Practice Exam
This practice exam has been written to emulate the types of questions you can expect to see on the CompTIA Storage+ exam. Try to simulate a real testing environment and find a quiet spot where you will not be interrupted. Give yourself 90 minutes to answer all 100 questions.
Once you have answered as many questions as you can in 90 minutes (or are satisfied with your answers if you finish before your 90 minutes are up), go to the “Quick Answer Key” section to score your exam. Review the in-depth answer explanations and references for any answers that were incorrect and then go to the “Analyzing Your Results” section to review your score.
Questions
1. After configuring storage on a storage array for a host, you find that a technician has moved fiber cables on the fiber switch, causing the assigned LUNs to disappear from the host. What should you do to prevent this from occurring in the future?
A. Utilize WWN zoning
B. Secure the SFPs to the switch with zip ties
C. Utilize port zoning
D. Restrict access to the SAN zoning to storage administrators only
2. A host connected to an iSCSI SAN is experiencing high CPU utilization. Which option would resolve the issue with the least effort and cost?
A. Replace the CPU with a faster one
B. Replace the NIC with a NIC with TOE
C. Upgrade copper cables to fiber
D. Upgrade Cat5e cables to Cat6a
3. Which of the following would be considered an initiator? (Choose two.)
A. HBA
B. iSCSI NIC
C. Switch port
D. Storage controller
4. Snapshots are taken every 15 minutes of an e-mail server and then sent to a nearline storage array. The e-mail backups on the nearline storage array are archived to tape at 10 P.M. each day. Restore tests have confirmed that it takes 30 to 45 minutes to restore an e-mail backup from tape and 2 minutes to restore from nearline storage. What is the RPO?
A. 2 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 45 minutes
5. You have been tasked with backing up a storage array to tape. The backup window is only a few hours, and all the data must be completely written to tape during the backup window. Which technology should you use to accomplish the objective?
A. Disk to disk
B. Tape autoloader
C. Disk to disk to tape
D. Tape library
6. Users complain about slow access to files on a database server. The database server has its database files stored on an iSCSI SAN. You check the logs on the storage array and switches and see no errors. You then issue a packet capture on the network and find a significant amount of FTP traffic during the times when users have complained. What should you do to improve performance without impacting the speed of FTP transfers?
A. Give iSCSI traffic a higher priority
B. Give FTP traffic a lower priority
C. Segment the iSCSI traffic on its own VLAN
D. Replace NICs with NICs that support TOE
7. At 2 A.M., your storage vendor calls you to tell you that she is on the way to your data center to replace a failed disk. How did the storage vendor know about the failed disk?
A. Call Home
B. Event logs
C. SSH administrator CLI
D. SNMP traps
8. You are evaluating the price of a new storage array for your company. The company requires the fastest speed but not high capacity. Which disk technology should you look for in the storage array?
A. SCSI
B. SAS
C. SSD
D. SATA
9. Business requirements state that two switches located in different data centers must have the same domain ID. They are part of the same SAN. Which technology will allow you to use the same domain ID on both FC switches?
A. WSAN
B. VSAN
C. Domain ID mirroring
D. Alternate domain IDs
10. A multipathed server connected to a SAN loses access to storage resources after a switch fails. What should you do to correct this?
A. Cable both HBAs to different switches
B. Install updates to the host’s multipathing software
C. Configure the ports on the switch to be in the same LAG group
D. Configure the failover option on the zone
11. Which component is not configured for high availability in the solution depicted in the illustration?
A. Storage array
B. Switches
C. Host
D. ISL
12. Your company would like to move department shares to a central device that will handle access through NFS and CIFS for Windows and Linux machines. Which solution will satisfy the requirements?
A. iSCSI storage array
B. Software as a Service (SaaS)
C. NAS
D. DAS
13. A directory on a file share is running out of space, so the IT director orders several new hard drives. Which of the following options would work to increase the space for the directory when the drives arrive? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Create a RAID set with the drives and a logical volume. Add the volume to the storage pool that the file share resides on and verify that the share is set to autoexpand.
B. Create a RAID set with the drives. Select the volume that is running out of space, choose Extend, and select the unpartitioned space on the new RAID set.
C. Create a RAID set with the drives and a logical volume. Mount the volume in a temporary location and move the files in the directory that is running out of space to the new volume; then unmount and mount the volume in the folder location of the directory that was running out of space.
