Appendix A
Answers to Review Questions

Chapter 1: Project Foundation

  1. B. Ongoing operations are continuous without a specific end date; projects have definite start and end dates.
  2. C. Although all the options appear attractive, a project is not considered successful until it has met the expectations of the project stakeholders.
  3. C. Programs include groups of related projects managed in a coordinated fashion. Each project under a program is managed by its own project manager, who reports to a project manager responsible either for that area of the program or for the entire program.
  4. A. The functional organization type is considered to be the traditional approach to organizing businesses. Functional organizations are centered on specialties, grouped by function, and displayed as a hierarchy.
  5. B. Ensuring efficient use of resources toward a specific business goal is the role of a portfolio manager. Although a PMO may help manage resources across projects, it doesn’t manage resources toward a specific goal but rather manages the objectives of a collective set of projects.
  6. B. Within a projectized organization, project managers have high to ultimate authority, giving them the capability of assigning resources.
  7. A. Integration refers to a Knowledge Area within the PMBOK® Guide, which will be addressed in a future chapter. Because the word closely resembles Initiating, the first process group within the project life cycle, they can easily be confused.
  8. B. Costs are highest during the Executing process group, since this is where the most time and resources are used within a project.
  9. D. This describes the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle, which was originally defined by Walter Shewhart and later modified by Edward Deming.
  10. B. While having a strong knowledge of finance and accounting principles would be beneficial to a project manager, only a basic level of knowledge is required.
  11. C. Within a functional organization, the functional manager has a higher level of authority over the project manager, who has minimal to none.
  12. D. Do not confuse the project life cycle that all projects go through with the process groups that are identified in the PMBOK® Guide. The project life cycle consists of (1) starting the project, or initiating, (2) planning the work, (3) performing the project work, and (4) closing out the project.
  13. A. Business skills listed in this chapter include communication, budgeting, organization, problem solving, negotiation and influencing, leading, and team building skills. Data management skills are a more technical skill set with more of a functional implication than a project management focus.
  14. D. According to the PMBOK® Guide, the Initiating process group contains the following actions: (1) developing the project charter, which formally authorizes the project, and (2) identifying the project stakeholders.
  15. D. According to the PMBOK® Guide, the Closing process group contains the following action: finalizing the project work to formally complete the project or project phase.

Chapter 2: Initiating the Project

  1. B. Identify Stakeholders, Plan Stakeholder Engagement, and Monitor Stakeholder Engagement are all processes of the Project Stakeholder Management Knowledge Area. Other processes of this Knowledge Area include Manage Stakeholder Engagement. Remember that in several instances, the name of a process can provide key clues in regards to the process group and Knowledge Area it belongs to.
  2. D. A feasibility study takes place prior to making a final decision about starting a project and determines the viability of the project or product, the probability of it succeeding, and whether the technology proposed is feasible.
  3. C. When projects are evaluated using the scoring model, the project with the highest overall weighted score is the best choice. Therefore, Project C, which has the highest score at 17, is the correct choice.
  4. B. Multi-objective programming is a mathematical model technique. Mathematical models are also known as constrained optimization methods, making B the correct choice. As a side note, A and C refer to the same method, and D is a type of benefit measurement method.
  5. A. To calculate the present value you would use the following formula:

    PV = FV ÷ (1 + i)n

    PV = $5,525 ÷ (1 + 0.10)4

    After working out the problem, the result is a planned value of $3,773.65.

