Chapter 3
Network Operations

  1. After starting work as the network administrator of Wingtip Toys, you discover that all of the switches in the company's datacenter have support for remote management, with built-in Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) agents in each port. Which of the following tasks must you perform to be able to gather information from the agents on those switches and display it on a central console? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. Install the network management software on a network computer.
    2. Install a Management Information Base (MIB) on each of the switches.
    3. Install an agent on the console computer.
    4. Install an MIB on the console computer.
    5. Purchase a network management product.
  2. Which versions of the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) do not include any security protection other than a cleartext community string? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. SNMPv1
    2. SNMPv2
    3. SNMPv2c
    4. SNMPv3
  3. Which of the following statements about the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) are not true? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. To effectively monitor a network using SNMP, you must be sure that all of the equipment you purchase when designing and building your network supports the protocol.
    2. SNMP is not only the name of a protocol, it is also the name of a network management product.
    3. SNMPv1 and SNMPv2 rely on a community string as their only means of security.
    4. Most of the network management products on the market today support SNMPv3.
  4. What Windows utility is shown in the accompanying figure?
    image

    1. Network Monitor
    2. System Monitor
    3. Event Viewer
    4. Log Viewer
  5. Which of the following was created to provide logging services for the Unix sendmail program?
    1. Syslog
    2. Netstat
    3. SNMP
    4. CARP
  6. You are the network administrator of your company's network. Your company wants to perform a baseline analysis of network-related traffic and statistics. They want to track broadcasts, Cyclical Redundancy Check (CRC) errors, and collisions for all traffic traversing a switched network. In addition, they want to provide historical and daily reports for management. They also want to keep track of software distribution and metering. What type of network software product best meets these needs?
    1. SNMP management
    2. Protocol analyzer
    3. Performance Monitor
    4. Network traffic monitor
  7. Which of the following technologies provides both real-time monitoring of security events and automated analysis of the event information gathered?
    1. SIEM
    2. SNMP
    3. SEM
    4. SIM
  8. SIEM products combine the capabilities of which of the following? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. Syslog
    2. SNMP
    3. SEM
    4. SIM
  9. Which of the following statements about web server logs is not true?
    1. To analyze web server activity, you typically use an application that interprets the web server log files.
    2. Web server logs are typically maintained as text files.
    3. Web server logs record the IP addresses of all visiting users.
    4. To interpret web server logs, you use a protocol analyzer.
  10. Which of the following statements best describes a baseline?
    1. A baseline is an estimation of expected performance levels, based on manufacturers’ specifications.
    2. A baseline is a record of performance levels captured under actual workload conditions.
    3. A baseline is a record of performance levels captured under simulated workload conditions.
    4. A baseline is a record of performance levels captured before the system is actually in use.
  11. When monitoring performance metrics on one of your servers, you notice that the server is utilizing 100 percent of the network bandwidth available to it. What modification could you make to the server that will most likely address the problem?
    1. Add memory to the system.
    2. Install a second network adapter.
    3. Update the network adapter's firmware.
    4. Install a second processor.
  12. Which of the following indicators is typically not included in an operating system's performance monitoring tool, such as the Windows Performance Monitor or the MacOS Activity Monitor?
    1. Temperature
    2. CPU/processor activity
    3. Memory consumption
    4. Network utilization
    5. Storage statistics
  13. Which of the following syslog message severity levels indicates that a system is unusable?
    1. 0
    2. 1
    3. 2
    4. 3
    5. 4
  14. Which of the following syslog message severity levels indicates a call for immediate action?
    1. 0
    2. 1
    3. 2
    4. 3
    5. 4
  15. Which of the following syslog message severity levels indicates that the message is purely informational?
    1. 0
    2. 2
    3. 4
    4. 6
    5. 7
  16. A Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) console can inform administrators when a managed device requires attention. For this to occur, the agent in the device first has to send a message to the console. What is the term used for a message sent by an SNMP agent to the central console?
    1. Ping
    2. Alert
    3. Notification
    4. Trap
  17. Which of the following metrics would you typically not find displayed by an interface monitor?
    1. Error rate
    2. Bandwidth utilization
    3. Packet drops
    4. Rollbacks
  18. Which of the following are reasons contributing to the number of packet drops displayed by an interface monitor? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. Resets
    2. Discards
    3. Errors
    4. Overflows
  19. Which of the following is not a statistic that you would typically find in a server performance baseline?
    1. CPU utilization
    2. Disk transfer rate
    3. Network transmissions speed
    4. OS update history
    5. Memory utilization
  20. Log management typically consists of which of the following tasks? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. Rollback
    2. Utilization
    3. Security
    4. Cycling
  21. Which of the following Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) processes performs searches for specific criteria, during specific time frames, in logs located on different computers?
