In-Depth Answers
1. 
A is the correct answer. Each HBA in a host is assigned a WWN that is unique to it. WWN zoning allows access to LUNs based on the WWN of the device. In this way, it does not matter which port the HBA is plugged into on the switch because the zone will still allow access based on the WWN of the HBA port, which would still reside in the host.
A is the correct answer. Each HBA in a host is assigned a WWN that is unique to it. WWN zoning allows access to LUNs based on the WWN of the device. In this way, it does not matter which port the HBA is plugged into on the switch because the zone will still allow access based on the WWN of the HBA port, which would still reside in the host.
B is incorrect because the SFP is simply a transceiver, and it does not contain port information or an identification number. The SFPs can be changed without impacting the zoning. C is incorrect because port zoning would map LUNs to switch ports, which would not change automatically if a device was moved from one port to another. D is incorrect because this problem did not occur because of a zoning change. Rather, it occurred because a change was made to the physical cable. A restriction on zoning would not prevent a technician from moving a cable.Objective—Chapter 8: Storage Visibility | Zoning
(CompTIA objective 2.3, implementations, zone)
2. B is the correct answer. TOE is a chip on a NIC that performs TCP/IP processing so that the computer processor does not have to. This would reduce the CPU utilization.
B is the correct answer. TOE is a chip on a NIC that performs TCP/IP processing so that the computer processor does not have to. This would reduce the CPU utilization. A is incorrect because while it would result in more CPU, it would not do so with the least effort and cost. C is incorrect because fiber cables are not used with iSCSI for host connectivity and the problem is not one that can be solved with cables. D is also incorrect. Faster- or slower-speed cables will still require the CPU to perform TCP/IP computations.Objective—Chapter 4: Storage Networking Devices | NIC | TCP Offload Engine
(CompTIA objective 5.4, TOE)
3. A and B are the correct answers. Initiators send requests to targets. Targets are storage resources that can be utilized by initiators. An HBA and an iSCSI NIC both function as initiators.
A and B are the correct answers. Initiators send requests to targets. Targets are storage resources that can be utilized by initiators. An HBA and an iSCSI NIC both function as initiators. C is incorrect because a switch port cannot be a target or an initiator. D is incorrect because a storage controller would most likely host targets, not initiators.Objective—Chapter 3: iSCSI Storage Network | Initiator
(CompTIA objective 2.2, initiator)
4. B is the correct answer. The RPO is the recovery point objective, and it indicates how current the restore will be. The RPO relates to how much data would be lost. In this case, the RPO is 15 minutes because snapshots are taken every 15 minutes. Any data changed or added in the last 15 minutes would be lost.
B is the correct answer. The RPO is the recovery point objective, and it indicates how current the restore will be. The RPO relates to how much data would be lost. In this case, the RPO is 15 minutes because snapshots are taken every 15 minutes. Any data changed or added in the last 15 minutes would be lost. A is incorrect. It takes 2 minutes to restore from nearline storage, so 2 minutes is the recovery time objective (RTO) for restoring from nearline storage. C and D are incorrect because 45 minutes is the RTO for restoring from tape and 30 minutes is the shortest amount of time recovery from tape could be completed.Objective—Chapter 7: Continuity Concepts | RPO
(CompTIA objective 4.3, RPO and RTO)
5. D is the correct answer. Given the choices provided, you are looking for a choice that increases the speed of transfers to tape. Possible solutions would include using faster tapes or utilizing multiple tapes at the same time. A tape library allows backup software to write to multiple tapes at a time so more data could be backed up in the same backup window.
D is the correct answer. Given the choices provided, you are looking for a choice that increases the speed of transfers to tape. Possible solutions would include using faster tapes or utilizing multiple tapes at the same time. A tape library allows backup software to write to multiple tapes at a time so more data could be backed up in the same backup window. A is incorrect because a disk-to-disk solution would not archive to tape as required. B is incorrect because a tape autoloader has only one drive. C is incorrect because the same amount of data would still need to be backed up to tape with D2D2T.Objective—Chapter 4: Removable Storage | Tape Media | Libraries and Autoloaders
(CompTIA objective 1.2, tape)
6. C is the correct answer. The packet capture shows that FTP traffic is traversing the same network as iSCSI traffic. To segment this traffic, a VLAN is needed. The VLAN would allow iSCSI traffic to traverse its own network without impacting FTP traffic, and vice versa.
C is the correct answer. The packet capture shows that FTP traffic is traversing the same network as iSCSI traffic. To segment this traffic, a VLAN is needed. The VLAN would allow iSCSI traffic to traverse its own network without impacting FTP traffic, and vice versa. A is incorrect because increasing the priority of iSCSI would impact the FTP transfers. B is incorrect because decreasing the FTP priority would also impact FTP transfers. D is incorrect because the problem is not with excessive CPU processing.Objective—Chapter 5: Network Virtualization | Methods | VLAN
(CompTIA objective 2.4, VLAN)
7. A is the correct answer. Call Home is a feature of computing equipment that allows the device to send relevant alerts to the equipment vendor so that the vendor can respond independently. This allows for quicker response to critical issues because local resources do not have to analyze the logs or contact support with a trouble ticket to begin the process of resolving the issue.
A is the correct answer. Call Home is a feature of computing equipment that allows the device to send relevant alerts to the equipment vendor so that the vendor can respond independently. This allows for quicker response to critical issues because local resources do not have to analyze the logs or contact support with a trouble ticket to begin the process of resolving the issue. B is incorrect because the storage vendor did not have to review event logs to receive the alert. C is incorrect because the vendor received the alert automatically and did not need to connect to the device to look through the logs. D is incorrect because SNMP traps are used locally and would not be delivered to the storage vendor.Objective—Chapter 6: Storage Monitoring, Alerting, and Reporting | Alerting Methods
(CompTIA objective 3.5, alerting methods)
8. C is the correct answer. Of the available choices, SSD offers much greater speeds than SCSI, SAS, or SATA, but SSD is not available in as large of a capacity as SATA disks.
C is the correct answer. Of the available choices, SSD offers much greater speeds than SCSI, SAS, or SATA, but SSD is not available in as large of a capacity as SATA disks. A, B, and D are incorrect because SSD is faster than SCSI, SAS, or SATA.Objective—Chapter 1: Available Disk Interfaces and Their Characteristics
(CompTIA objective 1.1, Describe disk types, components, and features)
9. B is the correct answer. Domain IDs must be unique on the SAN, so two virtual SANs must be created to allow for the same domain ID.
B is the correct answer. Domain IDs must be unique on the SAN, so two virtual SANs must be created to allow for the same domain ID. A, C, and D are incorrect; they are all imaginary concepts that sound similar to real concepts.Objective—Chapter 5: Network Virtualization | Methods | VSAN
(CompTIA objective 3.4, VSAN/virtual fabric)
10. A is the correct answer. The multipathed server has two connections, but they are going to the same switch, and that is why both connections were lost when the switch died. Cabling each HBA to a different switch will guard against single switch failure.
A is the correct answer. The multipathed server has two connections, but they are going to the same switch, and that is why both connections were lost when the switch died. Cabling each HBA to a different switch will guard against single switch failure. B is incorrect because the software is working fine. This is a physical cabling issue. C is incorrect because the ports should be on different switches, not in a LAG group. D is incorrect because failover is not configured on the zone level.Objective—Chapter 9: Redundancy | Path/Bus | Multipath
(CompTIA objective 2.3, multipathing)
11. A is the correct answer. The figure shows two cables on each storage array, but they are going to one switch each. For the systems to be configured for high availability, the storage arrays should have a connection to both switches to protect against a switch failure.
