passage above, which of the following is NOT an operational concept?
(A) dominant maneuver
(B) focused logistics
(C) high intensity conflict
(D) precision engagement
12. The document discussed in the above passage is primarily about
(A) military operations of the past.
(B) present military operations.
(C) military operations in the future.
(D) training for future military operations.
Questions 13 through 15 are based on the following passage.
Genetics is a branch of science dealing with heredity. The field is concerned with how genes operate and the way genes are transmitted to offspring. Subdivisions in the field include cytogenetics, which is the study of the cellular basis of inheritance; microbial genetics, the study of inheritance in microbes; molecular genetics, the study of the biochemical foundation of inheritance; and human genetics, the study of how people inherit traits that are medically and socially important. Genetic counselors are primarily concerned with human genetics. They advise couples and families on the chances of their offspring having specific genetic defects.
13. In the passage above, cytogenetics is defined as
(A) the study of the psychological impact of genetics.
(B) the study of the cellular foundation of inheritance.
(C) the study of molecular genetics.
(D) the study of human genetics.
14. According to the passage, genetics
(A) concerns how genes operate and how they’re passed along.
(B) is a field of study populated by quacks, fakes, and frauds.
(C) is a field of study only concerned with human genetics.
(D) is a new field of study.
15. According to the passage, it’s reasonable to assume that genetic counseling
(A) is restricted to the very rich.
(B) is used to diagnose diseases.
(C) can be used by parents to learn if their offspring are likely to inherit a disease one of the parents has.
(D) can be used by parents to prevent their offspring from inheriting a specific
Subtest 5: Mathematics Knowledge
1. 
(A) x6
(B) x8
(C) 2x6
(D) 2x8
2. If a rectangle has a perimeter of 36 feet and is 4 feet wide, what’s its area?
(A) 56 square feet
(B) 128 square feet
(C) 112 square feet
(D) 16 square feet
3. The cube root of 64 is
(A) 3
(B) 9
(C) 2
(D) 4
4. Convert 314,000 to scientific notation.
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
5. The reciprocal of 
is
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 6
(D) 
6. If 
, then 
(A) 0.05
(B) 0.5
(C) 50.0
(D) 5.0
7. Factor 
.
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
8. 
. What’s the value of x?
(A) –5
(B) 5
(C) 10
(D) 1
9. Solve for x: 
.
(A) 3
(B) 11
(C) 7
(D) 5
10. If 
and 
and 
what does I equal?
(A) $35
(B) $1,000
(C) $700
(D) $70
11. Solve for x in the equation 
.
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
12. A circle has a radius of 5 inches. What’s its approximate area?
(A) 78.5 inches
(B) 70.0 inches
(C) 314.0 inches
(D) 25.0 inches
13. Solve the following inequality: 
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
14. A tube has a radius of 3 inches and a height of 5 inches. What’s its approximate volume?
(A) 34 cubic inches
(B) 141 cubic inches
(C) 565 cubic inches
(D) 45 cubic inches
15. Triangle ABC (shown below) is a(n)
© John Wiley & Sons Inc.
(A) right triangle.
(B) equilateral triangle.
(C) scalene triangle.
(D) isosceles triangle.
16. The following figure is what type of quadrilateral?
© John Wiley & Sons Inc.
(A) square
(B) rhombus
(C) trapezoid
(D) parallelogram
17. The angle shown below is a(n)
© John Wiley & Sons Inc.
(A) complementary angle.
(B) supplementary angle.
(C) acute angle.
(D) obtuse angle.
18. Solve for x: 
(A) 4, –8
(B) –6, 5
(C) –4, 5
(D) 6, –3
19. A square box has a volume of 64 cubic inches. What’s the perimeter of one of its faces?
(A) 8 inches
(B) 16 inches
(C) 64 inches
(D) 32 inches
20. A cube has a volume of 64 cubic inches. What’s its surface area?
(A) 16 square inches
(B) 64 square inches
(C) 96 square inches
(D) 32 square inches
21. 
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
22. 