    1. Data aggregation
    2. Forensic analysis
    3. Correlation
    4. Retention
  22. Which of the following terms best describes the Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) process of consolidating log information from multiple sources?
    1. Data aggregation
    2. Forensic analysis
    3. Correlation
    4. Retention
  23. Which of the following terms best describes a connectivity problem on wired networks that is caused by individual packets that are delayed due to network congestion, different routing, or queuing problems?
    1. Latency
    2. Attenuation
    3. Jitter
    4. Bottleneck
  24. Which of the following network interface occurrences are considered to be malfunctions on a full-duplex Ethernet network? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. Runts
    2. Giants
    3. Collisions
    4. Late collisions
  25. Which of the following network applications are most likely to be obviously affected by the wired network connectivity problem known as jitter? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. Email
    2. VoIP
    3. Streaming video
    4. Instant messaging
  26. Which of the following, originally created for the UNIX sendmail program, is now a standard for message logging that enables tools that generate, store, and analyze log information to work together?
    1. Syslog
    2. Netmon
    3. Netstat
    4. Top
  27. Which of the following log types is the first place that a Windows administrator should look for information about a server's activities?
    1. System log
    2. Setup log
    3. Application log
    4. Security log
  28. When a service fails to start on a Windows server, an entry is typically created in which of the following event logs?
    1. Application
    2. Security
    3. Setup
    4. System
  29. Which of the following Windows applications would you most likely use to create a baseline of system or network performance?
    1. Performance Monitor
    2. Event Viewer
    3. Syslog
    4. Network Monitor
  30. At what humidity level do electronic components become vulnerable to damage from electrostatic shock?
    1. Below 30 percent
    2. Below 50 percent
    3. Above 70 percent
    4. Above 90 percent
  31. Which of the following event logs on a Windows server can record information about both successful and failed access attempts?
    1. System
    2. Application
    3. Security
    4. Setup
  32. Which of the following is the database used by the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) to store information gathered from agents distributed about the network?
    1. Trap
    2. Syslog
    3. MIB
    4. SIEM
  33. Which of the following is the most likely cause of runt and giant frames on an Ethernet network interface?
    1. A network adapter malfunction
    2. Half-duplex communication
    3. Excessive cable length
    4. Electromagnetic interference
  34. Which of the following is the most likely cause of Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC) errors on an Ethernet network interface?
    1. Half-duplex communication
    2. A network adapter malfunction
    3. Electromagnetic interference
    4. Excessive cable length
  35. Which of the following utilities can display the number of packets sent and received for a specific network interface on a Unix, Linux, MacOS or Windows computer?
    1. Top
    2. Ifconfig
    3. Netstat
    4. Nbtstat
  36. Which of the following is a feature included in some routers that collects and analyzes network traffic data sent or received through a network interface?
    1. Netmon
    2. Netflow
    3. Netstat
    4. Nbtstat
  37. Which of the following is not a type of error typically found in network interface statistics?
    1. Runt
    2. Encapsulation
    3. Giant
    4. CRC
    5. Jumbo
  38. Which of the following is not an SNMP component?
    1. MIBs
    2. Traps
    3. OIDs
    4. CRCs
  39. Ralph is designing the HVAC implementation for his company's new central datacenter, which will house all of the equipment for the corporate headquarters and the company's manufacturing facility. The datacenter must adhere to the Tier III standard defined by the Uptime Institute, which calls for at least 99.9 percent uptime. As part of the environmental infrastructure for the datacenter, Ralph plans to install sensors to monitor environmental factors that can affect computer equipment and generate alerts when conditions exceed accepted thresholds. Which of the following environmental factors is not one of those that Ralph should arrange to monitor to protect the equipment specific to a datacenter?
    1. Flood
    2. Humidity
    3. Radon
    4. Static electricity
    5. Temperature
  40. Routers using link states and Dijkstra's algorithm to calculate the lowest cost route to a specific destination can conceivably be running which of the following interior gateway routing protocols? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. OSPF
    2. RIP
    3. EIGRP
    4. IS-IS
    5. BGP
  41. Which of the following is the term usually applied to a representation of network devices, automatically compiled, and containing information such as IP addresses and connection speeds?
    1. Network map
    2. Network diagram
    3. Cable diagram
    4. Management information base
  42. Which of the following types of network documentation is often overlaid on an architectural drawing or blueprint?
    1. Network map
    2. Network diagram
    3. Cable diagram
    4. Management information base
  43. Which of the following is not one of the typical heights for devices mounted in IT equipment racks?
    1. 1 unit
    2. 2 units
    3. 3 units
    4. 4 units
  44. The cable plant for your company network was installed several years ago by an outside contractor. Now, some of the paper labels have fallen off your patch panels, and you do not know which wall plate is connected to each port. Assuming that you are working on a properly maintained and documented network installation, which of the following is the easiest way to determine which port is connected to which wall plate?