A is the correct answer. The figure shows two cables on each storage array, but they are going to one switch each. For the systems to be configured for high availability, the storage arrays should have a connection to both switches to protect against a switch failure. B is incorrect because the switches have an ISL between them. C is incorrect because the hosts have redundant connections to both switches, and D is incorrect because the ISL connects all switches.Objective—Chapter 9: Storage Architecture Components | High Availability
(CompTIA objective 4.1, high availability)
12. C is the correct answer. A NAS hosts shares using protocols such as NFS and CIFS.
C is the correct answer. A NAS hosts shares using protocols such as NFS and CIFS. A is incorrect because iSCSI uses a block-level architecture and the iSCSI protocol, not NFS or CIFS. B is incorrect because SaaS is a cloud-based application, but this would require StaaS, cloud-based storage. D is incorrect because a DAS would provide access only to a locally attached device, and it would not support NFS or CIFS.Objective—Chapter 2: Network Attached Storage
(CompTIA objective 2.9, NAS)
13. A, C, and E are the correct answers. Answer A would increase the storage available in the pool, and then the share would expand as necessary to consume the space when it needs it. Answer C would work because this would increase the available space to that individual folder by mounting the extra space as a folder. E would work because it would utilize the same directory structure while pointing the folder that is running out of space to the new disks with available storage.
A, C, and E are the correct answers. Answer A would increase the storage available in the pool, and then the share would expand as necessary to consume the space when it needs it. Answer C would work because this would increase the available space to that individual folder by mounting the extra space as a folder. E would work because it would utilize the same directory structure while pointing the folder that is running out of space to the new disks with available storage. B is incorrect because extending a volume works only within a single RAID set or storage pool. To extend the volume, both RAID sets would need to belong to the same storage pool. D is incorrect because RAID sets cannot be modified once they are created. To add more disks to a RAID set, the data would need to be migrated to alternate storage, and then the RAID set could be deleted and re-created as a larger RAID set.Objective—Chapter 1: Hosts Interaction with Disks | File Systems
(CompTIA objective 3.3, file system)
14. B is the correct answer. Two hot spares are needed. One hot spare is needed to cover the 500GB SATA disk because a SAS disk cannot be a hot spare for a SATA, and vice versa. Another disk is needed to cover the SAS disks. A 400GB SAS 15k disk can be a hot spare for the 300 or 400GB SAS disk. Please note that a 300GB SAS 15k disk would not be able to function as a hot spare for both because it would not have enough capacity if a 400GB SAS disk failed.
B is the correct answer. Two hot spares are needed. One hot spare is needed to cover the 500GB SATA disk because a SAS disk cannot be a hot spare for a SATA, and vice versa. Another disk is needed to cover the SAS disks. A 400GB SAS 15k disk can be a hot spare for the 300 or 400GB SAS disk. Please note that a 300GB SAS 15k disk would not be able to function as a hot spare for both because it would not have enough capacity if a 400GB SAS disk failed. A is incorrect because a SAS disk cannot be used as a hot spare to a SATA disk. C is incorrect because a single SAS disk of at least 400GB can be used as a spare for all the SAS disks. D is incorrect because SSD cannot be used as a hot spare for SAS or SATA.Objective—Chapter 1: Multiple Disks for Larger Storage and Fault Tolerance | RAID Levels
(CompTIA objective 3.1, levels)
15. A is the correct answer. Each RAID 5 group will require one drive for parity, and the solution requires a drive for a hot spare, so that is three drives. To get 5TB of space using 500GB drives, 10 drives are required, so the solution requires 13 drives. This would be two 5+1 RAID sets and a hot spare.
A is the correct answer. Each RAID 5 group will require one drive for parity, and the solution requires a drive for a hot spare, so that is three drives. To get 5TB of space using 500GB drives, 10 drives are required, so the solution requires 13 drives. This would be two 5+1 RAID sets and a hot spare. B is incorrect because this does not include the hot spare. C might seem right if you forgot that both RAID sets need a parity disk, but it is incorrect. D might seem right if you forgot that both RAID sets need a parity disk and that the solution requires a hot spare.Objective—Chapter 1: Multiple Disks for Larger Storage and Fault Tolerance | RAID Levels
(CompTIA objective 3.1, levels)
16. C is the correct answer. You would need to start with the full backup. Since the scenario is using incremental backups, you need to restore all incrementals since the last full backup, so this includes the Sunday 10 A.M., 10 P.M.; Monday 10 A.M., 10 P.M.; Tuesday 10 A.M., 10 P.M.; and Wednesday 10 A.M. backups.
C is the correct answer. You would need to start with the full backup. Since the scenario is using incremental backups, you need to restore all incrementals since the last full backup, so this includes the Sunday 10 A.M., 10 P.M.; Monday 10 A.M., 10 P.M.; Tuesday 10 A.M., 10 P.M.; and Wednesday 10 A.M. backups. A is incorrect because a backup was not taken at 5 P.M. B is incorrect because incremental backups require that each incremental following the full backup be restored in sequence. This choice restores only the latest incremental, so it would not work. D is incorrect because a full backup needs to be restored before the incremental backups can be restored.Objective—Chapter 7: Backup Reliability | Backup and Restore Methods | Incremental
(CompTIA objective 4.3, backup and restore methods, incremental)
17. C is the correct answer. A RAID 10 is a stripe of mirrors. The smallest stripe requires two sets, and each mirror set requires two drives. The math is 2 × 2 = 4, so you need four drives at minimum. RAID 10 sets will always have an even number of drives.
C is the correct answer. A RAID 10 is a stripe of mirrors. The smallest stripe requires two sets, and each mirror set requires two drives. The math is 2 × 2 = 4, so you need four drives at minimum. RAID 10 sets will always have an even number of drives. A is incorrect because a single drive cannot make any of the RAID sets. B is incorrect because a RAID 10 is a stripe of mirrors, so it requires multiple mirrors, each consisting of two drives. This means that a RAID 10 set will be an even number. This also eliminates choice D.Objective—Chapter 1: Multiple Disks for Larger Storage and Fault Tolerance | RAID Levels
(CompTIA objective 3.1, levels)
18. D is the correct answer. Storage as a Service would present the files to users, but the files would be stored in the cloud.
D is the correct answer. Storage as a Service would present the files to users, but the files would be stored in the cloud. A is incorrect because SaaS is a cloud-based application. B is incorrect because PaaS is a cloud-based system and database. C is incorrect because CaaS is not a cloud solution. E is incorrect because IaaS is a cloud-based system with networking and computing resources.Objective—Chapter 9: Storage Architecture Components | Cloud Services | Storage as a Service
(CompTIA objective 2.1, Identify common storage networking industry terms)
19. A is the correct answer. The 2 P.M. snapshot offers the latest backup, and it can be recovered quickly.
A is the correct answer. The 2 P.M. snapshot offers the latest backup, and it can be recovered quickly. B is incorrect because the snapshot can be applied without first applying other backups. C is incorrect because resetting the integrity error will not solve the problem. It will remove the error from sight only until it appears again. D is incorrect because taking the node out of the cluster would move the resource to another node, which would also report an integrity error.Objective—Chapter 7: Backup Locations | Array Based | Snapshot
(CompTIA objective 4.2, snapshots and clones)
20. C is the correct answer. Since the LUN was deleted, the snapshot will not work since the snapshot stored only files that changed. A new LUN will need to be created, and then the full backup can be restored to it.