  6. B. Notice that the question asks for the best choice. Both the product scope description and project charter provide information about the characteristics of the product, service, or result of the project, but the product scope description directly defines these characteristics, making B the best choice.
  7. D. The Develop Project Charter process contains four inputs: business documents, agreements, organizational process assets, and enterprise environmental factors. The project charter (option D) is an output of this process.
  8. D. The project charter isn’t complete until sign-off has been received from the project sponsor, senior management, and key stakeholders. The signatures signify the formal authorization of the project. A project charter cannot be published until after sign-off has been obtained.
  9. C. There are seven inputs to the Identify Stakeholders process: business documents, project documents, project management plan, project charter, agreements, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets. Option C is reflected within the project charter input (B).
  10. A. The stakeholder register is a document that captures all of the details about the identified stakeholders. It typically includes identification information, assessment information, and stakeholder classification. Option A provides the best description from the list of options provided.
  11. A. Polly has just performed the Develop Project Charter process. After the creation of the charter, the project manager is likely to begin the process of identifying stakeholders by performing the Identify Stakeholders process. These two processes both belong to the Initiating process group.
  12. B. Data representation is a technique used within the Identify Stakeholders process. Data representation is typically used to identify the influences stakeholders have in regard to the project and understand their expectations, needs, and desires.
  13. D. The Project Scope Management Knowledge Area includes six processes, which are Plan Scope Management, Collect Requirements, Define Scope, Create WBS, Validate Scope, and Control Scope.
  14. C. While a project manager was assigned, the project has not been formally approved. In order to formalize the project and obtain authorization to utilize resources of the organization, a project charter must first be developed and approved.
  15. D. According to the PMBOK® Guide, project scope identifies the work that needs to be accomplished to deliver a product, service, or result with the specified features and functionality.
  16. A. Project scope is measured against the project management plan, which encompasses the various plans and baselines of the project, including the scope baseline.
  17. B. Stakeholder analysis is used during the Identify Stakeholders process, and consists of two general steps: (1) identify stakeholders and capture general information about them and (2) assess the reaction or responses of the stakeholder to various situations.
  18. D. Life-cycle costing is an economic evaluation technique that determines the total cost of not only the project (temporary costs) but also owning, maintaining, and operating something from an operational standpoint after the project is completed and turned over.
  19. A. The Project Integration Management Knowledge Area is responsible for identifying, defining, combining, unifying, and coordinating the various processes and project management activities across the project management process groups.
  20. C. Develop Project Charter is the first process of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area and is responsible for the creation of the project charter. The project charter formally initiates the project within the organization and gives authorization for resources to be committed to a project.

Chapter 3: Planning Project Scope and Schedule Management

  1. C. The project scope statement is an output of the Define Scope process and is not included as part of the project management plan. The following plans and components are included: scope management plan, requirements management plan, schedule management plan, cost management plan, quality management plan, communications management plan, risk management plan, procurement management plan, resource management plan, schedule baseline, cost baseline, and scope baseline.
  2. A. Option A refers to those participating in a focus group, whereas B refers to interviews, C refers to the Delphi technique, and D refers to facilitated workshops.
  3. B. Sam is currently using product analysis, which is a method for converting the product description and project objectives into deliverables and requirements. To do this, Sam may have used any of the following: value analysis, functional analysis, requirements analysis, systems-engineering techniques, systems analysis, product breakdown, and value-engineering techniques.
  4. D. The WBS contains deliverables that are broken down to the work package level. The work packages are not broken down into the activity level until the Define Activities process, which cannot occur until after the WBS has been created.
  5. A. Finish-to-start is the type of logical relationship most frequently used within precedence diagramming methods and therefore the most likely choice. Option B, start-to-finish, is used the least.
  6. C. Option C is another name for the requirements documentation, which is an output of the Collect Requirements process.
  7. B. Option B is the correct answer for the purpose of collecting requirements. The output of the Collect Requirements process is used as an input for the other options, but the overall goal is to ensure that stakeholder expectations have been met.
  8. A. Option A is the best definition of a project constraint. Option B is the definition of a project assumption. Although there may be situations where option C is true, constraining the ability of the project team in terms of time, money, and scope will almost always impact the project outcomes. Option D is not a good answer because constraints can constantly change over the course of a project and need to be reevaluated.
  9. A. The total float of activity B is 4.

    To calculate total float of activity B, you would first need to perform a forward pass and backward pass. Follow the explanation noted in the chapter, then subtract either the early finish from the late finish of each activity or its early start from late start to calculate total float (both calculations produce the same answer).

    The early finish of activity B is 7, and late finish is 11. When subtracting these two numbers, you end up with a total float of 4.

  10. D. A triangular distribution estimate is calculated by taking the simple average of the optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates provided:

    Triangular distribution = (optimistic + most likely + pessimistic) ÷ 3

    When plugging the numbers into the formula using the values provided, here is the calculation, rounded to the nearest whole number:

    (12 + 23 + 38) ÷ 3 = 24

Chapter 4: Planning Project Cost and Quality Management

  1. B. Philip B. Crosby believed that preventing defects from occurring resulted in lower costs and conformance to requirements and that cost of quality transformed to cost of conformance as opposed to the cost of reworking.
  2. D. Option D is another name for quality metrics, which is an output of the Plan Quality Management process. Although options A and B are not directly listed as a tool and technique of this process, they are part of data representation and data gathering, respectively, which are both formal tools and techniques of the process.
  3. D. Option D is the correct answer for a critical path, which has zero float, meaning that it influences the longest full path on a project.
  4. B. Option B is the correct description for the cost baseline, and it is displayed as an S curve.
  5. C. Option C is the best answer, and the cost of quality includes all the work necessary to meet the product requirements for quality. The three costs associated with cost of quality are prevention, appraisal, and failure costs (also known as cost of poor quality).
  6. C. Option C is not correct for meeting quality requirements as costs are typically lower due to a reduction in rework.
  7. A. To calculate the activity duration estimate using a beta distribution, you would use the following formula: (optimistic + (4 × most likely) + pessimistic) ÷ 6. Using the estimates provided by Ron, plug the estimates into the formula to get the following: (15 + (4 × 20) + 50) ÷ 6 = 24.17, or 24 if rounded to the nearest whole number.
  8. C. The late start of activity C is 6.

    To calculate the late start of activity C, you must first draw out the diagram using the information provided in the table, then perform a forward pass and backward pass. Remember that to perform a forward pass, you must assume 1 as the early start of the first activity, then add the duration of the activity to the early start and subtract one to calculate early finish. To calculate the early start of a successor activity, add one to the early finish of its predecessor that has the highest number. For a refresher, see Chapter 3.

    To perform a backward pass, you do the reverse, starting with the last activity. The late finish of the last activity will be the same as its early finish. Subtract the duration of the activity and add one to calculate the late start. Subtract one from the late start and carry it over as the late finish of its predecessor activities, and repeat. If an activity has multiple predecessors, use the lowest late start number for your calculation.

    The graphic shows the network diagram using the details of the table provided:

    Image described by caption and surrounding text.
  9. B. The early finish of activity D is 8. To calculate the early finish of this activity, follow the explanation provided in this chapter.
  10. C. To calculate the critical path, total the duration of each activity for the three network paths possible, and select the highest number:

    Path A-B-E has a total duration of 8.

    Path A-C-E has a total duration of 12 (this is the longest path in the network diagram).

    Path A-D-E has a total duration of 9.

    Alternatively, if you’ve already calculated the total float for each activity, add the duration of the activities with a total float of 0, which all fall on the critical path.

Chapter 5: Planning Project Resource, Communication, Procurement, Change and Risk Management

  1. A. The formula for calculating communications channels is n multiplied by n – 1, all divided by 2, where n represents the total number of stakeholders within the project. When you plug in the number of stakeholders in Rodrigo’s project, the following formula results:
    numbered Display Equation
  2. C. Option A refers to Plan Risk Management, B refers to Identify Risks, and D refers to Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.
  3. C. Cost-reimbursable contracts carry the highest risk for the buyer because the total cost of the goods or services purchased is uncertain and the seller charges all costs to the buyer with no preset cap. As a side note, options A and B refer to the same type of contract.
  4. A. Option A is the purpose of the communications management plan. Project roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships for the project, and project team resource management are all determined by the Plan Resource Management process.
  5. B. Option B is a tool and technique used in the Plan Procurement Management process. The procurement statement of work, procurement documents, and source selection criteria are some of the outputs of this process. During the exam, be sure not to mix up the inputs, tools and techniques, and outputs in the question.
  6. C. Option C is a process in the Plan Risk Management Knowledge Area, but it is the only choice that is a part of the Monitoring and Controlling process group. Identify Risks is a part of the Planning process group and includes identifying all risks that might impact the project, documenting them, and identifying their characteristics.
  7. A. Hierarchical charts and matrix-based charts are a type of data representation technique. Specifically, these are techniques used within the Plan Resource Management Plan process.
  8. B. Letters, memos, reports, emails, and voicemails are all forms of push communication. Push communication refers to sending information to intended receivers, but it is not concerned with whether it was actually received or understood.
  9. A. Lump-sum contract is another name for a fixed-price contract. This type of contract carries the least amount of risk for the seller because it tends to set a fixed price for goods or services rendered.
  10. C. Interviews is a data-gathering technique used in several of the Planning processes. It encourages anonymity, trust, and unbiased feedback.