    1. Consult the cable diagram provided by the cabling contractor at the time of the installation.
    2. Call the cable installation contractor and see if he or she can remember which ports go with which wall plates.
    3. Attach a tone generator to a patch panel port and then test each wall plate with a locator until you find the correct one. Repeat this for each port that needs labeling.
    4. Use a cable certifier to locate the patch panel port associated with each wall plate port.
  45. Which of the following IT asset management documents published by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) defines a standard for Software Identification Tags (SWIDs) containing inventory information about the software running on a computer or other device?
    1. ISO 19770-1
    2. ISO 19770-2
    3. ISO 19770-3
    4. ISO 19770-4
    5. ISO 19770-5
  46. Which of the following are places where network wiring connections are found? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. MDF
    2. MTBF
    3. IDF
    4. RDP
  47. A rack diagram is typically ruled vertically using which of the following measurements?
    1. Inches
    2. Centimeters
    3. Units
    4. Grids
  48. In a standard Cisco network diagram, what component does the symbol in the figure represent?
    image
    1. A switch
    2. A router
    3. A hub
    4. A gateway
  49. Which of the following statements are true about the differences between a diagram of a patch panel installation organized physically and one that is organized logically? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. A physical diagram is organized according to the floors and rooms where the cable drops are located.
    2. A physical diagram is precisely scaled to represent the actual patch panel hardware.
    3. A logical diagram is organized according to the divisions within the company, such as departments and workgroups.
    4. A logical diagram uses an organization that represents company divisions but does not physically resemble the actual patch panels.
  50. A diagram of a telecommunications room or Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF) for an office building is typically based on which of the following?
    1. A hand-drawn sketch
    2. A series of photographs
    3. An architect's plan
    4. A 3D model
    5. A site survey report
  51. The documentation for Main Distribution Frames (MDFs) and Intermediate Distribution Frames (IDFs) should incorporate details on which of the following elements? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. Power
    2. Environment
    3. Distances
    4. Costs
  52. At what point in the installation process should patch panel ports and wall plates be labeled?
    1. When the patch panels and wall plates are installed
    2. When a length of cable is cut from the spool
    3. When the cables are attached to the connectors
    4. When the cable runs are tested, immediately after their installation
  53. Which of the following is the term used to describe a wiring nexus that is typically the termination point for incoming telephone and Wide Area Network (WAN) services?
    1. MDF
    2. MTBF
    3. IDF
    4. RDP
    5. MOU
  54. Your department is experiencing frequent delays as users wait for images to render using their outdated graphics software package. As a result, you are planning to submit a change request for a new software product at the monthly meeting of the company's change management team. Which of the following types of information are likely to be included in your request? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. The possibility of rolling back to the previous software, if necessary
    2. The procedure for installing and configuring the new software
    3. An estimate of the productivity increase realizable with the new software
    4. A list of software and hardware upgrades or modifications needed to run the new software
  55. A rack diagram is typically ruled into vertical rack units, which are standard-sized divisions that hardware manufacturers use when manufacturing rack-mountable components. Which of the following is the standard vertical height of a single rack unit?
    1. 1.721 inches
    2. 1.75 inches
    3. 40 mm
    4. 3.5 inches
  56. The change request for new graphics software that you submitted to your company's change management team has been approved. Now it is time to implement the change. Which of the following administrative tasks will most likely be the change management team's responsibility during the implementation process? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. Authorizing downtime
    2. Notifying users
    3. Designating a maintenance window
    4. Documenting all modifications made
  57. Which of the following IT asset management documents published by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) provides an overview of the ITAM concepts discussed in the ISO 19770 family of standards?
    1. ISO 19770-1
    2. ISO 19770-2
    3. ISO 19770-3
    4. ISO 19770-4
    5. ISO 19770-5
  58. A rack-mounted device that is four units tall will be approximately what height in inches?
    1. 1.75
    2. 3.5
    3. 4
    4. 7
  59. Which of the following types of documentation should indicate the complete route of every internal cable run from wall plate to patch panel?
    1. Physical network diagram
    2. Asset management
    3. Logical network diagram
    4. Wiring schematic
  60. Which of the following statements about physical network diagrams and logical network diagrams are true? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. A physical network diagram is created automatically, and a logical network diagram is created manually.
    2. A physical network diagram depicts hardware devices and the connections between them.
    3. A logical network diagram contains all of the information you would need to rebuild your network from scratch.
    4. A logical network diagram typically contains the IP addresses of network devices.
  61. In a standard Cisco network diagram, what component does the symbol in the figure represent?
    image
    1. A switch
    2. A router
    3. A hub
    4. A gateway
  62. Which of the following is the term used to describe a wiring nexus—typically housed in a closet—where horizontal networks meet the backbone?