C is the correct answer. Since the LUN was deleted, the snapshot will not work since the snapshot stored only files that changed. A new LUN will need to be created, and then the full backup can be restored to it. A is incorrect because the snapshot would not work since it holds changes only to the LUN and the entire LUN has been deleted. B is incorrect because there is no LUN to restore to. Also, the snapshot is associated with a LUN, so the snapshot would be lost when the LUN was removed. D is incorrect because the LUN is not available to restore to.Objective—Chapter 7: Backup Reliability | Backup and Restore Methods
(CompTIA objective 4.3, backup and restore methods)
21. A and C are the correct answers. Traffic that is directed on the second NIC is not going through because either the switch is offline or the second controller is not configured properly.
A and C are the correct answers. Traffic that is directed on the second NIC is not going through because either the switch is offline or the second controller is not configured properly. B is incorrect because maintenance mode would restrict access to the unit entirely. D is incorrect because lost power would cause the entire unit to be unavailable. E is incorrect because a lack of VLAN configuration would result in the same experience on both switches if the solution worked at all. It would not result in the connectivity errors for just one NIC.Objective—Chapter 12: Network Troubleshooting
(CompTIA objective 2.7, Troubleshoot the following common networking problems)
22. D is the correct answer. Cable management does not extend the life of rack equipment.
D is the correct answer. Cable management does not extend the life of rack equipment. A is incorrect because cable management can keep cables away from air intake and exhaust vents. B is incorrect because bundled data cables can be routed away from bundled power cables with cable management. C is incorrect because cable management keeps the cables together so that they are not easily bumped or pulled on. It is much more difficult to stretch a set of bundled cables that are attached to supporting structures than it would be to stretch a single cable hanging loose from the back of a rack.Objective—Chapter 10: Facilities | Cable Management
(CompTIA objective 1.6, Identify the following environmental concerns and their associated impacts)
23. A is the correct answer. A high cache hit ratio means that more data is being returned directly from cache instead of having to seek from disk first.
A is the correct answer. A high cache hit ratio means that more data is being returned directly from cache instead of having to seek from disk first. B is incorrect because latency is related to distance, so a high cache hit ratio would not impact this. C is incorrect because simple utilization of system cache is not an advantage. D is incorrect because deduplication is not performed in cache hits.Objective—Chapter 12: Optimize Performance | Cache | Cache Hit and Miss
(CompTIA objective 5.1, cache, cache hit and miss)
24. E is the correct answer. The scenario requires 10GigE spanning 75 meters. Cat6a is the only solution that can meet both requirements.
E is the correct answer. The scenario requires 10GigE spanning 75 meters. Cat6a is the only solution that can meet both requirements. A is incorrect because the cables from the wiring closet to the rest of the office can handle the required 1Gbps, and Cat6 cables from the wiring closet to the server room would not provide the 10GigE connectivity because Cat6 only provides 10GigE at up to 55 meters. B is incorrect because Cat6 only provides 10GigE at up to 55 meters. C is incorrect because fiber cabling would not be able to provide Ethernet. D is incorrect because the Cat5e cables do not need to be replaced and fiber would not support Ethernet.Objective—Chapter 4: Cables | Copper Cables | Cat6a
(CompTIA objective 1.3, CAT6)
25. B is the correct answer. A disk-to-disk-to-tape solution allows for backups to be quickly written from the storage device to another disk, minimizing the duration of the backup job on the storage system. The data is then written to tape without impacting the production environment.
B is the correct answer. A disk-to-disk-to-tape solution allows for backups to be quickly written from the storage device to another disk, minimizing the duration of the backup job on the storage system. The data is then written to tape without impacting the production environment. A is incorrect because directly writing to tape would impact the storage systems for a longer period than writing to disk would. C is incorrect because NDMP would allow the storage devices to talk to the backup tapes directly, but this solution does not specify what else would be used to reduce the backup window. D is incorrect because disk to disk would not result in the data being archived to tape.Objective—Chapter 7: Backup Locations | Disk-to-Disk-to-Tape
(CompTIA objective 4.3, backup targets, D2D2T)
26. D is the correct answer. With storage tiers, the data that is most frequently used is placed on the fastest disks.
D is the correct answer. With storage tiers, the data that is most frequently used is placed on the fastest disks. A is incorrect because storage tiering does not replicate to other sites. B is incorrect because storage tiering does not remove duplicates. Duplicates would be removed with deduplication software. C is incorrect because storage tiering does not necessarily implement or enforce retention policies. Retention policies would need to be enforced through additional software controls, but they could utilize archival tiers to store some data.Objective—Chapter 11: Information Lifecycle Management | Storage Tiers
(CompTIA objective 5.2, tiering)
27. B is the correct answer. GFS backup schedules use daily, weekly, and monthly backups. Daily backups are the sons, weekly the fathers, and monthly the grandfathers, so daily is the correct answer.
B is the correct answer. GFS backup schedules use daily, weekly, and monthly backups. Daily backups are the sons, weekly the fathers, and monthly the grandfathers, so daily is the correct answer. A is incorrect because GFS backup schedules do not include hourly backups. C and D are incorrect because GFS specifies the backup intervals, not type. E is incorrect because daily backups occur more frequently than weekly backups.Objective—Chapter 7: Backup Frequency | Rotation Schemes
(CompTIA objective 4.3, rotation schemes)
28. B is the correct answer. FCoE uses Ethernet at layer 2, but higher layers are implemented with the FC protocol stack.
B is the correct answer. FCoE uses Ethernet at layer 2, but higher layers are implemented with the FC protocol stack. A is incorrect because iSCSI does not utilize FC at any layer. C is incorrect because while FCIP does use Ethernet, it also uses IP. D is incorrect because it also uses IP.Objective—Chapter 3: Fibre Channel Storage Network | Protocols | FCoE
(CompTIA objective 2.5, FCoE)
29. C is the correct answer. If seven drives are in a RAID 6 (5 + 2), two drives are used for parity, and five are available for data: 5 × 400 = 2,000.
C is the correct answer. If seven drives are in a RAID 6 (5 + 2), two drives are used for parity, and five are available for data: 5 × 400 = 2,000. A is incorrect because this assumes that all seven drives are used for data, but two are required for parity. B would be the right answer if this question asked about RAID 4, which uses only one drive for parity, but this question is using RAID 6. D is incorrect because only two drives are required for parity. The solution in choice D uses three drives for parity.Objective—Chapter 1: Multiple Disks for Larger Storage and Fault Tolerance | RAID Levels
(CompTIA objective 3.1, levels)
30. A is the correct answer. Telnet transmits data in plain text, so another solution is needed to encrypt the traffic. The first step is to remove access to Telnet by disabling port 23 on the firewall. Next, a VPN would allow for the Telnet traffic to be encapsulated in an encrypted channel.
A is the correct answer. Telnet transmits data in plain text, so another solution is needed to encrypt the traffic. The first step is to remove access to Telnet by disabling port 23 on the firewall. Next, a VPN would allow for the Telnet traffic to be encapsulated in an encrypted channel. B is incorrect because the question states that Telnet must be used, not SSH. C is incorrect because Telnet does not support encryption. D is incorrect because a locally attached serial cable would require local access, not remote access.Objective—Chapter 6: Storage Administration | CLI | Telnet, and Chapter 8: | Encryption | Data in Motion | VPN
(CompTIA objective 3.6, administration, Telnet)
31. D is the correct answer. High availability must be able to support the loss of a single component, so redundancy is necessary.
D is the correct answer. High availability must be able to support the loss of a single component, so redundancy is necessary. A is incorrect because monitoring can alert staff to a failure but not prevent it. B is incorrect because a higher SLA just increases the burden on the organization but does nothing to implement high availability. C is incorrect because offsite backups offer business continuity but not high availability. The backups would need to be restored, and this would take time, during which the system would be unavailable.Objective—Chapter 9: Storage Architecture Components | High Availability
(CompTIA objective 4.1, high availability)
32. A is the correct answer. Hot aisles are areas where hot air from computing equipment is expelled and directed back to cooling equipment, while computing equipment draws cool air from cold aisles.