D. Extend the existing RAID set to include the additional drives.
E. Create a RAID set with the drives and a logical volume. Move the data from the directory that is running out of space to the new logical volume and then share it. Change the name of the old share. Use DFS to create a root share with the name of the old share. Create DFS links to the old and new logical volumes so that the former folder structure is maintained.
14. A storage array is configured with seven 500GB SATA disks, five 300GB SAS 15k disks, and five 400GB SAS 15k disks. At a minimum, how many hot spares will be needed and what type are they?
A. One hot spare consisting of a 500GB SAS 15k disk
B. Two hot spares consisting of a 500GB SATA disk and a 400GB SAS 15k disk
C. Three hot spares consisting of a 500GB SATA disk, a 300GB SAS15k disk, and a 400GB SAS 15k disk
D. One hot spare consisting of a 500GB SSD disk
15. You are setting up a new storage array, and you want to have two RAID groups using RAID 5 and a hot spare. You will need 5TB of available storage, and you have a box of 500GB SAS disks. How many disks would you need?
A. 13
B. 12
C. 11
D. 10
16. Your organization utilizes the following backup schedule: full backups every Saturday at 10 P.M. and incremental backups Sunday through Friday at 10 A.M. and 10 P.M. A large number of files were deleted from the NAS on Wednesday at 5 P.M. Which backups must be restored, and in what order do you restore the files?
A. Full backup and then the 5 P.M. backup on Wednesday
B. Full backup and then the 10 A.M. backup on Wednesday
C. Full backup and then the Sunday 10 A.M., 10 P.M.; Monday 10 A.M., 10 P.M.; Tuesday 10 A.M., 10 P.M.; and Wednesday 10 A.M. backups
D. The Sunday 10 A.M., 10 P.M.; Monday 10 A.M., 10 P.M.; Tuesday 10 A.M., 10 P.M.; and Wednesday 10 A.M. backups
17. How many disks does a RAID 10 array require at the absolute minimum?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
18. Your team has a series of reports that must be shared between members located all around the world. They want to use a cloud-based solution to host the files. What type of solution should you consider?
A. SaaS
B. PaaS
C. CaaS
D. STaaS
E. IaaS
The following scenario is used for questions 19, 20, and 21:
Nutty Corporation has a clustered e-mail server consisting of four servers (MailNode01, MailNode02, MailNode03, and MailNode04) that connect to an iSCSI SAN for their storage. There are six LUNs assigned to the four clustered servers. They are labeled 001-Quorum, 002-MSDTC, 003-MailDB01, 004-MailDB02, 005PublicFolder, and 006-MailDBArchive. A full backup is performed on LUNs 003, 004, 005, and 006 each night at 8 P.M. using out-of-band backup software. Snapshots are taken of all LUNs assigned to the cluster twice a day at 2 A.M. and 2 P.M. Your manager has informed you that restore operations should be performed in-band whenever possible. The four servers each have four NICs. Two are link aggregated for load balancing and failover for iSCSI traffic, and two are link aggregated for load balancing and failover for use on the LAN. Two VLANs are configured, with one for iSCSI traffic and another for LAN traffic.
19. At 4 P.M., an integrity check detects corrupted data in the public folder. LUN 005PublicFolder is currently mounted on MailNode01. Given the scenario described, what should you do to restore the data with the least data loss?
A. Revert to the 2 P.M. snapshot for LUN 005PublicFolder
B. Apply the backup from 8 P.M. from the night before and then revert to the 2 P.M. snapshot for LUN 005PublicFolder
C. Fail over LUN 005PublicFolder to MailNode02 and then reset the integrity error
D. Take MailNode01 out of the cluster
20. A junior administrator accidentally deletes LUN 003 from the iSCSI storage array at 9 P.M. Given the scenario described, what should you do to restore the data with the least data loss?
A. Revert to the 2 P.M. snapshot for LUN 003-MailDB01
B. Apply the backup from 8 P.M. from the night before and then revert to the 2 P.M. snapshot for LUN 003-MailDB01
C. Create a new LUN 003-MailDB01 with the same size as the old LUN 003-MailDB01 and then restore the backup from 8 P.M. from the night before for LUN 003-MailDB01
D. Apply the backup from 8 P.M. from the same day for LUN 003-MailDB01
21. You notice connectivity errors in the log for the second iSCSI NIC in each of the clustered servers. You verify the zone, and it is configured correctly. Given the scenario described, what might be the problem? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The switch for the secondary iSCSI NICs is offline.