    1. MDF
    2. MTBF
    3. IDF
    4. SLA
    5. MOU
  63. What is the width of a standard equipment rack in a datacenter?
    1. 12 inches
    2. 16 inches
    3. 19 inches
    4. 24 inches
  64. In a standard Cisco network diagram, what component does the symbol in the figure represent?
    image
    1. A switch
    2. A router
    3. A hub
    4. A gateway
  65. The precise locations of devices in a datacenter are typically documented in which of the following documents?
    1. Rack diagram
    2. Network map
    3. Wiring schematic
    4. Logical diagram
    5. Business continuity plan
    6. Audit and assessment report
  66. Which of the following statements about network maps is true?
    1. Network maps are typically drawn to scale.
    2. Network maps typically contain more information than network diagrams.
    3. Network maps must be read/write accessible to all personnel working on the network.
    4. Network maps diagram only the locations of cable runs and endpoints.
  67. Which of the following types of documentation should contain the chemical composition of all cleaning compounds used in a datacenter?
    1. ESD
    2. MSDS
    3. NDA
    4. BYOD
    5. SOP
  68. After being hired for a job as an IT administrator, you have been assigned two user accounts, one of which is intended for general use and the other only for administrative tasks. You are also required to sign an agreement that outlines the restrictions for your account use. Specifically, you are not permitted to use the administrative account for anything other than administrative tasks, including browsing the Internet and accessing data for which you are not authorized. Which of the following is the best name for this type of agreement?
    1. Remote access policies
    2. Service level agreement
    3. Acceptable use policy
    4. Privileged user agreement
  69. You are working for a company with numerous branch offices scattered around the country, and you are required to travel to these offices frequently. Each branch office has some means of accessing the network at the company headquarters. Some use frame relay, some use Virtual Private Networks (VPNs), and a few even use dial-in access. During one trip, you mention to a branch office manager that you intend to connect to the headquarters network that night from your hotel room. The manager warns you that this is against company policy, but you are not so sure. Where in the company documentation should you look to confirm this?
    1. Remote access policies
    2. Service level agreement
    3. Acceptable use policy
    4. Privileged user agreement
  70. Which of the following is a document that a company's new hires might want to consult to determine whether they are permitted to install their own personal software on company computers?
    1. SLA
    2. AUP
    3. NDA
    4. BYOD
  71. Many employees have been contacting the IT help desk asking how they can connect their personal smartphones and tablets to the company's wireless network. This has raised issues regarding network security and technical support. You have been asked to draft a policy for the in-house use of personal electronics that addresses these issues. Which of the following describes the document that you will be creating?
    1. SLA
    2. AUP
    3. NDA
    4. BYOD
  72. You are going to work for a new company as a software developer, and Human Resources (HR) has notified you that you must sign a document guaranteeing that you will maintain confidentiality about the company's products and programming code in perpetuity. Which of the following documents contains this agreement?
    1. SLA
    2. AUP
    3. NDA
    4. MOU
    5. BYOD
  73. Which of the following are typical elements of a corporate password policy? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. Minimum password length
    2. Use of special characters
    3. Unique passwords
    4. Frequent password changes
  74. Alice is implementing a new password policy that requires all users to change their passwords every seven days. What further modification can she make to the password policy to prevent users from thwarting the password change requirement?
    1. Specify a minimum password length
    2. Require the use of special characters
    3. Require the creation of unique passwords
    4. Specify a maximum password change interval
  75. Which of the following are settings typically included in an account lockout policy? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. Account lockout duration
    2. Time allowed between attempts
    3. Account lockout threshold
    4. Reset account lockout threshold counter
  76. How do account lockouts help to prevent intruders from cracking passwords?
    1. By forcing users to select passwords of a minimum length
    2. By preventing users from entering incorrect passwords more than a specified number of times
    3. By preventing users from reusing the same passwords
    4. By requiring an additional authentication method, such as a fingerprint
  77. Which of the following data loss prevention terms is used to describe dangers pertaining to data that is being transmitted over a network? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. Data in use
    2. Data at rest
    3. Data in motion
    4. Data in transit
  78. Which of the following data loss prevention terms is used to describe dangers pertaining to data while a user is loading it into an application?
    1. Data in use
    2. Data at rest
    3. Data in process
    4. Data in motion
  79. Which of the following data loss prevention terms is used to describe potential dangers of data loss or data leakage to unauthorized parties while the data is stored without being used?