A is the correct answer. Hot aisles are areas where hot air from computing equipment is expelled and directed back to cooling equipment, while computing equipment draws cool air from cold aisles. B is incorrect because high-density racks and low-density racks both would need to be directed so that their hot air flows into hot aisles. C and D are incorrect because hot and cold aisles do not aid in emergency evacuations, and neither do they aid in capacity planning.Objective—Chapter 10: Facilities | Cooling
(CompTIA objective 1.6, HVAC, improper cooling)
33. B is the correct answer. To provide concurrent access, a share must be created so the CIFS or NFS protocols could be used.
B is the correct answer. To provide concurrent access, a share must be created so the CIFS or NFS protocols could be used. A is incorrect because SNMP is a monitoring protocol, not a file access protocol. C is incorrect because Telnet is a management protocol, not a file access protocol. D and E are incorrect because iSCSI and FC provide block-level access, and this would allow only one machine to access the storage at a time, and the solution requires for many users to have concurrent access.Objective—Chapter 2: Network Attached Storage | NAS File System Protocols | CIFS
(CompTIA objective 2.4, protocols, CIFS)
34. C is the correct answer. The EXT3 file system is used on Linux.
C is the correct answer. The EXT3 file system is used on Linux. A is incorrect because Windows 98 supports only FAT16 and FAT32. B is incorrect because it supports only FAT and NTFS. D is incorrect because it uses the integrated file system, not EXT3. E is incorrect because Apple iOS uses the HFSX file system. Please note that the AS/400 and Apple iOS were not discussed in this book and will not be on the Storage+ exam.Objective—Chapter 1: Hosts Interaction with Disks | File Systems
(CompTIA objective 2.9, NAS, file system on host)
35. D is the correct answer. The storage array is configured for active/active, but the HBAs are active/passive. When the storage array sends data on the active connection that is sent to the passive connection on the host, the traffic must traverse the ISL and then be delivered to the active port. If you are using active/active in one place, try to use active/active everywhere else.
D is the correct answer. The storage array is configured for active/active, but the HBAs are active/passive. When the storage array sends data on the active connection that is sent to the passive connection on the host, the traffic must traverse the ISL and then be delivered to the active port. If you are using active/active in one place, try to use active/active everywhere else. A is incorrect because adding more ISLs solves the symptom, not the root issue. B is incorrect because a file-level architecture cannot be used to map LUNs. C is incorrect because buffer-to-buffer credits only need to be changed on links that extend over a long distance.Objective—Chapter 9: Redundancy | Clustering | Active-Active
(CompTIA objective 4.1, component redundancy, HBA)
36. A is the correct answer. Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop (FC-AL) is a loop or ring, but devices are connected to hubs that implement the loop inside them. The hubs are central devices that appear like a star configuration.
A is the correct answer. Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop (FC-AL) is a loop or ring, but devices are connected to hubs that implement the loop inside them. The hubs are central devices that appear like a star configuration. B is incorrect because FC-SW, switch fabric, is not a logical ring. It is a logical star. C is incorrect because P2P is not a physical star. It is a bus. D is incorrect because Ethernet is not a topology.Objective—Chapter 3: Fibre Channel Storage Network | Topologies | Arbitrated Loop
(CompTIA objective 2.3, topologies, arbitrated loop)
37. D is the correct answer. A router receives information from its neighbors on the networks that each device manages and on how many hops it takes to get to the destination through a device. If a connection fails, the routers update the number of hops to compensate so that they maintain accurate information on how to route packets through a network.
D is the correct answer. A router receives information from its neighbors on the networks that each device manages and on how many hops it takes to get to the destination through a device. If a connection fails, the routers update the number of hops to compensate so that they maintain accurate information on how to route packets through a network. A is incorrect because a switch does not receive information from its neighbors to make such decisions. It maintains a bridging table that it builds itself and makes only decisions on how to send data to local devices. B is incorrect because a director is just an upgraded switch. C is incorrect because a repeater just takes a signal and rebroadcasts it. It does not make a routing or forwarding decision. E is incorrect because transceivers convert one signal type to another but do not make routing or forwarding decisions.Objective—Chapter 4: Storage Networking Devices | Router
(CompTIA objective 1.4, router)
38. A is the correct answer. ISNS is a database of targets that can be queried by initiators.
A is the correct answer. ISNS is a database of targets that can be queried by initiators. B is incorrect because iSNS does not perform monitoring or alerting functions. C is incorrect because FC addresses are registered by one of the FC services, not iSNS. D is incorrect because iSNS does not have any understanding of load balancing, nor can it configure it.Objective—Chapter 8: Storage Visibility | iSCSI Security | iSCSI and iSNS Security
(CompTIA objective 4.4, storage security)
39. D is the correct answer. Tape is an inexpensive way to archive data, and it comes in large capacities.
D is the correct answer. Tape is an inexpensive way to archive data, and it comes in large capacities. A is incorrect because it would take many DVDs to back up 400GB of data. B is incorrect because it would take many flash drives to archive this much data. C is incorrect because nearline storage is more expensive than tape.Objective—Chapter 4: Removable Storage
(CompTIA objective 1.2, Compare removable media types, components, and features)
40. A is the correct answer. ISLs link fiber switches together, and expansion ports (e-ports) are used to connect to other switches.
A is the correct answer. ISLs link fiber switches together, and expansion ports (e-ports) are used to connect to other switches. B is incorrect because F-ports connect to N-ports on nodes. C is incorrect because an ISL is required. D is incorrect because an ISL is required and F-ports are not used for ISLs.Objective—Chapter 3: Fibre Channel Storage Network | ISL
(CompTIA objective 1.4, ISL)
41. D is the correct answer. Remote replication would store the data at another site, and the data could be used there if the first site becomes unavailable.
D is the correct answer. Remote replication would store the data at another site, and the data could be used there if the first site becomes unavailable. A is incorrect because offsite tapes would have to be restored to equipment, but the equipment in the scenario was consumed by the fire. B is incorrect because HSM organizes data into tiers but does not protect it against site loss. C is incorrect because snapshots are used within a storage array, and they would be lost along with the array in the fire.Objective—Chapter 9: Replication | Scope | Remote
(CompTIA objective 4.2, local vs. remote)
42. B is the correct answer. A baseline is a record of metrics under normal load. Comparing current data to the baseline will help identify items that are slower than the baseline.
B is the correct answer. A baseline is a record of metrics under normal load. Comparing current data to the baseline will help identify items that are slower than the baseline. A is incorrect because an alert would notify of an item that is in an error condition or exceeding a threshold, but it would not be compared to the current metrics. C is incorrect because the scope defines the area affected but could not be used to compare against current metrics. D is incorrect because the logs would contain a large amount of data that would not match up to the collected metrics.Objective—Chapter 6: Storage Monitoring, Alerting, and Reporting | Recording a Baseline
(CompTIA objective 5.5, baselining and data capture)
43. C is the correct answer. A consistency group ensures that a set of writes is performed on each member of the group. Items in a consistency group retain the same data, and writes that occur to one member of the group will not be fully committed until they have been implemented across all members of the consistency group.