Chapter 6: Planning Stakeholder Engagement and Obtaining Project Plan Approval

  1. A. The question describes the accept strategy. Option A is a better choice than option D, since the question also notes that no contingency is needed, making option A the more specific choice.
  2. A. This describes the stakeholder engagement assessment matrix, which allows for a comparison between current and desired engagement levels of stakeholders.
  3. D. The project manager is likely to point Antwon to the team charter, which documents the team values, agreements, and operating guidelines.
  4. B. Outputs from other processes are a key input, not a tool and technique, of the Develop Project Management Plan process. Options A and C are forms of data gathering, a tool and technique of the process.
  5. C. Simulation is a technique used within the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process to determine a probability distribution for the variable chosen, such as cost or schedule duration. Monte Carlo analysis is a popular simulation technique used.
  6. D. Escalate is a risk response strategy used for opportunities or threats that go beyond the authority level of the project manager or are outside of the project, such as within a program, as is the case in this scenario.
  7. A. Source selection analysis is a tool and technique of the Plan Procurement Management process, not an output. Look for clues, such as the word analysis in this case, which hints that it is a technique versus a result or outcome of carrying out a process.
  8. B. Kaylee has just carried out the Plan Risk Responses process, which is part of the Planning process group.
  9. D. The project manager has just finished carrying out the Identify Risks process. After performing risk identification, the project is likely to carry out the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process next. This process is responsible for determining what effect the identified risks will have on the project objectives and the probability that they will occur. Option A describes the Identify Risks process, Option C describes Plan Risk Responses, and Option D describes the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process.
  10. A. Interviews is a technique that is part of data gathering. In addition to interviews, data gathering also includes checklists, focus groups, and brainstorming. Other tools and techniques of the Develop Project Management Plan process include interpersonal and team skills (such as conflict management, facilitation, meeting management) and meetings.

Chapter 7: Executing the Project

  1. B. Jon’s upcoming role within the project has been pre-assigned. Be sure to keep your eyes open for clues in the question’s scenario. For instance, Jon has been looking forward to this assignment for months, yet the project has not officially begun. This means that Jon would have been included within the project charter as a specific team member assigned to the role of software architect. Although option C, project team member, is also correct, the question asks for the best choice.
  2. C. Options A, B, and D are all benefits of virtual teams. A war room requires team members to be colocated, which means that they are based out of the same physical location. Since virtual teams are spread out in various locations, option C is the correct choice.
  3. B. Storming, the second of Bruce Tuckman and Mary Ann Jensen’s five stages of team development, is when employees tend to be more confrontational with one another as they are vying for position and control.
  4. D. The chaotic meeting scenario is a result of a lack of ground rules. Ground rules determine acceptable team behavior and rules that should be applied during meetings. As the scenario exhibits, a lack of ground rules can lead to poor productivity and waste of time.
  5. A. The correct choice is social needs, which is the third level from the bottom in Maslow’s pyramid. This is the level that describes the need to belong, be loved, and be accepted.
  6. C. Collaborating, also called problem solving, is the best strategy for resolving conflict because it brings about a win-win result.
  7. C. Communication methods are a tool and technique of the Manage Communications process and include all means that make it possible to communicate project information to the appropriate individuals.
  8. B. Quality audits bring about quality improvements and greater efficiency to how processes and activities are carried out, making B the correct choice. Option A describes process analysis. Although quality audits can reveal information on team performance, the purpose is not to conduct performance reviews. Quality audits ensure that applicable laws and standards are being adhered to, but it is not a legal requirement to conduct them.
  9. A. Douglas McGregor is responsible for Theory X & Y. Frederick Herzberg defined the Hygiene theory; Abraham Maslow created Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory; and Victor Vroom is responsible for the Expectancy theory.
  10. A. The project management plan, specifically the stakeholder engagement plan, is an input to the process as opposed to a tool and technique. Avoid selecting an answer too fast simply because you recognize a connection between a term and a process name.
  11. C. The project manager in this scenario is carrying out the Develop Team process. This process is concerned with creating a positive environment for team members; developing the team into an effective, functioning, coordinated group; and increasing the team’s competency levels.
  12. B. The Executing process group is where the work reflected in the plan is carried out and, as a result, where the majority of the project budget is spent.
  13. A. Obtaining and managing resources is a key step to kicking off the execution of the plan, which occurs through processes that fall in the Project Resource Management Knowledge Area and Project Procurement Management Knowledge Area.
  14. C. The question describes bidder conferences, which are meetings held with prospective vendors prior to the completion of their response to a seller’s proposal. This technique is used as part of the Conduct Procurements process.
  15. D. Option D provides the definition of a deliverable as noted within the PMBOK® Guide.
  16. B. The question describes the work performance data output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process. Work performance data involves gathering, documenting, and recording the status of project work.
  17. B. The Direct and Manage Project Work process creates the issue log. Other outputs of this process include deliverables, work performance data, change requests, project management plan updates, project documents updates, and organizational process assets updates.
  18. B. Work performance information generates data that has been analyzed and is an output generated from the processes that fall in the Monitoring and Controlling process group. Work performance data, on the other hand, represents raw data produced out of the Direct and Manage Project Work process.
  19. C. Change requests are an output of the Manage Quality process, not an input.
  20. D. Polly has just carried out the Manage Quality process. Corrective actions are documented through the change requests output of the process.