    1. Data in use
    2. Data at rest
    3. Data in motion
    4. Data on disk
  80. Which of the following is not one of the standard terms used in data loss prevention?
    1. Data online
    2. Data at rest
    3. Data in motion
    4. Data in use
  81. The terms on-boarding and off-boarding are typically associated with which of the following policies?
    1. Data loss prevention
    2. Incident response
    3. Inventory management
    4. Identity management
    5. Disaster recovery
    6. Business continuity
  82. The term off-boarding refers to which of the following procedures?
    1. Removing a node from a cluster
    2. Disconnecting all cables from a switch
    3. Revoking a user's network privileges
    4. Retiring old workstations
  83. Which of the following is most likely to be the last step in a change management procedure?
    1. Documentation
    2. Notification
    3. Approval
    4. Scheduling
  84. Which of the following U.S. organizations are capable of imposing international export controls on software products? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. The company that created the software
    2. Department of State
    3. Department of Commerce
    4. Department of the Treasury
  85. Which of the following is the primary result of an organization's security incident response policies?
    1. To know how to respond to a particular incident
    2. To prevent an incident from occurring again
    3. To identify the cause of an incident
    4. To document the procedures leading up to an incident
  86. You are an IT director, and a fire has broken out in the lower floors of your company's office building. After the personnel are evacuated, the fire department asks you where they can find documentation about all chemicals and equipment used in the company's datacenter, which is threatened by the fire. You direct them to the correct filing cabinet in your office, which contains which of the following document types?
    1. ESD
    2. NDA
    3. BYOD
    4. MSDS
  87. You have been asked to draft an Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) for new hires at your company to sign, which specifies what they can and cannot do when working with the company's computers and network. Which of the following is not one of the provisions typically found in this type of document?
    1. Privacy
    2. Ownership
    3. Illegal use
    4. Upgrades
  88. You are starting a new job, and the company's Human Resources (HR) department has asked you to sign an Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) regarding computer and network use. The document includes a privacy clause. Which of the following are specifications you can expect to find in this clause? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. Any emails you send or receive can be monitored by the company at any time.
    2. All files and data that you store on company computers must be accessible to the company for scanning and monitoring.
    3. All work that you perform for the company becomes the sole property of the company, including copyrights and patents.
    4. All hardware, software, and any proprietary data stored on the company's computers remains the property of the company.
  89. Which of the following tasks is not considered to be part of an IT department's incident response plan?
    1. Stopping an ongoing incident
    2. Containing the damage caused by an incident
    3. Repairing the damage caused by an incident
    4. Rebuilding an infrastructure destroyed by an incident
  90. Which of the following are occurrences that are typically addressed by an IT department's incident response policies? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack
    2. Hard disk failure
    3. Electrical fire
    4. Server outage
  91. Which of the following terms would apply to the procedure of adding a user's personal smartphone to the network under a Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy?
    1. Out-of-band
    2. On-boarding
    3. In-band
    4. Off-boarding
  92. Your company has been acquired by another firm and, as IT director, you will have to comply with the new firm's safety policies in your datacenter and other IT workspaces. One of the new requirements states that there must be a fail closed policy for the datacenter. Which of the following best describes what this policy dictates should occur in the event of an emergency?
    1. All computers that are logged on should automatically log off.
    2. All computers that are running should automatically shut down.
    3. All doors that are normally open should lock themselves.
    4. All doors that are normally locked should open themselves.
  93. You are the first responder to an incident of computer crime at your company. The datacenter's security has been penetrated, a server accessed, and sensitive company data stolen. The company's incident response plan lists the specific tasks that you are responsible for performing. Which of the following are likely to be among those tasks? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. Turn off the server.
    2. Secure the area.
    3. Document the scene.
    4. Collect evidence.
    5. Cooperate with the authorities.
  94. Password policies frequently require users to specify complex passwords. Which of the following are characteristic of a complex password?
    1. Passwords that contain mixed upper- and lowercase letters, numbers, and symbols
    2. Passwords that exceed a specific length
    3. Passwords that do not duplicate a specific number of the user's previous passwords
    4. Passwords that do not duplicate the user's account name, birth date, or other personal information
  95. Password policies that contain a history requirement typically have which of the following limitations?
    1. Users cannot reuse recent passwords.
    2. Users cannot create passwords containing names of relatives.
    3. Users cannot create passwords containing names of historical figures.
    4. Users cannot create passwords that duplicate those of any other users on the network.
  96. Account lockout policies are designed to protect against which of the following types of attacks?
    1. Social engineering
    2. Spoofing
    3. Brute force
    4. Man in the middle
  97. Which of the following types of password policies are designed to prevent brute-force attacks? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. Password length policies
    2. Account lockout policies
    3. Password history policies
    4. Complex password policies
  98. Which of the following is not likely to be a procedural element of an IT asset disposal policy?
    1. Data deletion
    2. Recycling
    3. Data preservation
    4. Inventory
  99. While negotiating a new contract with a service provider, you have reached a disagreement over the contracted reliability of the service. The provider is willing to guarantee that the service will be available 99 percent of the time, but you have been told to require 99.9 percent. When you finally reach an agreement, the negotiated language will be included in which of the following documents?
    1. SLA
    2. AUP
    3. NDA
    4. BYOD
  100. Which of the following elements would you typically not expect to find in a Service Level Agreement (SLA) between an Internet Service Provider (ISP) and a subscriber?