C is the correct answer. A consistency group ensures that a set of writes is performed on each member of the group. Items in a consistency group retain the same data, and writes that occur to one member of the group will not be fully committed until they have been implemented across all members of the consistency group. A is incorrect because a snapshot would track changes to data from a point in time. B is incorrect because replication alone would not ensure consistency because some data may not have been replicated yet. D is incorrect because integrity groups were not discussed and are not related to replication or transaction commitment.Objective—Chapter 7: Backup Locations | Array Based | Consistency Group
(CompTIA objective 4.2, replication consistency)
44. A is the correct answer. LTO3 tapes have a native capacity of 400GB and a compressed capacity of 800GB.
A is the correct answer. LTO3 tapes have a native capacity of 400GB and a compressed capacity of 800GB. B is incorrect because this is the capacity of an LTO3 tape, not an LTO4 tape. C is incorrect because this is the capacity of an LTO4 tape, not an LTO5 tape. D is incorrect because LTO2 tapes have a native capacity of 200GB and a compressed capacity of 400GB.Objective—Chapter 4: Removable Storage | Tape Media | LTO Versions
(CompTIA objective 1.2, LTO versions)
45. C is the correct answer. Asynchronous replication would send data to the remote site when possible and would not wait to commit new transactions if data had not been replicated yet.
C is the correct answer. Asynchronous replication would send data to the remote site when possible and would not wait to commit new transactions if data had not been replicated yet. A is incorrect because synchronous replication would make the main database wait to commit transactions until they had been committed at the remote site as well. Since the link between sites is high latency, this would reduce performance considerably. B is incorrect because direct replication is not a form of replication. D is incorrect because the question is concerned with consistency between sites and the impact this has on production, not on where the replication is managed.Objective—Chapter 9: Replication | Continuous Replication
(CompTIA objective 4.2, Compare and contrast different replication methods and properties)
46. C is the correct answer. A switch would connect the four front-end ports and the five host ports and allow communication between them.
C is the correct answer. A switch would connect the four front-end ports and the five host ports and allow communication between them. A is incorrect because a director is not needed in this simple situation. B is incorrect because a router would be needed only if the storage array was on a different network. D is incorrect because a repeater would only rebroadcast a signal, not allow additional connectivity.Objective—Chapter 4: Storage Networking Devices
(CompTIA objective 1.4, Describe the uses of physical networking hardware)
47. C is the correct answer. There is a head at the top and bottom of each platter. All heads are attached to the same actuator arm.
C is the correct answer. There is a head at the top and bottom of each platter. All heads are attached to the same actuator arm. A is incorrect because each head does not have its own actuator arm. They are all on the same arm. B is incorrect because each head can read data only from a single platter. D is incorrect because it references disks, not platters. There is a head for each platter, not disk.Objective—Chapter 1: How Disk Storage Systems Work | Physical Components | Heads
(CompTIA objective 1.1, heads)
48. B is the correct answer. A controller is mounted to the base of the disk and contains an interface for sending and receiving data to a connected device.
B is the correct answer. A controller is mounted to the base of the disk and contains an interface for sending and receiving data to a connected device. A is incorrect because it is incomplete. The controller board operates more than just the movement of the actuator arm. C and D are incorrect because the controller board is not mounted to the top of the disk.Objective—Chapter 1: Storage Networking Devices | Physical Components | Controller
(CompTIA objective 1.1, Describe disk types, components, and features)
49. A is the correct answer. Solid state organizes data into blocks rather than tracks and selectors.
A is the correct answer. Solid state organizes data into blocks rather than tracks and selectors. B is incorrect because SSD consists of blocks made up of pages, not HDD. C is incorrect because SSD blocks are not 128 bytes. D is incorrect because logical bit addressing is not an addressing method, and SSDs do not use a master table.Objective—Chapter 1: How Storage Systems Work | SSD
(CompTIA objective 1.1, SSD)
50. D is the correct answer. Fibre Channel references other devices on the network by using a worldwide name (WWN).
D is the correct answer. Fibre Channel references other devices on the network by using a worldwide name (WWN). A is incorrect because SCAS is not a method of referencing other devices. B is incorrect because Fibre Channel does not use a reference ID. C is incorrect because a twofold security connection number is not an element of FC.Objective—Chapter 3: Fibre Channel Storage Network | Components | Worldwide Name
(CompTIA objective 2.1, worldwide node name, worldwide port name)
51. C is the correct answer. Fibre Channel layer 3 is the services layer. This layer supports striping, hunt groups, and the spanning of multiple ports.
C is the correct answer. Fibre Channel layer 3 is the services layer. This layer supports striping, hunt groups, and the spanning of multiple ports. A is incorrect because layer 3 is the services layer, not the block layer. B is incorrect because FC does not use frames, and layer 3 is the services layer, not the processing layer. D is incorrect because layer 3 is not the infrastructure layer.Objective—Chapter 3: Fibre Channel Storage Network | Protocols | FCP
(CompTIA objective 2.3, protocols, FCP)
52. D is the correct answer. A WWN is an 8-byte or 16-byte identifier for a network communication port on a Fibre Channel network.
D is the correct answer. A WWN is an 8-byte or 16-byte identifier for a network communication port on a Fibre Channel network. A is incorrect because a WWN is 8 or 16 bytes, not 16 or 32 bytes. B is incorrect because WWNs are used on an FC network while IP addresses are used on an IP network. C is incorrect because WWNs are used in Fibre Channel, not simple channel access.Objective—Chapter 3: Fibre Channel Storage Network | Components | Worldwide Name
(CompTIA objective 2.1, worldwide node name, worldwide port name)
53. C is the correct answer. Input/output operations per second (IOPS) is one of the most basic metrics used in measuring storage performance.
C is the correct answer. Input/output operations per second (IOPS) is one of the most basic metrics used in measuring storage performance. A is incorrect because FTP is used for sending and receiving files and is not a performance metric measurement method. B is incorrect because system storage monitoring is not a specific metric. D is incorrect because send receive operations per second is not a metric that is used.Objective—Chapter 12: Optimize Performance | Necessary IOPS
(CompTIA objective 5.1, IOPS calculations)
54. B is the correct answer. Optical cables transmit data via light impulses.
B is the correct answer. Optical cables transmit data via light impulses. A is incorrect because optical cables transmit data via light, not long-range frequencies. C and D are incorrect because optical cables use light instead of electromagnetic waves or impulses. Copper cables conduct electromagnetic waves.Objective—Chapter 4: Cables | Optical Cables
(CompTIA objective 1.3, fiber cables)
55. D is the correct answer. A converged network adapter (CNA) is a device capable of connecting a host to storage with connections over FC, Ethernet, or twinax connections.
D is the correct answer. A converged network adapter (CNA) is a device capable of connecting a host to storage with connections over FC, Ethernet, or twinax connections. A is incorrect because CNAs are not used with iSCSI. B is incorrect because it is incomplete. This is only one thing that a CNA can do. C is incorrect because a CNA is a card that is added to a host rather than being built onboard.Objective—Chapter 4: Storage Networking Devices | CNA
(CompTIA objective 1.4, CNA)
56. A is the correct answer. A fiber director is a high-capacity modular switch with two or more hot-swappable power supplies and redundant routing engines, pathways, and processors.
A is the correct answer. A fiber director is a high-capacity modular switch with two or more hot-swappable power supplies and redundant routing engines, pathways, and processors. B is incorrect because a director is not a layer 3 device. C is incorrect because a director is not used for WAN connections. D is incorrect because a director does not perform filtering.Objective—Chapter 4: Storage Networking Devices | Director
(CompTIA objective 1.4, directors)
57. C is the correct answer. Buffer underrun is a condition where the buffer is emptied during the process of burning information to a disk.
C is the correct answer. Buffer underrun is a condition where the buffer is emptied during the process of burning information to a disk. A is incorrect because the buffer underrun is a specific failure when the buffer is empty during the burn process. There are many errors from the write process that would not be considered buffer underrun. B is incorrect because buffer underrun is not related to scratches on the disk. D is incorrect because a drive that cannot read a disk at the optimal speed is a speed mismatch, and this choice is related to reads rather than writes.Objective—Chapter 4: Removable Storage | Optical Media
(CompTIA objective 1.2, other removable media)
58. A is the correct answer. SNIA describes storage virtualization as the application of virtualization to storage services or devices for the purposes of aggregating functions or devices, hiding complexity, or adding new capabilities to lower-level storage resources.