Chapter 8: Monitoring and Controlling the Project

  1. D. Deliverables are an output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process, not of the Monitor and Control Project Work process. Preventive actions and defect repairs (options B and C) are part of change requests.
  2. C. Options A and B are inputs of the Control Procurements process, and option D is an output. This leaves C, inspection. Inspection includes a review of the vendor’s progress in meeting contract objectives. This question simply tested your ability to distinguish between the inputs, tools and techniques, and outputs of the process.
  3. A. According to the PMBOK® Guide, you must integrate and coordinate the Direct and Manage Project Work, Control Quality, Perform Integrated Change Control, and Monitor Risks processes during the Control Procurements process. Only Close Procurements, option A, is not included in this list of processes.
  4. C. Option A refers to change control meetings, option B refers to the configuration management system, and option D refers to the change control system. Also notice that C, the correct choice, is the only option that specifically mentions contracts.
  5. A. In this scenario, the stakeholder is looking for the latest cost performance index, which measures the value of the work completed against actual cost. The correct formula simply takes earned value and divides it by actual cost.
  6. C. Change requests should always be documented, even if verbal approval has been provided by a high-authority figure of the project (such as the project sponsor in this scenario). Obtaining the approval of the project sponsor may speed up the approval process, but it may not replace it.
  7. D. You may have been tempted to choose option C. However, budget analysis is not a tool and technique of the Monitor Risks process, which is the process used in this scenario. The correct choice is reserve analysis. Reserve analysis compares the amount of unused contingency reserve to the remaining amount of risk. This information is then used to determine whether a sufficient amount of reserve remains to deal with the remaining risks.
  8. A. To calculate variance at completion, simply subtract the estimate at completion (EAC) from the budget at completion (BAC). Plug in the numbers provided in the question and work out the problem as follows:

    VAC = 1,500 – 1,350

  9. B. The project manager is currently in the Control Schedule process. This can be a tricky question because PV and SPI were mentioned, steering you toward the Control Costs process. In this scenario, the project manager is specifically utilizing the variance analysis technique of the Control Schedule process.
  10. C. For reference, know the level of quality for 1 sigma (68.27 percent level of accuracy), 2 sigma (95.46 percent level of accuracy), 3 sigma (99.73 percent level of accuracy), and 6 sigma (99.99 percent level of accuracy).
  11. D. When the work is proceeding according to the plan, calculate ETC using the following formula: ETC – AC. When plugging in the values provided by the question, the calculation is as follows:

    $250,000 – $50,000 = $200,000

  12. B. TCPI is the projected performance level the remaining work of the project must achieve to meet the BAC or EAC. Option A describes SPI; Option C describes EAC; and Option D describes ETC.
  13. B. The Monitor Communications process is responsible for monitoring and controlling communications throughout the duration of the project. It is through this process that the project manager ensures that the communication requirements of stakeholders are met, along with their needs and expectations.
  14. B. Deliverables are verified through the Control Quality process. Verified deliverables are then taken through the Validate Scope process, which seeks to obtain formal acceptance of completed deliverables.
  15. D. Polly has been asked by the sponsor to calculate estimate at completion (EAC). When the project is expected to continue at a steady rate of performance, use the following formula to calculate EAC: BAC ÷ CPI. In order to calculate EAC, you must first calculate CPI with the values provided. To calculate CPI, divide earned value (EV) by actual cost (AC): $300,000 ÷ $350,000 = 0.857. Now, plug the values into the EAC formula: $500,000 ÷ 0.857 = $583,431 (rounded to the nearest dollar).
  16. C. Using the EV and PV values provided, calculate the schedule performance index (SPI). The formula for SPI is as follows:

    SPI = EV ÷ PV

    Using the formula provided, plug in the values to get the following: 20,000 ÷ 35,000 = 0.57. When the SPI is > 1, it means that the project is ahead of schedule; when it is < 1, it means that the project is behind schedule. Based on the SPI calculated, the project is very behind schedule. In order to determine whether the project is over or under budget, we would need the actual cost (AC) value, which was not provided.