    1. A definition of the services to be provided by the ISP
    2. A list of specifications for the equipment to be provided by the ISP
    3. The types and schedule for the technical support to be provided by the ISP
    4. The types of applications that the subscriber will use when accessing the ISP's services
  101. You have just completed negotiating an annual contract with a provider to furnish your company with cloud services. As part of the contract, the provider has agreed to guarantee that the services will be available 99.9 percent of the time, around the clock, seven days per week. If the services are unavailable more than 0.1 percent of the time, your company is due a price adjustment. Which of the following terms describes this clause of the contract?
    1. SLA
    2. MTBF
    3. AUP
    4. MTTR
  102. The technical support clause of a Service Level Agreement (SLA) will typically include which of the following elements? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. Whether the provider will provide on-site, telephone, or online support
    2. The time service for responses to support calls, which specifies how quickly the provider must respond to requests for support.
    3. The percentage of time that the service is guaranteed to be available
    4. The amount of support that will be provided and the costs for additional support
  103. After switching from a standard public switched telephone network (PSTN) telephone system to a Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) system, users are complaining of service interruptions and problems hearing callers at certain times of the day. After examining a network traffic audit and assessment report, you determine that traffic levels on the Internet connection are substantially higher during the first and last hours of the day, the same times when most of the users experienced problems. Which of the following solutions can provide more reliable VoIP service during peak usage times?
    1. Implement traffic shaping
    2. Implement load balancing
    3. Upgrade the Local Area Network (LAN) from Fast Ethernet to Gigabit Ethernet
    4. Replace the router connecting the LAN to the Internet with a model that supports Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP).
  104. A server with dual power supplies must be running in which of the following modes for the system to be fault tolerant?
    1. Combined mode
    2. Redundant mode
    3. Individual mode
    4. Hot backup mode
  105. Redundant power circuits can enable a server to continue running in spite of which of the following events?
    1. A citywide power outage
    2. A server power supply failure
    3. An uncorrected building circuit failure
    4. A failure of the server's Uninterruptable Power Supply (UPS)
  106. Which of the following media types is Windows Server Backup unable to use to store backed-up data?
    1. Local hard disks
    2. Local optical disks
    3. Magnetic tape drives
    4. Remote shared folders
  107. Which of the following Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) levels provides fault tolerance by storing parity information on the disks, in addition to the data? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. RAID 0
    2. RAID 1
    3. RAID 5
    4. RAID 10
  108. Installing an electrical generator for your datacenter is an example of which of the following fault tolerance concepts?
    1. Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)
    2. Power redundancy
    3. Dual power supplies
    4. Redundant circuits
  109. Which of the following RAID levels uses disk striping with distributed parity?
    1. RAID 0
    2. RAID 1
    3. RAID 5
    4. RAID 10
  110. Which of the following is not a fault tolerance mechanism?
    1. Port aggregation
    2. Clustering
    3. MTBF
    4. UPS
  111. Which of the following is not a type of server load balancing mechanism?
    1. DNS round-robin
    2. Network Address Translation
    3. Content switching
    4. Multilayer switching
  112. Which of the following mechanisms for load balancing web servers is able to read the incoming HTTP and HTTPS requests and perform advanced functions based on the information they contain?
    1. Content switches
    2. Multilayer switches
    3. Failover clustering
    4. DNS round-robin
  113. Which of the following statements about the differences between online and standby Uninterruptible Power Supplies (UPSs) are correct? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. A standby UPS runs devices using battery power all the time.
    2. An online UPS provides no gap in the power supplied to the devices during a main power failure.
    3. An online UPS switches devices to battery power only during a main power failure.
    4. A standby UPS provides only enough power for an orderly shutdown of the devices.
  114. Which of the following are valid reasons why online Uninterruptible Power Supplies (UPSs) are more expensive than standby UPSs?
    1. Online UPSs enable devices to run longer when a main power failure occurs.
    2. Online UPSs enable devices to run continuously when a main power failure occurs.
    3. Online UPSs are managed devices that can generate alerts.
    4. Online UPSs provide greater protection against power spikes and sags.
  115. Which of the following are equivalent terms for the process of combining the bandwidth of two or more network adapters to increase the overall speed of the connection and provide fault tolerance? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. Bonding
    2. Link aggregation
    3. Clustering
    4. Port aggregation
    5. NIC teaming
  116. A network load balancing cluster is made up of multiple computers that function as a single entity. Which of the following terms is used to describe an individual computer in a load balancing cluster?
    1. Node
    2. Host
    3. Server
    4. Box
  117. Which of the following is an element of high availability systems that enables them to automatically detect problems and react to them?