A is the correct answer. SNIA describes storage virtualization as the application of virtualization to storage services or devices for the purposes of aggregating functions or devices, hiding complexity, or adding new capabilities to lower-level storage resources. B is incorrect because storage virtualization virtualizes storage resources, not software. C is incorrect because with storage virtualization there are proprietary storage virtualization technologies that do not offer interoperability. D is incorrect because storage virtualization is not used to limit data access.Objective—Chapter 5: Types of Storage Virtualization
(CompTIA objective 3.4, Describe general virtualization concepts)
59. A is the correct answer. The file/record layer is the layer that organizes the information required by the application and interfaces with the application.
A is the correct answer. The file/record layer is the layer that organizes the information required by the application and interfaces with the application. B is incorrect because the mapping of logical addresses to physical addresses is how disks use virtualization. C is incorrect because this choice describes block virtualization. D is incorrect because this describes tape virtualization.Objective—Chapter 5: Types of Storage Virtualization
(CompTIA objective 3.4, Describe general virtualization concepts)
60. A is the correct answer. Privileged provisioning is not a form of storage provisioning.
A is the correct answer. Privileged provisioning is not a form of storage provisioning. B is incorrect because LUN provisioning is a form of provisioning of logical units. C is incorrect because thick provisioning creates a logical unit of a specified size. D is also incorrect because thin provisioning creates a logical unit that is variable in size.Objective—Chapter 6: Provision Storage for Use
(CompTIA objective 3.2, Given a scenario, execute storage provisioning techniques)
61. D is the correct answer. In-band or out-of-band virtualization can consolidate the virtual platform for network storage management.
D is the correct answer. In-band or out-of-band virtualization can consolidate the virtual platform for network storage management. A is incorrect because only out-of-band virtualization optimizes SAN utilization and performance. B is incorrect because only out-of-band virtualization offloads storage management from the host since the management device exists outside the host-to-SAN relationship. C is incorrect because only out-of-band virtualization avoids latency.Objective—Chapter 5: Types of Storage Virtualization
(CompTIA objective 3.4, Describe general virtualization concepts)
62. B is the correct answer. Host virtualization is not a type of storage virtualization.
B is the correct answer. Host virtualization is not a type of storage virtualization. A, C, and D are incorrect because disk, block, and tape virtualization are all types of storage virtualization.Objective—Chapter 5: Types of Storage Virtualization
(CompTIA objective 3.4, Describe general virtualization concepts)
63. D is the correct answer. Cache is high-speed memory that can be used to service I/O requests faster than accessing the disk.
D is the correct answer. Cache is high-speed memory that can be used to service I/O requests faster than accessing the disk. A is incorrect. While memory is faster than disk, it is not used to service I/O requests. B is incorrect because logical disks are not faster than physical disks. C is incorrect because SSD is a form of physical disk.Objective—Chapter 12: Optimize Performance | Cache
(CompTIA objective 5.1, cache)
64. A is the correct answer. The Common Information Model is an object-oriented approach to organizing information where objects have attributes and each is created from a class that describes the format of the object.
A is the correct answer. The Common Information Model is an object-oriented approach to organizing information where objects have attributes and each is created from a class that describes the format of the object. B is incorrect because this describes in-band management. C is incorrect because it describes thin provisioning. D is incorrect because it describes setting thresholds.Objective—Chapter 6: Management Protocols | WBEM
(CompTIA objective 3.6, management protocols, WBEM)
65. D is the correct answer. When in-band storage management is utilized, data as well as management and monitoring information travel over the same path.
D is the correct answer. When in-band storage management is utilized, data as well as management and monitoring information travel over the same path. A is incorrect because it describes out-of-band management. B is incorrect because in-band management is concerned with the path the data uses, not whether it is an appliance. Also, this answer has the management and monitoring of data occurring on the appliance, but the transfer of data is not mentioned. C is incorrect because this separates the data from the management and monitoring, as would be performed in out-of-band management.Objective—Chapter 6: Management Protocols | In-Band vs. Out-of-Band Management
(CompTIA objective 3.6, in-band vs. out-of-band management)
66. A is the correct answer. Appliance-based data migration is data migration in which stand-alone network appliances migrate files and volumes, interfacing with storage systems and providing a separate interface for managing the replication.
A is the correct answer. Appliance-based data migration is data migration in which stand-alone network appliances migrate files and volumes, interfacing with storage systems and providing a separate interface for managing the replication. B is incorrect because appliance-based migration can operate on data or applications. It is not what is being moved, but how it is being moved that this question is concerned with. C is incorrect because the data on the appliances themselves is not being migrated in this situation. D is incorrect because an appliance would require configuration and possibly some customization for it to work.Objective—Chapter 11: Deduplication and Compression | Deduplication Software and Appliances
(CompTIA objective 3.8, software based vs. appliance based)
67. D is the correct answer. Thick logical units take up the same amount of space as is presented to the host operating system.
D is the correct answer. Thick logical units take up the same amount of space as is presented to the host operating system. A is incorrect because thick logical units take up the assigned amount of space, so if 100GB is allocated, the logical unit will be 100GB even if only 20GB is stored in it. B is incorrect because thick logical units do not allocate additional space beyond what is assigned. C is incorrect because thick logical units can be any size.Objective—Chapter 6: Storage Provisioning | Thick Provisioning
(CompTIA objective 3.2, Given a scenario, execute storage provisioning techniques)
68. A is the correct answer. Data integrity is assurance that data remains unchanged after creating, modifying, copying, completing, or otherwise operating on data.
A is the correct answer. Data integrity is assurance that data remains unchanged after creating, modifying, copying, completing, or otherwise operating on data. B is incorrect because having backups does not mean you will know when to use them or when data has been changed or corrupted. C is incorrect because data tampering is only one way data integrity could be lost. Encryption is primarily used to protect confidentiality, not integrity. D is incorrect because integrity is not concerned with how the data is used, just that it remains unchanged in between authorized changes.Objective—Chapter 7: Backup Reliability | Backup Reliability Methods | Data Integrity
(CompTIA objective 4.3, verify backups, data integrity)
69. C is the correct answer. Workflow error is much too specific to be considered a broad classification for a cause of system outages.
C is the correct answer. Workflow error is much too specific to be considered a broad classification for a cause of system outages. A, B, and D are incorrect because human error, intentional error, and systematic error can all be considered a broad classification for the cause of system outages.Objective—Chapter 9: Storage Architecture Components | High Availability
(CompTIA objective 4.1, high availability)
70. A is the correct answer. The primary objective of business continuity planning is to provide a proactive strategy to prevent or limit the impact of system failures and to rapidly restore operations should such events occur.
A is the correct answer. The primary objective of business continuity planning is to provide a proactive strategy to prevent or limit the impact of system failures and to rapidly restore operations should such events occur. B is incorrect because this describes disaster recovery. C and D are incorrect because these address only part of business continuity.Objective—Chapter 7: Continuity Concepts
(CompTIA objective 4.0, data protection)
71. B is the correct answer. The cost per year in this case is 18 hours of lost productivity. Every other month means six times per year, and the loss is three hours per month: 6 × 3 = 18.