B. The iSCSI storage array is in maintenance mode.
C. The second controller on the iSCSI storage array lost its IP address.
D. The iSCSI storage array lost power.
E. The VLAN configuration on the switches is missing.
22. Which of the following is not an advantage of cable management?
A. Cable management improves airflow in the rack.
B. Cable management separates data and power cables to better prevent EMI.
C. Cable management helps prevent cable stretching and snags.
D. Cable management extends the life of rack equipment.
23. Which of the following is a benefit of a high cache hit ratio?
A. Faster storage array response time
B. Lower latency for storage replication
C. Increased utilization of system cache
D. Less storage used because of deduplication
24. Your company expands into a neighboring office space that already has Ethernet cabling installed using Cat5e. The cables terminate in a wiring closet. Your users require 1 Gbps connections to the network, and the wiring closet must support 10GigE to the storage system in your server room. The server room is 75 meters away from the wiring closet. What cabling should you add or replace in this situation? Keep costs to a minimum.
A. Replace the Cat5e cables with Cat6 and add Cat6 cabling from the wiring closet to the server room
B. Add Cat6 cabling from the wiring closet to the server room
C. Add multimode fiber between the wiring closet and the server room
D. Replace the Cat5e cables with Cat6 and multimode fiber from the wiring closet to the server room
E. Add Cat6a cabling from the wiring closet to the server room
25. You are a storage administrator responsible for backups on the storage network. Backups must be sent to tape each day using a single tape drive, and the duration of backup jobs on the storage systems must be kept to a minimum. Which backup design would best fit this situation?
A. D2T
B. D2D2T
C. NDMP
D. D2D
26. Which of the following is an advantage of storage tiering?
A. Data is migrated to another site for disaster recovery.
B. Duplicate files are suppressed.
C. Data retention policies are enforced.
D. Most frequently used files can be accessed faster.
27. What is the most frequent backup performed in a GFS rotation?
A. Hourly
B. Daily
C. Incremental
D. Transactional
E. Weekly
28. Which technology encapsulates FC data over Ethernet but does not use IP?
A. iSCSI
B. FCoE
C. FCIP
D. iFCP
29. If you configure seven 400GB drives in a RAID6, how much usable space will you have?
A. 2800GB
B. 2400GB
C. 2000GB
D. 1600GB
30. Technicians at your company remotely manage the SAN fabric using Telnet. Port 23 is open on the firewall to allow the technicians to connect remotely. What changes should you make to encrypt this traffic?
A. Disallow port 23 on the firewall. Configure an SSL VPN and allow port 443 on the firewall. Instruct technicians to connect to the network using the VPN and then to use Telnet within the VPN.
B. Configure the SAN fabric to use SSH instead. Instruct technicians to connect using SSH rather than Telnet.
C. Enable “require encryption” on the Telnet configuration on the SAN fabric. Instruct technicians to utilize the encryption option when connecting.
D. Disable Telnet and require technicians to use a serial cable to manage the SAN fabric.
31. What is the primary requirement for a system to be considered high availability?
A. 24/7 monitoring
B. Higher SLAs
C. Offsite backups
D. Redundant components
32. How do hot and cold aisles enhance airflow in a data center?
A. Hot and cold aisles keep hot air flowing away from computing equipment and toward cooling equipment while cold air is directed toward computing equipment.
B. Hot aisles and cold aisles allow for high-density racks to be placed where they will receive the most cooling.
C. Hot aisles and cold aisles aid in emergency evacuation.
D. Hot and cold aisles allow for better capacity planning
33. Users in the finance, accounting, and administration departments need access to the quarterly reports. You would like to create a central location to store the files and allow concurrent access to users in the departments. Which protocol would be best suited for the task?
A. SNMP
B. CIFS
C. Telnet
D. iSCSI
E. FC
34. A system that has three LUNs formatted with the EXT3 file system crashes overnight. Web developers need access to the LUNs immediately while the crashed system is being rebuilt. Which type of system should the LUNs be mounted to?
