Appendix A

Multiple Choice Questions Chapter Wise

CHAPTER 1 NCER—an Overview

  1. Energy can be conserved by
    1. cogeneration in power plants, fuel-efficient transportation, and reengineered appliances
    2. cogeneration in automobiles, especially in SUV
    3. replacing compact florescent with tungsten bulbs
    4. replacing mass transit with more and larger roads for cars and trucks
  2. Identify the non-renewable energy resource from the following:
    1. Coal
    2. Solar power
    3. Wind power
    4. Wave power
  3. Which of the following is a disadvantage of most of the renewable energy sources?
    1. Highly pollution
    2. High waste disposal cost
    3. Unreliable supply
    4. High cost
  4. Photovoltaic energy is the conversion of sunlight into
    1. chemical energy
    2. biogas
    3. electricity
    4. heat energy
  5. Solar cell converts
    1. solar energy to heat energy
    2. solar energy to mechanical energy
    3. solar energy to electrical energy
    4. solar energy to liquid fuels
  6. Fuel cells are
    1. carbon cell
    2. hydrogen battery
    3. nuclear cell
    4. solar cell
  7. The outermost layer of the earth is
    1. magma
    2. mantle
    3. crust
    4. solid iron core
  8. Common energy source in Indian villages is
    1. electricity
    2. coal
    3. sun
    4. wood and animal dung
  9. The one thing that is common to all fossil fuels is that they
    1. were originally formed in marine environment
    2. contain carbon
    3. have undergone the same set of geological processes during their formation
    4. represent the remains of one living organisms
  10. The process that converts solid coal into liquid hydrocarbon fuel is called
    1. liquefaction
    2. carbonation
    3. catalytic conversion
    4. cracking
  11. Lignite, bituminous, and anthracite are different ranks of
    1. nuclear fuel
    2. coal
    3. natural gas
    4. biogas
  12. Crude oil is
    1. colourless
    2. odourless
    3. smelly yellow to black liquid
    4. violet liquid
  13. BTU is measurement unit of
    1. pressure
    2. head
    3. heat content
    4. temperature
  14. Boiling water reactor and pressurized water reactors are
    1. nuclear reactor
    2. solar reactor
    3. OTEC
    4. biogas reactor
  15. Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?
    1. Coal
    2. Forests
    3. Water
    4. wind
  16. Which among the following is a renewable source of energy?
    1. Solar energy
    2. Coal
    3. Nuclear energy
    4. Oil
  17. Identify the secondary form of energy from the following:
    1. coal
    2. water
    3. electricity
    4. sea wave energy
  18. Horizontal axis and vertical axis are the terms used with
    1. nuclear reactor
    2. wind mills
    3. biogas reactor
    4. solar cell
  19. Which among the following is not an adverse environmental impact of tidal power generation?
    1. Interference with spawning and migration of fish
    2. Pollution and health hazard in the estuary due to blockage of flow of polluted water the sea
    3. Navigational hazard
    4. None of the above
  20. Steam reforming is currently the least expensive method of producing
    1. coal
    2. biogas
    3. hydrogen
    4. natural gas
  21. In order to produce electricity, a fuel cell uses
    1. helium
    2. nitrogen
    3. hydrogen
    4. carbon
  22. Fuel cells are
    1. carbon cell
    2. hydrogen battery
    3. nuclear cell
    4. solar cell
  23. Cooking gas and manure both are provided by
    1. nuclear plants
    2. thermal plants
    3. biogas plants
    4. hydroelectric plant
  24. The tidal waves are caused by the periodic rise and fall of oceans. It is associated with the position of
    1. moon
    2. sun
    3. earth
    4. sea
  25. The energy available when the temperature of water at the surface of ocean is different from that at deeper level is called
    1. ocean thermal energy
    2. sea water energy
    3. ocean water energy
    4. none of these
  26. Which of the following energy originate from the ocean?
    1. Tidal energy
    2. Sea energy
    3. Wind energy
    4. Hydropower
  27. Ocean and sea waves are indirectly caused due to
    1. pressure gradients
    2. solar energy
    3. geothermal energy
    4. none of these
  28. The ocean waves are caused by the periodic rise and fall of oceans. It is associated with
    1. kinetic energy
    2. heat energy
    3. light energy
    4. potential energy
  29. Hydrogen can be produced from
    1. soil
    2. silver
    3. iron
    4. water
  30. Energy derived from hot spots beneath the earth is called
    1. bioenergy
    2. geothermal energy
    3. nuclear energy
    4. hydrogen energy
  31. In rural areas, the locally generated gas from cow dung used for cooking and lighting is called
    1. biogas
    2. oxygen
    3. ammonia
    4. carbon dioxide
  32. Solar energy cannot be stored in following mediums:
    1. Water
    2. Iron
    3. Gas
    4. Wood
  33. Which of the following is NOT a renewable source of energy?
    1. Geothermal
    2. Propane
    3. solar
    4. wind
  34. The disadvantage of renewable sources of energy is
    1. high cost
    2. low energy density
    3. intermittency
    4. all of these