B is the correct answer. The cost per year in this case is 18 hours of lost productivity. Every other month means six times per year, and the loss is three hours per month: 6 × 3 = 18. A, C, and D are incorrect because 6 months × 3 hours = 18 hours of lost productivity, not 12, 24, or 36.Objective—Chapter 7: Continuity Concepts | Data Value and Risk
(CompTIA objective 4.4, Explain the basic concepts and importance of data security)
72. A is the correct answer. You must first know how available the system should be in order to determine how much redundancy should be put in place to achieve that availability. This availability measurement is usually expressed as a percentage of uptime such as 99.9 percent.
A is the correct answer. You must first know how available the system should be in order to determine how much redundancy should be put in place to achieve that availability. This availability measurement is usually expressed as a percentage of uptime such as 99.9 percent. B is incorrect because logical block addressing will help locate data on disk, not identify how much redundancy is needed. C is incorrect because the failover system is a component of redundancy that might be put in place, but it is not a factor to determine what is needed. D is incorrect because replication is a method for achieving redundancy, so it should not be used to determine whether redundancy should be put in place. The decision should be based on a business decision on the required uptime.Objective—Chapter 9: Storage Architecture Components | High Availability
(CompTIA objective 4.1, high availability)
73. D is the correct answer. A risk assessment analyzes the factors that could impact the integrity, confidentiality, or availability of business systems and their expected damage/likelihood.
D is the correct answer. A risk assessment analyzes the factors that could impact the integrity, confidentiality, or availability of business systems and their expected damage/likelihood. A is incorrect because it is incomplete. The threats alone do not provide enough information to make a decision on the security controls to implement. B is also incorrect because it is incomplete. Choice B is the other part that is required to make a decision. Both the threats and the damage/impact are used to calculate risk. C is incorrect because organizational security as a whole is too broad a scope for a risk assessment.Objective—Chapter 7: Continuity Concepts | Data Value and Risk
(CompTIA objective 4.4, Explain the basic concepts and importance of data security)
74. B is the correct answer. A business impact analysis estimates the cost an organization could incur should systems be unavailable because of incident or disaster.
B is the correct answer. A business impact analysis estimates the cost an organization could incur should systems be unavailable because of incident or disaster. A is incorrect because the BIA is also concerned with the cost to the business’s image, sales, and competitive advantage, to name a few costs. C is incorrect because the BIA may include time as an input to the cost, but that is not the main concern. D is incorrect because the controls required to bring risks below the organization’s risk tolerance level is part of the risk assessment.Objective—Chapter 7: Continuity Concepts
(CompTIA objective 4.0, data protection)
75. B is the correct answer. In remote authentication, passwords are sent via the network, while physical authentication is done on the machine being logged into.
B is the correct answer. In remote authentication, passwords are sent via the network, while physical authentication is done on the machine being logged into. A is incorrect because remote authentication could be used to connect to computers at the same site. C is incorrect because visual patterns are not used in authentication, and there are many types of physical authentication, even if this were an option. D is incorrect because physical authentication is used for devices you are directly interfacing with, not remote authenticators.Objective—Chapter 8: Access Control | Authentication | Physical Authentication
(CompTIA objective 4.4, access management, physical access)
76. B is the correct answer. Failover is the transfer of services in a redundant system from one device to another.
B is the correct answer. Failover is the transfer of services in a redundant system from one device to another. A is incorrect because service redundancy can be achieved with or without failover. C and D are incorrect because overflow and component transfer are not storage concepts.Objective—Chapter 9: Storage Architecture Components | High Availability | Failover
(CompTIA objective 2.3, multipathing, failover)
77. B is the correct answer. OLTP provides immediate response and high availability.
B is the correct answer. OLTP provides immediate response and high availability. A, C, and D are incorrect because these are made-up terms.Objective—Chapter 9: Storage Architecture Components | OLTP
(CompTIA objective 2.1, Identify common storage networking industry terms)
78. D is the correct answer. N-port virtualization allows multiple N-ports to reside on the same physical N-port.
D is the correct answer. N-port virtualization allows multiple N-ports to reside on the same physical N-port. A is incorrect because a VSAN is a way to logically partition a SAN into an isolated virtual storage area where network communication is restricted to a virtual domain. B is incorrect because state change notifications are used to inform fiber devices about the presence of devices on the fiber network. C is incorrect because PLOGI is a port logon.Objective—Chapter 3: Fibre Channel Storage Network | Components | Addressing | Alias
(CompTIA objective 2.2, alias)
79. B is the correct answer. A single point of failure is a single configuration, a network, hardware, or software malfunctioning and causing the entire system or process to fail.
B is the correct answer. A single point of failure is a single configuration, a network, hardware, or software malfunctioning and causing the entire system or process to fail. A is incorrect because a large-scale system failure indicates more than a single failure or a catastrophic failure, which may not be the case in all instances of a single device failure. C is incorrect because a network failure does not necessarily indicate a failure of a single component. D is incorrect because a server-side power failure is only one example of a component that could fail.Objective—Chapter 9: Storage Architecture Components | High Availability | Single Point of Failure
(CompTIA objective 4.1, single point of failure)
80. A is the correct answer. Secondary risk is risk caused by another risk response strategy.
A is the correct answer. Secondary risk is risk caused by another risk response strategy. B is incorrect because a risk that is moderately likely to occur is something risk managers would need to evaluate against the potential impact to determine reasonable controls. C is incorrect because a risk that can occur when multiple other risks occur is part of the impact of the risk. D is incorrect because the secondary risk is not a second opinion.Objective—Chapter 7: Continuity Concepts | Data Value and Risk
(CompTIA objective 4.4, Explain the basic concepts and importance of data security)
81. B is the correct answer. Low humidity can lead to electrostatic discharge.
B is the correct answer. Low humidity can lead to electrostatic discharge. A is incorrect because a charge does not create water damage. C is incorrect because the buildup of charge would not be sufficient enough to cause overheating. D is incorrect because electrical failure would be a byproduct of another failure.Objective—Chapter 10: Facilities | Humidity Control
(CompTIA objective 1.6, HVAC, adequate humidity control)
82. B is the correct answer. HFC-125 removes heat from fire. Other agents that remove heat from fire include FM-200 and HFC-237ea.
B is the correct answer. HFC-125 removes heat from fire. Other agents that remove heat from fire include FM-200 and HFC-237ea. A and C are incorrect because they are not real gaseous agents. D is incorrect because HVAC is the heating and cooling systems in place in an organization.Objective—Chapter 10: Facilities | Fire Suppression
(CompTIA objective 1.6, fire suppression)
83. D is the correct answer. Rack density refers to the number of devices in the rack.
D is the correct answer. Rack density refers to the number of devices in the rack. A is incorrect because heat is measured in BTUs. B is incorrect because cables do not have an impact on how dense the rack is. C is incorrect because the type of device is not a factor in determining density.Objective—Chapter 10: Safety | Weight Considerations | Floor and Rack Loading
(CompTIA objective 1.6, floor and rack loading)
84. B is the correct answer. Replication transfers data between hosts or storage systems.
B is the correct answer. Replication transfers data between hosts or storage systems. A is incorrect because a transfer protocol can be used for many data transmissions that are not periodic. C is incorrect because backups do not always occur between hosts or storage systems. D is incorrect because system support is the ongoing maintenance of a system, not the transference of data at periodic intervals.Objective—Chapter 9: Replication
(CompTIA objective 4.2, Compare and contrast different replication methods and properties)
85. B is the correct answer. Hierarchical storage management presents files and directories as a composite object with a single integrated file interface.