(A) 16
(B) 40
(C) 0
(D) 24
23. If 
, then 
(A) 
(B) x
(C) 
(D) a
24. What’s the sum of the integers from 1 to 300?
(A) 38,243
(B) 45,150
(C) 49,923
(D) 52,024
25. 
(A) y7
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 3y2
Subtest 6: Electronics Information
1. What is used to measure current that is going through a circuit?
(A) multimeter
(B) amp gauge
(C) currentometer
(D) tri-gauge
2. Which of the following isn’t a component of a DC motor?
(A) rotor bars
(B) armature
(C) field poles
(D) yoke
3. The television broadcast standard in the United States is
(A) NTSC.
(B) RGB.
(C) SECAM.
(D) RTSC.
4. In a closed electrical circuit,
(A) one terminal is always positive, and one terminal is always negative.
(B) both terminals can be positive.
(C) both terminals can be negative.
(D) terminals are neither positive nor negative.
5. Electrical current is counted in what measurement?
(A) hertz
(B) voltage
(C) amps
(D) ohms
6. The following symbol is a/an
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(A) resistor.
(B) fuse.
(C) capacitor.
(D) inductor.
7. In the United States, what is the specification for an electrical outlet in a bathroom near a sink?
(A) If within 6 feet of a sink, an outlet must have a childproof cover.
(B) If within 2 feet of a sink, an outlet must not be GFCI protected.
(C) If within 6 feet of a sink, an outlet must be GFCI protected.
(D) If within 2 feet of a sink, an outlet must also be within reach of the bathtub.
8. The following symbol is a/an
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(A) lamp.
(B) fuse.
(C) inductor.
(D) bell.
9. When a circuit breaker trips, in what position will you find the operating handle?
(A) on position
(B) off position
(C) halfway between on and off
(D) three-fourths of the way between the on position and the off position
10. Which wire is smallest?
(A) 00 AWG
(B) 4 AWG
(C) 10 AWG
(D) 12 AWG
11. Which of the following is the best conductor of electricity?
(A) plastic
(B) wood
(C) aluminum
(D) copper
12. How many paths of electrical flow can be found in a series circuit?
(A) one
(B) two
(C) two or more
(D) It can’t be determined from the information given.
13. A microwave is rated at 1,200 watts. At 120 volts, how much current does it draw?
(A) 1 amp
(B) 10 amps
(C) 100 amps
(D) 1,440 amps
14. Electricians use the term low potential to refer to
(A) electrical circuits with a low potential for overload.
(B) building codes that reduce the risk of fire.
(C) the likelihood of getting a raise this year.
(D) 600 watts or less.
15. Which of the following isn’t a conductor of electricity?
(A) water
(B) graphite
(C) gold
(D) glass
16. The ground wire is always
(A) green.
(B) black.
(C) whitish.
(D) blue.
17. What does AM mean?
(A) amp metrics
(B) alien mothers
(C) amplitude modulation
(D) annoid matrix
18. Silver is a better conductor than copper. But copper is more often used because of
(A) the cost of silver.
(B) the brittleness of copper.
(C) the low melting point of silver.
(D) the tendency of silver to tarnish.
19. Electronic circuits that produce high frequencies are called
(A) amplifiers.
(B) regulators.
(C) transformers.
(D) oscillators.
20. If you plug an appliance designed for AC into a DC power source, the appliance
(A) will operate normally.
(B) will produce excessive heat.
(C) won’t operate.
(D) will explode into tiny pieces.
Subtest 7: Auto & Shop Information
1. If a car uses too much oil, which of the following parts may be worn?
(A) camshaft
(B) connecting rods
(C) fuel pump
(D) piston rings
2. Clean air filters are important because
(A) dirty filters can cause a decrease in fuel mileage.
(B) they remove pollutants, which can decrease engine performance.
(C) they keep the oil from becoming contaminated.
(D) both A and B
3. The alternator
(A) starts the engine.
(B) supplies regulated power to the battery.
(C) connects the ignition system to the engine.
(D) can be used as an alternative to motor oil.
4. In which automotive system would you find a “wishbone”?
(A) transmission
(B) engine
(C) exhaust
(D) oil pan
5. If the electrolyte solution in a battery is too low, you should add
(A) sulfuric acid.