A. Windows 98
B. Windows Server 2008 R2
C. Ubuntu Linux
D. AS/400
E. Apple iOS
35. A multipathed server is connected to a storage array, but it is experiencing higher latency on some traffic and low latency on other traffic. You check the configuration of the HBAs, and they are configured in an active/passive load-balanced team. After analyzing the switches, you find that the ISL between two redundant switches has periods of high utilization that correspond to the higher latency. How might you solve the problem? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Add more links to the ISL between the switches
B. Map the LUNs to the server using a file-level architecture rather than a block-level architecture
C. Increase the buffer-to-buffer credits
D. Configure the multipathed HBAs to be active/active
36. Which of the following topologies uses optical cables in a logical ring but is configured as a physical star?
A. FC-AL
B. FC-SW
C. P2P
D. Ethernet
37. Which device can make decisions based on information it receives from neighboring devices on where to send traffic most efficiently in a meshed or partially meshed network consisting of multiple potential paths from source to destination?
A. Switch
B. Director
C. Repeater
D. Router
E. Transceiver
38. What role does iSNS play on a SAN?
A. It provides attached devices with information on available storage resources.
B. It notifies administrators when critical events occur on the SAN.
C. It registers new FC addresses when a device connects to the SAN.
D. It load-balances connections between multipathed adapters.
39. Which media would be best suited for archival storage at the lowest cost for 400GB of files on a periodic basis?
A. DVD
B. Flash media
C. Nearline storage
D. Tape
40. How do fiber switches connect to one another?
A. ISLs are created between two switches using E-ports.
B. ISLs are created between two switches using F-ports.
C. Fiber cables are connected to both switches on U-ports.
D. Fiber cables are connected to both switches on F-ports.
41. In a business continuity planning meeting, your manager asks you how the organization would continue business if a fire consumed the equipment in the server room. Which technology would be useful for business continuity in this situation?
A. Offsite tape backups
B. Hierarchical storage management
C. Snapshots
D. Remote replication
42. Users complain of slow performance on a key application. You calculate current performance metrics. What must you compare the metrics to in order to identify which component or system is slow?
A. Alerts
B. Baseline
C. Scope
D. Logs
43. Which technology would ensure that the same data is present on all devices before committing a transaction?
A. Snapshot
B. Replication
C. Consistency group
D. Integrity group
44. Which of the following statements is true?
A. LTO3 tapes have a native capacity of 400GB and a compressed capacity of 800GB.
B. LTO4 tapes have a native capacity of 400GB and a compressed capacity of 800GB.
C. LTO5 tapes have a native capacity of 800GB and a compressed capacity of 1600GB.
D. LTO2 tapes have a native capacity of 100GB and a compressed capacity of 200GB.
45. Your organization plans to replicate data from a high-performance database in New York to Los Angeles. The link between sites has high latency, and performance must be only minimally impacted. What form of replication would be best suited to this situation?
A. Synchronous replication
B. Direct replication
C. Asynchronous replication
D. Host-based replication
46. A storage array has four front-end ports connected to four servers. A fifth server is added. What should be installed so that this device can connect to the storage array?
A. Director
B. Router
C. Switch
D. Repeater
47. How many heads are in a hard disk drive, and how are they situated?
A. There is a head at the top and bottom of each platter with its own actuator arm.
B. A single head runs between all of the platters on the hard drive.
C. There is a head at the top and bottom of each platter. All heads are attached to the same actuator arm.
D. The head runs along the surface of each disk and is used to read the hard drive.
48. Where is the controller board located, and what job does it perform?
A. A controller board controls the movement of the actuator arm from below the disk.
B. A controller is mounted to the base of the disk and contains an interface for sending and receiving data to a connected device. It controls the movement of the actuator arm and rotation of the spindle.
C. A controller board is mounted to the top of the disk and controls the physical components in the disk.
D. A controller board is attached to the top of the disk and causes the disk to spin.
49. While both solid-state and hard disk drives are used to store data, how do SSD and HDD differ in the way they organize data?