    1. Backups
    2. Snapshots
    3. Failover
    4. Cold sites
  118. Which of the following RAID levels does not provide fault tolerance?
    1. RAID 0
    2. RAID 1
    3. RAID 5
    4. RAID 10
  119. Which of the following networking concepts frequently use virtual Internet Protocol (IP) addresses to provide high availability? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. Clustering
    2. Load balancing
    3. Network Address Translation (NAT)
    4. Network Interface Card (NIC) teaming
  120. Which of the following disaster recovery mechanisms can be made operational in the least amount of time?
    1. A cold site
    2. A warm site
    3. A hot site
    4. All of the options are the same.
  121. Which of the following datacenter disaster recovery mechanisms is the least expensive to implement?
    1. A cold site
    2. A warm site
    3. A hot site
    4. A cloud site
  122. Which of the following terms defines how long it will take to restore a server from backups if a complete system failure occurs?
    1. RPO
    2. RTO
    3. BCP
    4. MIB
  123. In a disaster recovery scenario, which of the following terms applies to devices that are not repairable?
    1. MTBF
    2. MTTF
    3. MTTR
    4. MDT
  124. If you have a server with dual power supplies, both of which are connected to a single Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS), with a building power circuit connected to a backup generator, which of the following failures can the server survive and keep running indefinitely? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. Failure of one server power supply
    2. Failure of the UPS
    3. Failure of the building power circuit
    4. Failure of the building backup generator
  125. Which of the following is the primary function of an Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) during a two-hour building power failure.
    1. To keep servers running until building power is restored
    2. To keep servers running until they can be powered down safely
    3. To keep servers from being damaged by power spikes
    4. To keep servers running in the event of a computer power supply failure
  126. If you have a server with dual power supplies, one of which is plugged into a single Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) and the other into a wall socket with a surge protector, and the building's power circuit is connected to a backup generator, which of the following failures can the server survive and keep running indefinitely? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. Failure of one server power supply
    2. Failure of the UPS
    3. Failure of the building power circuit
    4. Failure of the building backup generator
  127. If you have a server with dual power supplies, each of which is connected to a separate Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS), with each UPS connected to a separate building power circuit connected to a backup generator, which of the following failures can the server survive and keep running indefinitely? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. Failure of one server power supply
    2. Failure of one UPS
    3. Failure of one building power circuit
    4. Failure of the building backup generator
  128. Which of the following is the criterion most commonly used to filter files for backup jobs?
    1. Filename
    2. File extension
    3. File attributes
    4. File size
  129. Which of the following disaster recovery mechanisms is the least expensive to implement?
    1. A cold site
    2. A warm site
    3. A hot site
    4. All of the options cost the same.
  130. Which of the following statements about port aggregation is not true?
    1. All of the aggregated ports use the same MAC address.
    2. Port aggregation can be a fault tolerance mechanism.
    3. Aggregating ports increases network throughput.
    4. Port aggregation provides load balancing
  131. Which of the following can be provided by clustering servers?
    1. Fault tolerance
    2. Load balancing
    3. Failover
    4. All of the above
  132. When you configure NIC teaming on a server with two network adapters in an active/passive configuration, which of the following services is provided?
    1. Load balancing
    2. Fault tolerance
    3. Server clustering
    4. Traffic shaping
  133. Which of the following is not a load balancing mechanism?
    1. NIC teaming
    2. Server clustering
    3. DNS round-robin
    4. RAID 1
  134. Which of the following best describes the difference between cold, warm, and hot backup sites?
    1. Whether the backup site is owned, borrowed, or rented
    2. The age of the most recent backup stored at the site
    3. The cost of the hardware used at the site
    4. The time needed to get the site up and running
  135. Which of the following specifications would you most want to examine when comparing hard disk models for your new Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) array?
    1. MTBF
    2. SLA
    3. AUP
    4. MTTR
  136. Which of the following RAID levels provides fault tolerance with the smallest amount of usable disk space? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. RAID 0
    2. RAID 1
    3. RAID 5
    4. RAID 10
  137. Disk mirroring and disk duplexing are both fault tolerance mechanisms for hard disk data storage. Which of the following statements about disk mirroring and disk duplexing is true?
    1. Disk mirroring enables a server to survive the failure of a disk drive.
    2. Disk duplexing enables a server to survive the failure of a disk controller.
    3. Disk mirroring enables a server to survive a failure of a disk drive or a disk controller.
    4. Disk duplexing enables a server to survive a failure of a disk drive or a disk controller.
  138. You are installing a new Windows server with two hard disk drives in it, and you want to use RAID to create a fault-tolerant storage system. Which of the following RAID levels can you configure the server to use?