(B) antifreeze.
(C) distilled water.
(D) gasoline.
6. What area of your car should be flushed periodically to maintain optimum performance?
(A) exhaust system
(B) brake system
(C) cooling system
(D) ignition system
7. The primary purpose of a carburetor is to
(A) maintain engine timing.
(B) regulate oil pressure.
(C) mix fuel and air.
(D) monitor tire pressure.
8. Car restorers often seek NOS parts. What does NOS stand for?
(A) Near Original Specifications
(B) NASCAR Operating Standards
(C) New Old Stock
(D) none of the above
9. To make spark plugs work effectively, the coil and breaker
(A) provide a gap between the electrodes.
(B) ignite the spark.
(C) transfer the electricity to the correct spark plug.
(D) create a very high electrical voltage.
10. Schrader valves can be found in your car’s
(A) tires.
(B) engine.
(C) transmission.
(D) electronic ignition.
11. A bent frame causes
(A) improper tracking.
(B) auto accidents.
(C) poor visibility
(D) excessive rust.
12. In the tire designation 205/55 R 15 92 H, what does the “H” signify?
(A) tread type
(B) tire height
(C) maximum sustained speed
(D) turning radius
13. When the tightness of screws and/or bolts is important, it’s best to use
(A) a screwdriver.
(B) a torque wrench.
(C) tin snips.
(D) a coping saw.
14. Hammer faces are commonly made of each of the following materials EXCEPT
(A) steel.
(B) brass.
(C) plastic.
(D) lead.
15. Hammers, mallets, and sledges are all striking tools, but mallets and sledges don’t have
(A) claws.
(B) metal parts.
(C) as much durability.
(D) heads.
16. Round objects can be measured most exactly using a
(A) rigid steel rule.
(B) folding rule.
(C) set of calipers.
(D) depth gauge.
17. The best chisel to use when making a circular cut in metal is a
(A) cold chisel.
(B) socket chisel.
(C) butt chisel.
(D) round chisel.
18. A pipe wrench is also known as a
(A) strap wrench.
(B) hammer.
(C) plumb-bob.
(D) Stillson wrench.
19. Painting on a surface with too much moisture
(A) causes no problems.
(B) causes bubbling.
(C) requires an extra coat of paint.
(D) takes longer.
20. A tool used to control the location and/or motion of another tool is called a
(A) control tool.
(B) jig.
(C) nail.
(D) static rectifier.
21. An 8-point saw
(A) has 7 teeth per inch.
(B) weighs 8 ounces.
(C) can saw 8 kinds of material.
(D) is 8 inches long.
22. Concrete is made by mixing
(A) cement and sand.
(B) cement, sand, and water.
(C) cement and water.
(D) cement, sand, gravel, and water.
23. Which of the following tools isn’t used to cut metal?
24. The following tool is used to
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(A) cut tile.
(B) cut wire.
(C) turn screws.
(D) cut bolts.
25. The following tool is a(n)
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(A) Phillips screwdriver.
(B) Allen wrench.
(C) socket wrench.
(D) offset screwdriver.
Subtest 8: Mechanical Comprehension
1. A simple pulley gives a mechanical advantage of
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) unknown
2. The baskets are balanced on the arm in the figure below. If cherries are removed from Basket B, then to rebalance the arm,
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(A) the fulcrum will have to be moved to the right.
(B) Basket B will have to be moved to the right.
(C) Basket A will have to be moved to the left.
(D) Basket A will have to be moved to the right.
3. If both Wheel A and Wheel B revolve at the same rate in the figure below, Wheel A will cover a linear distance of 12 feet
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(A) faster than Wheel B.
(B) slower than Wheel B.
(C) in about the same time as Wheel B.
(D) half as quickly as Wheel B.
4. If a force of 200 pounds is exerted over an area of 10 square inches, what’s the psi?
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 200
5. In the following figure, if you move Anvil A toward the middle of the seesaw, Anvil B will
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(A) remain stationary.
(B) move toward the ground.