A. SSD organizes data into blocks rather than tracks and selectors.
B. In an HDD, blocks consist of multiple pages made up of 150 bytes.
C. In SSD, pages consist of blocks, which are generally 128 bytes.
D. An HDD uses logical bit addressing to reference a location on a disk, while SSD uses a master table.
50. How does Fibre Channel reference other devices on the network?
A. A simple channel access system (SCAS)
B. A reference ID
C. A twofold security connection number
D. A worldwide name
51. What is Fibre Channel layer 3 known as, and what does it do?
A. It is known as the block layer, and it is the upper-layer protocol mapping. It is responsible for encapsulating upper-layer protocols.
B. It is the processing layer, and it breaks data into smaller chunks called frames.
C. It is the services layer, and it supports striping, hunt groups, and the spanning of multiple ports.
D. It is the infrastructure layer used to ensure all pathways are planned for data to travel.
52. What is a worldwide name?
A. A 16-bit or 32-bit identifier for a network communication port
B. A computer’s external IP address
C. The main port identifier in a simple channel access system
D. An 8-byte or 16-byte identifier for a network communication port on a Fibre Channel network
53. One of the most basic metrics used in measuring storage performance is called what?
A. File Transfer Protocol
B. System Storage Monitoring
C. Input Output Operations per Second
D. Send Receive Operations per Second
54. How do optical cables transmit data?
A. Optical cables transmit data via long-range frequencies.
B. Optical cables transmit data via light impulses.
C. Optical cables transmit data via electromagnetic waves.
D. Optical cables transmit data via electromagnetic impulses.
55. Which of the following best describes a converged network adapter?
A. A device that connects an iSCSI host to storage
B. A device that can be used for communication with non-storage-related equipment via a network
C. An onboard device that connects two devices via copper cabling
D. A device capable of connecting a host to storage with connections over FC, Ethernet, or twinax connections
56. Which of the following best describes a fiber director?
A. A high-capacity modular switch with two or more hot-swappable power supplies and redundant routing engines, pathways, and processors.
B. A layer 3 device that is used to connect network segments of differing topologies.
C. A device that connects storage segments that traverse a WAN. The director performs encapsulation over the WAN of supported storage protocols and deencapsulation of data on the receiving end.
D. A device that filters storage data at the application layer utilizing a wide array of software. Such devices are typically vendor updatable.
57. The condition known as buffer underrun refers to which of the following?
A. When a disk is rendered unusable because of a failure during the write process
B. When the scratches on a disk have rendered portions of the data unusable
C. When the buffer is emptied during the process of burning information to a disk
D. The condition where a disk drive cannot read a disk at the optimal speed
58. How does the Storage Networking Industry Association (SNIA) define storage virtualization?
A. The application of virtualization to storage services or devices for the purposes of aggregating functions or devices, hiding complexity, or adding new capabilities to lower-level storage resources
B. The abstraction of software and hardware used to provide storage services such that each can operate independently
C. Implementation of standards-based storage products that can be layered upon one another to provide functionality to meet business objectives
D. Utilizing virtualization in storage services to provide differing views to the data based on the level of virtual provisioning used
59. According to the Storage Networking Industry Association Shared Storage Model, what is the job of the file/record layer?
A. This layer organizes the information required by the application and interfaces with the application.
B. This layer uses virtualization to map logical addresses to physical addresses.
C. This layer of virtualization is an abstraction of physical storage to logical partitions independent of storage structure, allowing several physical disks to be accessed through a single virtual/logical interface.
D. This layer stores data on virtualized removable media, including virtual tapes (VTs), virtual tape libraries (VTLs), and tape library virtualization (TLV).
60. Which of the following is not a form of storage provisioning?
A. Privileged provisioning
B. LUN provisioning
C. Thick provisioning
D. Thin provisioning
61. Which of the following is shared by in-band and out-of-band virtualization?
A. Optimization of SAN utilization and performance.
B. Storage management is offloaded from the host.
C. Latency is avoided by separating control functions from the paths where data travels.
D. A consolidated virtual platform for network storage management.
62. Which of the following is not a type of storage virtualization?
A. Disk virtualization
B. Host virtualization
C. Block virtualization
D. Tape virtualization
63. What is a high-speed memory that can be used to service I/O requests faster than accessing the disk?
A. Memory
B. Logical disks
C. Solid-state drives
D. Cache
64. Which of the following best describes the Common Information Model?
A. It is an object-oriented approach to organizing information where objects have attributes, and each is created from a class that describes the format of the object.