    1. RAID 0
    2. RAID 1
    3. RAID 5
    4. RAID 10
  139. Which of the following RAID levels provide fault tolerance without using parity data? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. RAID 0
    2. RAID 1
    3. RAID 5
    4. RAID 10
  140. Which of the following backup job types does not reset the archive bits of the files it backs up?
    1. Full
    2. Incremental
    3. Differential
    4. Supplemental
  141. What are the three elements in the Grandfather-Father-Son media rotation system for network backups?
    1. Hard disk drives, optical drives, and magnetic tape drives
    2. Incremental, differential, and full backup jobs
    3. Monthly, weekly, and daily backup jobs
    4. QIC, DAT, and DLT tape drives
  142. Which of the following types of backup jobs are supported by the Windows Server Backup program? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. Incremental
    2. Differential
    3. Full
    4. Supplemental
  143. Which of the following is a term for a read-only copy of a data set made at a specific moment in time?
    1. Snapshot
    2. Incremental
    3. Hot site
    4. Differential
  144. Which of the following storage techniques prevents version skew from occurring during a system backup?
    1. Incrementals
    2. Differentials
    3. Iterations
    4. Snapshots
  145. If you back up your network by performing a full backup every Wednesday at 6:00 p.m. and incremental backups in the evening of the other days of the week, how many jobs would be needed to completely restore a computer with a hard drive that failed on a Monday at noon?
    1. One
    2. Two
    3. Five
    4. Six
  146. How does an autochanger increase the overall storage capacity of a backup solution?
    1. By compressing data before it is stored on the medium
    2. By automatically inserting media into and removing it from a drive
    3. By running a tape drive at half its normal speed
    4. By writing two tracks at once onto a magnetic tape
  147. For a complete restore of a computer that failed at noon on Tuesday, how many jobs would be needed if you performed full backups to tape at 6:00 a.m. every Wednesday and Saturday and incremental backups to tape at 6:00 a.m. every other day?
    1. One
    2. Two
    3. Three
    4. Four
  148. If you back up your network by performing a full backup every Wednesday at 6:00 p.m. and differential backups in the evening on the other six days of the week, how many jobs would be needed to completely restore a computer with a hard drive that failed on a Tuesday at noon?
    1. One
    2. Two
    3. Six
    4. Seven
  149. Why does performing incremental backups to a hard drive, rather than a tape drive, make it possible to restore a server with a single job, rather than multiple jobs?
    1. Because hard drives hold more data than tape drives
    2. Because hard drives can transfer data faster than tape drives
    3. Because hard drives are random access devices and tape drives are not
    4. Because hard drives use a different block size than tape drives
  150. Which of the following is not a fault tolerance mechanism?
    1. UPS
    2. RAID 1
    3. SNMP
    4. Clustering
  151. Which of the following is the primary difference between the Power Distribution Units (PDUs) used in datacenters and the standard power strips used in offices and homes?
    1. More outlets
    2. Larger power input
    3. Larger power output
    4. All of the above
  152. Which of the following statements about backing up a firewall's state and backing up its configuration are true? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. A backup of a firewall's state contains more data than a backup of its configuration.
    2. A backup of a firewall's configuration contains more data than a backup of its state.
    3. A backup of a firewall's state contains the exact same data as a backup of its configuration.
    4. A backup of a firewall's state includes its configuration.
    5. A backup of a firewall's configuration includes its state.
  153. Which of the following is the most commonly recommended fire suppression system for a datacenter?
    1. Carbon Dioxide
    2. Water
    3. Foam
    4. HFC-125
  154. Concurrent multipath routing (CMR) is a technique that provides which of the following benefits? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. Increased bandwidth
    2. Fault tolerance
    3. Data encapsulation
    4. Load balancing
  155. A First Hop Redundancy Protocol (FHRP) is designed to dynamically alter which one of the following Internet Protocol (IP) configuration settings on a network host?
    1. IP address
    2. Subnet mask
    3. Default gateway
    4. DNS server address
  156. Which of the following is not a First Hop Redundancy Protocol (FHRP)?
    1. CARP
    2. VRRP
    3. HSRP
    4. RARP
  157. Ralph is designing a new network with the redundant switching arrangement shown in the accompanying figure. This redundancy enables every node on the network to communicate with any other node, even if one of the switches should fail. Which of the following is a potential drawback of this arrangement?
    image
    1. Runt frames
    2. Late collisions
    3. Broadcast storms
    4. Corrupted switch lookup tables
  158. Installing redundant firewalls in a parallel configuration, as shown in the accompanying graphic, provides which of the following benefits? (Choose all that apply.)
    image
    1. Load balancing
    2. Fault tolerance
    3. Added security
    4. Enhanced performance
  159. Redundant servers running in an active-active configuration provide which of the following advantages that the same servers in an active-passive configuration do not? (Choose all that apply.)
    1. Increased performance
    2. Fault tolerance
    3. Data encapsulation
    4. Load balancing
  160. To build a network with redundant Internet connections that ensures full fault tolerance, it is necessary to use which of the following?
    1. Different ISPs
    2. Different WAN connections
    3. Different routers
    4. All of the above
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