  17. B. After changes have been implemented, they are validated through the Control Quality process. This process inspects the changes made to ensure that they were implemented correctly and then accepts or rejects them.
  18. A. Based on the values provided, calculate CPI and SPI using the following formulas:

    CPI = EV ÷ AC

    SPI = EV ÷ PV

    Now, plug in the values to get the following:

    CPI: 160,000 ÷ 110,000 = 1.45

    SPI: 160,000 ÷ 175,000 = 0.91

    Based on the CPI and SPI values calculated, the project is under budget (getting 91 cents of value for every dollar spent) and behind schedule (only 91% on schedule).

  19. C. Work performance data is an input of the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process, not an output. The following are outputs of the process: work performance information, change requests, project management plan updates, and project documents updates.
  20. B. Based on the values provided, you can calculate CPI to determine whether there are funds available to crash the schedule. To calculate CPI, use the following formula: EV ÷ AC. Plug in the values to get the following CPI: $60,000 ÷ $85,000 = 0.71. Based on the CPI, the project is also currently over budget. Since crashing is typically a costly option, the project manager is likely to fast-track activities on the critical path where possible.

Chapter 9: Closing the Project

  1. D. Final product, service, or result transition is an output of the process, not an input. Inputs include project charter, project management plan, project documents, accepted deliverables, business documents, agreements, procurement documentation, and organizational process assets.
  2. C. You may have leaned toward selecting option A at first glance because deliverables are validated during the Validate Scope process. However, the project manager is currently confirming that “all deliverables” of the project have been successfully accomplished, not validating the actual deliverables themselves. To make this determination, the Close Project or Phase process uses the project management plan and the list of accepted deliverables.
  3. C. This question refers to the Close Project or Phase process, which has the following three tools and techniques: expert judgment, data analysis, and meetings. These are used when performing administrative closure.
  4. B. Closing procurements occurs through the Control Procurements process, while finalizing all remaining procurement activities occurs in the Close Project or Phase process.
  5. A. In this scenario, the project manager would refer to the administrative closure procedures. These procedures address several closure items, such as collecting project records, analyzing the success of the project, and documenting the roles and responsibilities of the project team members and stakeholders. As part of the latter, the administrative closure procedures document the actions to verify that the project deliverables have been accepted and that the exit criteria have been met.
  6. A. Claims administration is a tool and technique of the Control Procurements process, not Close Project or Phase. The Close Project or Phase process uses expert judgment, data analysis (in the form of document analysis, regression analysis, trend analysis, and variance analysis), and meetings.
  7. B. Disputes or outstanding claims are resolved by using alternative dispute resolution techniques, which are considered to be the most favorable ways of resolving disputes. Option A, taking the dispute to court, is the least favorable resolution technique.
  8. D. The project manager has the greatest amount of influence during the Closing processes, whereas stakeholders have the least amount of influence during this stage of the project.
  9. B. This is a tricky question because all the options are technically correct. However, the question asks for the best answer. This would be option B, the staff release plan. All of the other options are connected—the project team resource management (which addresses the release of resources) is a component of the resource management plan, which in turn is a component of the project management plan.
  10. A. Typically, a phase is marked by the completion of a major deliverable. Sign-off of deliverables occurs through the Validate Scope process, after a quality review has been performed. The next step would be to formally close out the phase through the Close Project or Phase process.
  11. B. Polly’s project has been terminated due to starvation. Starvation occurs when resources are diverted from or no longer provided to the project.
  12. C. Although Polly’s project has ended prematurely, she must still perform closure activities by carrying out the Close Project or Phase process.
  13. B. The Close Project or Phase process belongs to the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area and is the only process belonging to the Closing process group.
  14. C. The project charter, which is an input to the Close Project or Phase process, contains the project success criteria and approval requirements.
  15. C. Integration occurs when the resources of a project (such as people, equipment, property, and supplies) are distributed to other areas in the organization or are assigned to other projects, causing an end to the project.
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