B. It is a method used to allow multiple levels of abstraction to exist in the data path and to pool storage under the control of a domain manager.
C. CIM is a method of creating a LU that can grow as needed. The LU appears to the host system as the maximum size it can grow to, but it consumes only the amount of space the host uses on the storage system.
D. CIM is used to set warning and alarm thresholds in storage management tools that then compare the set values against real-time readings from the system.
65. What does it mean if in-band management is used for a storage network?
A. Data as well as management and monitoring information travel over different paths.
B. An appliance is used to manage and monitor data.
C. An appliance is used to monitor data, but transfers occur over the front-end data path.
D. Data as well as management and monitoring information travel over the same path.
66. Appliance-based data migration specifically refers to which of the following?
A. A data migration in which stand-alone network appliances migrate files and volumes, interfacing with storage systems and providing a separate interface for managing the replication
B. Migrating entire applications, referred to as appliances, from one site to another or from one redundant clustered node to another
C. Migrating management data such as logs and configuration settings from network appliances for the purposes of centralized review and business continuity
D. A data migration solution that can be plugged into a rack without additional customization or configuration
67. What amount of space do thick logical units take up? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Only the amount of space consumed by files within the logical unit.
B. The amount of space consumed by files in the logical unit plus 20 percent.
C. Thick logical units are those that exceed 1TB.
D. The same amount of space as is presented to the host operating system.
68. What best defines data integrity?
A. Assurance that data remains unchanged after creating, modifying, copying, completing, or otherwise operating on data.
B. Having a backup of every version of a data set since its creation.
C. Encrypting a file or data set to prevent tampering.
D. The data given is proven factual and is supported by other reports.
69. Which of the following is not a broad classification for the causes of system outages?
A. Human error
B. Intentional error
C. Workflow error
D. Systematic error
70. Which of the following is the primary objective of business continuity planning?
A. Providing a proactive strategy to prevent or limit the impact of system failures and to rapidly restore operations should such events occur
B. Outlining the essential activities required when a disaster occurs
C. Leveraging redundancy in each aspect of the storage and networking environment to be better able to resist a failure of a single component
D. Replicating duties such that the loss of a single employee, role, or division would not impact the ability of the organization to continue doing business
71. If malware infection potentially impacts the business by a loss of three hours of productivity on average and this is expected to happen once every other month, then the cost per year in hours is which of the following?
A. 12 hours of lost productivity
B. 18 hours of lost productivity
C. 24 hours of lost productivity
D. 36 hours of lost productivity
72. What is necessary to determine how much redundancy is needed?
A. Knowing how available a system needs to be
B. Logical block addressing
C. How well the failover system works
D. Whether the system is replicated
73. What does a risk assessment analyze?
A. The threats that could impact the integrity, confidentiality, or availability of business systems
B. The cost that a business could incur because of the exploitation of potential threats and the likelihood of such exploitation occurring
C. Organizational security as a whole
D. Both A and B
74. What does a business impact analysis estimate?
A. The time, cost, and effort to respond to and contain a security incident
B. The cost an organization could incur should systems be unavailable because of incident or disaster
C. The amount of time it would take to bring business operations back to normal
D. The controls required to bring risks below the organization’s risk tolerance level
75. What is the main difference between remote and physical authentication?
A. Remote authentication is used to access a system from offsite, while physical authentication is used to connect from another portion of the onsite network.
B. In remote authentication, passwords are sent via the network, while physical authentication is done on the machine being logged into.
C. Physical authentication is the type of authentication where a certain visual pattern is used, while a remote authentication is used to easily access devices via a network.
D. Remote authentication is used when a system is accessed through another system, while physical authentication is used only to access a remote authentication service.
76. When services are transferred from one component to another in a redundant system, it is called what?
A. Service redundancy
B. Failover
C. Overflow
D. Component transfer
77. What is the name of a system that provides immediate response and high availability?
A. Emergency system processing
B. Online transaction processing
C. Rapid response protocol
D. Systemic fabrication principles
78. Which technology allows multiple N-ports to reside on the same physical N-port?
A. VSAN
B. SCR
C. PLOGI
D. NPIV
79. What is a result of a single configuration, a network, hardware, or software malfunctioning and causing the entire system or process to fail?