B is the correct answer. Hierarchical storage management presents files and directories as a composite object with a single integrated file interface. A is incorrect because a block management architecture does not exist. A block-level architecture exists, but it is not concerned with files but rather the blocks that make up logical units. Files may or may not reside in these blocks. C is incorrect because manual storage tiering requires intervention to optimize the location of data. D is incorrect because a storage management system is much too broad a system to be described as presenting a composite object with a single integrated file interface.Objective—Chapter 11: Information Lifecycle Management | HSM
(CompTIA objective 5.2, tiering, HSM)
86. B is the correct answer. The alias directs traffic to a group of N-ports that are part of a multicast or hunt group.
B is the correct answer. The alias directs traffic to a group of N-ports that are part of a multicast or hunt group. A is incorrect because the alias is not used for failover. C is incorrect because the alias is not a descriptive name. D is incorrect because the alias has not been removed from the FC protocol and it is still in use.Objective—Chapter 3: Fibre Channel Storage Network | Components | Addressing | Alias
(CompTIA objective 2.2, alias)
87. B is the correct answer. Litigation holds specify the data that should be preserved for potential or ongoing litigation.
B is the correct answer. Litigation holds specify the data that should be preserved for potential or ongoing litigation. A is incorrect because a mandatory preservation is simply a requirement to preserve data but not necessarily related to lawsuits. C is incorrect because trial backup requirements is a made-up term. D is incorrect because the term is litigation hold, not litigation preservation.Objective—Chapter 11: Compliance | Preservation and Litigation Holds
(CompTIA objective 3.7, compliance and preservation)
88. B is the correct answer. Shoe-shining occurs when the device sending data to the tape does not send data fast enough so the tape has to stop and rewind so that the data will be written sequentially.
B is the correct answer. Shoe-shining occurs when the device sending data to the tape does not send data fast enough so the tape has to stop and rewind so that the data will be written sequentially. A is incorrect because a dirty drive will cause data read and write errors. C is incorrect because a cable problem would result in communication loss or errors. D is incorrect because mounting a tape for random reads would not issue writes to the drive.Objective—Chapter 4: Removable Storage | Tape Media | Shoe-Shining/Backhitching
(CompTIA objective 1.2, tape, shoe-shining)
89. C is the correct answer. A grid breaks up files into segments, or it can store an entire file on a node in the grid. Files or segments are often replicated to other nodes for redundancy.
C is the correct answer. A grid breaks up files into segments, or it can store an entire file on a node in the grid. Files or segments are often replicated to other nodes for redundancy. A is incorrect because a full mesh controller does not exist. B is incorrect because the cache is used to store files that are waiting to be written to disk or that may be read from the array. D is incorrect because dual controllers do not break files into segments and they operate on only one node.Objective—Chapter 2: Storage Array | Controller Head
(CompTIA objective 1.5, controller head)
90. B is the correct answer. A hop measures how many devices are traversed between source and destination.
B is the correct answer. A hop measures how many devices are traversed between source and destination. A is incorrect because a jump is not a networking term. C is incorrect because latency measures the time from source to destination. D is incorrect because ping measures whether connectivity exists.Objective—Chapter 12: Performance Metrics and Tools | Switch | Hops
(CompTIA objective 5.5, switch, hops)
91. A is the correct answer. Class of service is used to prioritize traffic.
A is the correct answer. Class of service is used to prioritize traffic. B is incorrect because routing delivers packets across networks. C is incorrect because this is a made-up term. D is incorrect because switching delivers frames to ports based on MAC addresses.Objective—Chapter 12: Network Device Bandwidth | Class of Service
(CompTIA objective 5.3, class of service)
92. D is the correct answer. iSCSI would take advantage of the Ethernet network, and VLANs would segment the iSCSI traffic from the normal LAN traffic.
D is the correct answer. iSCSI would take advantage of the Ethernet network, and VLANs would segment the iSCSI traffic from the normal LAN traffic. A and B are incorrect because FC would not utilize the Ethernet network. C is incorrect because it is better to segment the iSCSI traffic from the LAN traffic with VLANs.Objective—Chapter 3: iSCSI Storage Network
(CompTIA objective 2.3, protocols, iSCSI)
93. D is the correct answer. Since the power is A/B, each circuit must be able to handle the entire load. Since the peak load is 60 percent, this would translate to 120 percent in failover mode when 80 percent is the max recommended.
D is the correct answer. Since the power is A/B, each circuit must be able to handle the entire load. Since the peak load is 60 percent, this would translate to 120 percent in failover mode when 80 percent is the max recommended. A is incorrect because a single circuit could not handle the entire load if one circuit fails. B is incorrect because circuits do not always provide 100 percent of their available power, and reducing both links to 50 percent could result in a load that the circuit could not handle in failover. C is incorrect because a third circuit would not be on A/B power.Objective—Chapter 10: Storage Power Requirements | Sufficient Capacity
(CompTIA objective 1.6, adequate power, sufficient capacity)
94. D is the correct answer. A motherboard is not hot swappable.
D is the correct answer. A motherboard is not hot swappable. A, B, and C are incorrect because they are all hot swappable.Objective—Chapter 4: Storage Networking Devices | Hot Swappable Network Components
(CompTIA objective 1.4, hot pluggable)
95. B, D, and E are the correct answers. SCSI, SAS, and FC disks can all run at 15,000 rpm.
B, D, and E are the correct answers. SCSI, SAS, and FC disks can all run at 15,000 rpm. A and C are incorrect because IDE and SATA have a maximum rpm of 7,200.Objective—Chapter 1: Available Disk Interfaces and Their Characteristics
(CompTIA objective 1.1, Describe disk types, components, and features)
96. A is the correct answer. A host bus adapter is used to connect to a Fibre Channel SAN.
A is the correct answer. A host bus adapter is used to connect to a Fibre Channel SAN. B is incorrect because a NIC is used to connect to an Ethernet network or iSCSI SAN. C is incorrect because a modem is used to create a dial-up connection. D is incorrect because TOE is a function of a NIC that offloads the processing of TCP/IP to the NIC.Objective—Chapter 4: Storage Networking Devices | HBA
(CompTIA objective 1.4, HBA)
97. C is the correct answer. A wrist strap can take excess electrostatic charge and direct it to a ground instead of sensitive components.
C is the correct answer. A wrist strap can take excess electrostatic charge and direct it to a ground instead of sensitive components. A is incorrect because a hard hat protects against head injury. B is incorrect because a lifting belt protects against back injury. D is incorrect because aluminum is a conductor of electricity and could increase the chance of electrostatic discharge.Objective—Chapter 10: Safety | Antistatic Devices
(CompTIA objective 1.7, antistatic devices)
98. B is the correct answer. Many modern flash drives can hold 10GB of data, and they are easy to use.
B is the correct answer. Many modern flash drives can hold 10GB of data, and they are easy to use. A and C are incorrect because a DVD or CD would not be able to hold 10GB of data. D is incorrect because a tape would require a tape drive capable of reading the tape at the user’s desk and the remote office.Objective—Chapter 4: Removable Storage
(CompTIA objective 1.2, other removable media)
99. D is the correct answer. A storage area network (SAN) connects disk arrays, tape drives, and other storage components to servers and hosts.
D is the correct answer. A storage area network (SAN) connects disk arrays, tape drives, and other storage components to servers and hosts. A is incorrect because a NAS connects servers to network shares. B is incorrect because a DAS can only connect to devices directly attached to it. C is incorrect because a LAN is used for communication between hosts and servers.Objective—Chapter 2: Storage Area Networks
(CompTIA objective 2.9, SAN)
100. C is the correct answer. Alerts can send e-mails or notify administrators in other ways when certain conditions are met.
C is the correct answer. Alerts can send e-mails or notify administrators in other ways when certain conditions are met. A is incorrect because a baseline is a measurement of normal activity. B is incorrect because a threshold is a limit that defines an error condition. D is incorrect because logs record activities performed on a device.Objective—Chapter 6: Storage Monitoring, Alerting, and Reporting | Setting Alerts
(CompTIA objective 3.5, setting alerts)
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