(C) rise in the air.
(D) lose weight.
6. If a ramp measures 6 feet in length and 3 feet in height, an object weighing 200 pounds requires how much effort to move using the ramp?
(A) 200 pounds
(B) 100 pounds
(C) 50 pounds
(D) 300 pounds
7. A micrometer is used to measure
(A) small changes in temperature.
(B) changes in psi.
(C) thicknesses to a few thousandths of an inch.
(D) objects invisible to the unaided eye.
8. If the weight is removed from Side B of the seesaw, what happens to the weight on Side A?
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(A) The weight will never move from Side B.
(B) The weight on Side A will move up in the air.
(C) The weight on Side A will move toward the ground.
(D) Nothing will happen.
9. The force produced when two objects rub against each other is called
(A) gravity.
(B) recoil.
(C) magnetism.
(D) friction.
10. Normally, atmospheric pressure is approximately
(A) 14.7 psi
(B) 23.2 psi
(C) 7.0 psi
(D) 10.1 psi
11. For Gear A and Gear B to mesh properly in the following figure,
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(A) they must be the same size.
(B) they must turn at different rates.
(C) they must both turn in the same direction.
(D) their teeth must be of equal size.
12. Torsion springs
(A) produce a direct pull.
(B) exert no pull.
(C) produce a twisting action.
(D) coil but do not uncoil.
13. To move a 400-pound crate from the floor of a warehouse to the bed of a truck 4 feet off the ground, the most efficient device to use is a
(A) lever.
(B) inclined plane.
(C) fixed pulley.
(D) jackscrew.
14. Water in an engine can cause damage in winter weather because
(A) it can vaporize.
(B) water expands when it freezes.
(C) ice is heavier than water.
(D) cold water creates more steam than warm water.
15. The weight of the load is being carried on the backs of the two anvils shown in the figure. Which anvil is carrying the most weight?
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(A) Anvil A
(B) Anvil B
(C) Both are carrying an equal amount of weight.
(D) It can’t be determined without more information.
16. When the block-and-tackle arrangement shown in the figure is used to lift a load, all the following parts remain stationary EXCEPT
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(A) the upper hook.
(B) the upper block.
(C) the lower block.
(D) all the parts move.
17. In the following figure, what effort (E) must be applied to lift the anvil?
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(A) 7.0 pounds
(B) 9.0 pounds
(C) 21.0 pounds
(D) 10.5 pounds
18. In the figure below, for each complete revolution the cam makes, how many times will the valve open?
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(A) 1
(B) 6
(C) 3
(D) 2
19. In the following figure, assume the valves are all open. Which valves need to be closed for the tank to fill up completely?
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(A) 3 and 4 only
(B) 3, 4, and 5
(C) 2, 3, and 4
(D) 4 only
20. If Gear A turns left in the figure below, Gear B
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(A) won’t turn.
(B) turns left.
(C) turns right.
(D) It can’t be determined.
21. If Gear 1 makes 10 complete clockwise revolutions per minute in the figure below, then
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(A) Gear 2 makes 10 complete clockwise revolutions per minute.
(B) Gear 2 makes 20 complete counterclockwise revolutions per minute.
(C) Gear 2 makes 5 complete counterclockwise revolutions per minute.
(D) Gear 3 keeps Gear 2 from making any revolutions.
22. For the fuel to travel from Reservoir A to Reservoir B, passing through Filters C and D on the way, which valves must be open?
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(A) 1, 2, 4, and 8
(B) 1, 2, and 3
(C) 6, 7, and 8
(D) 4, 6, and 7
23. A yellow flame on a gas furnace indicates that
(A) everything is fine.
(B) the fuel-air mixture is too rich.
(C) the fuel-air mixture is too lean.
(D) the gas pressure is too low.
24. If a water tank on a toilet keeps overflowing, the problem is probably a
(A) defective float.
(B) clogged pipe.
(C) crimped chain.
(D) improper seal.
25. In the figure below, the board holds the anvil. The board is placed on two identical scales. Each scale reads
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(A) 24
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 40
Subtest 9: Assembling Objects