A. Large-scale system failure
B. A single point of failure
C. Network failure
D. Server-side power failure
80. What is a secondary risk?
A. Risk caused by another risk response strategy
B. Risk that is moderately likely to occur
C. A risk that can occur when multiple other risks occur
D. A risk computation obtained from an alternate methodology such as quantitative, if qualitative was used for the primary risk
81. Low humidity can create an environment where charges can build up, which can lead to what?
A. Water damage
B. Electrostatic discharge
C. Overheating
D. Electrical failure
82. Fire suppression systems that use gaseous agents remove components that fire needs to exist. Which of the following examples remove heat from fire?
A. FSC-500
B. HFC-125
C. CFN-330
D. HVAC
83. What does rack density refer to?
A. The amount of heat generated by devices in a rack
B. The number of cables running between devices on the rack
C. The number of types of devices on the rack
D. The number of devices in the rack
84. What is a form of storage management where data of varying formats is transferred between hosts or storage systems at periodic intervals?
A. Transfer protocols
B. Replication
C. Data backup
D. System support
85. What presents files and directories as a composite object with a single integrated file interface while optimizing their location?
A. Block management architecture
B. Hierarchical storage management
C. Manual storage tiering
D. Storage management system
86. What purpose does the alias serve on a fiber network?
A. The alias is an alternate WWPN that can be used in case the first WWPN fails.
B. The alias is used to identify ports that belong to a multicast or hunt group.
C. The alias is a descriptive name given to a node so that it can be referred to by it instead of its WWN.
D. The alias was used in FDDI ring implementations, but it is not used in modern fiber networks anymore.
87. What specifies that data potentially relevant to ongoing or expected lawsuits should be preserved?
A. Mandatory preservation
B. Litigation holds
C. Trial backup requirements
D. Litigation preservation
88. A technician notifies you that the tape drive at your data center is making noise. You investigate and find that the drive repeatedly stops, rewinds, and then writes again. What could be causing this issue?
A. The tape drive needs cleaning.
B. The drive is shoe-shining.
C. The cable between the tape drive and the backup server is going bad.
D. The backup system has mounted the tape drive for random reads.
89. Which controller technology breaks files up into segments to be stored on multiple nodes in a process known as encoding?
A. Full mesh
B. Cache
C. Grid
D. Dual
90. Which unit of measurement is used to describe the number of devices data must traverse from source to destination?
A. Jump
B. Hop
C. Latency
D. Ping
91. Which technology is used to prioritize traffic?
A. Class of service
B. Routing
C. Link-level prioritization
D. Switching
92. Your customer would like to implement a SAN over their existing Ethernet network. What solution should you recommend?
A. FC on FC switches
B. FC on the same LAN
C. iSCSI on the same LAN
D. iSCSI with VLANs
93. A server rack in your data center is configured with A/B power. Normal power levels are 25 percent on each link, and peak power is 60 percent. Do you recommend any changes? If so, which changes?
A. No changes are required because the load is less than 80 percent.
B. Reduce the load to bring each link below 50 percent.
C. Add one more circuit and put 30 percent load on it.
D. Two more circuits should be added to bring the load below 40 percent peak for each link.
94. Which of the following devices is not hot pluggable?
A. Hard drive
B. Power supply
C. Switch module
D. Motherboard
95. Which disk type can run at 15,000 rpm? (Choose all that apply.)
A. IDE
B. SCSI
C. SATA
D. SAS
E. FC
96. Which device would be used by a host to connect to a Fiber Channel SAN?
A. HBA
B. NIC
C. Modem
D. TOE
97. Which piece of safety equipment can a person wear to protect against electrostatic discharge?
A. Hard hat
B. Lifting belt
C. Wrist strap
D. Aluminum gloves
98. A user needs to quickly transfer 10GB data from their workstation to a remote office. The user offers to bring the data to the remote office, but they need to store the data on some removable media. Which media would be best suited for transferring the data and be easiest for the user to utilize?
A. DVD
B. Flash drive
C. CD
D. Tape
99. Your company would like to implement a network to connect multiple disk arrays to servers. Which technology should they employ?
A. NAS
B. DAS
C. LAN
D. SAN
100. Which of the following could be used to send e-mails to administrators when storage resources are at or above 80 percent capacity?
A. Baselines
B. Thresholds
C. Alerts
D. Logs
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