CHAPTER 2 Energy from the Sun

  1. Sunlight light reaches the earth through
    1. direct radiation
    2. diffuse radiation
    3. scattered radiation
    4. all of these
  2. The angle measured from directly overhead to the geometric centre of the sun’s disc is
    1. declination angle
    2. hour angle
    3. latitude angle
    4. zenith angle
  3. The angle in minute subtended by sun on the earth’s surface is approximately
    1. 53 minutes
    2. 42 minutes
    3. 31 minutes
    4. 23 minutes
  4. Select the correct statement from the following:
    1. Global radiation = = beam radiation – diffuse rad
    2. Global radiation = = beam radiation + diffuse radiation
    3. Global radiation = [beam radiation – diffuse radiation]2
    4. Global radiation = [beam radiation + diffuse radiation]2
  5. The solar constant, which is defined as the rate of energy received from the sun on a unit area perpendicular to the rays of the sun at the mean distance of the earth from the sun outside of the atmosphere, has a standard value of
    1. 1.0 kW/m2
    2. 1.251 kW/m2
    3. 1.367 kW/m2
    4. 1.398 kW/m2
  6. The solar hour angle is zero at
    1. sunrise
    2. sunset
    3. solar noon
    4. midnight
  7. The declination angle of the sun is the angle between the equator and a line drawn from the centre of the earth to the centre of the sun. It has a value of –23.457 on
    1. March 21
    2. September 22
    3. June 21
    4. December 22
  8. The hour angle at 0900 hour (local apparent time) is
    1. +45°
    2. –45°
    3. +15°
    4. = –15°
  9. If LST is local solar time, then solar hour angle (HRA) is expressed as
    1. HRA = 30° × (LST – 12)
    2. HRA = 15° × (LST – 12)
    3. HRA = 30° × LST
    4. HRA = 15° × LST
  10. In the zenith angle (θz) range between 0° to 70°, air mass (m) at sea level can be calculated as
    1. m = sin (θz)
    2. m = cos (θz)
    3. m = sec (θz)
    4. m = cosec (θz)
  11. For the zenith angle of 60° at sea level, air mass is
    1. 0
    2. 1
    3. 2
    4. 3

CHAPTER 3 Solar Thermal Energy Collectors

  1. Harmful radiation emitted from the sun is
    1. visible radiation
    2. infrared radiation
    3. ultraviolet radiation
    4. none of the above
  2. Which type of dryer can be used to dry fruits and vegetables using renewable energy?
    1. Oil furnace
    2. Solar dryer
    3. Coal furnace
    4. Wood-based furnace
  3. A solar pond is a combination of which of the following combinations?
    1. Solar energy collection and heat storage
    2. Solar energy storage and heat collection
    3. Solar energy collection and energy storage
    4. None of these
  4. Which of the following system is an application of solar thermal energy?
    1. Internal combustion engine
    2. Biogas generation
    3. Solar water heating
    4. Solar lighting
  5. The value of solar constant is approximately
    1. 6.5 kW/m2
    2. 1.36 kW/m2
    3. 3.64 kW/m2
    4. 10 kW/m2
  6. A typical insulation material used in a solar collector is
    1. fibre glass
    2. cotton
    3. glass wool
    4. none of the above
  7. In a box-type solar cooker, the solar radiations that enter and leave the box are of
    1. short and long wavelength, respectively
    2. long and short wavelength, respectively
    3. similar wavelengths
    4. none of these
  8. Conversion of solar thermal energy into electrical energy using reflecting mirrors is called
    1. diffuser
    2. heliostat
    3. reflector cookers
    4. solar cell array
  9. Thermal storage of energy is done in the form of
    1. chemical reaction for chemically changing a medium
    2. latent heat
    3. sensible heat
    4. all of these
  10. In a flat plate collector, the following fluid is not used as a medium of heat exchange,
    1. air
    2. ethylene glycol and water
    3. fuel oil
    4. water
  11. Use of thin plastic sheet as glazing material in flat plate collectors introduces serious problems of
    1. Plastics have limited life span due to the effect of UV radiation that reduces its transmissivity.
    2. Plastics are transparent to long-wavelength radiation and are, therefore, less effective in reducing radiated heat losses from the absorber plate.
    3. Plastics cannot withstand high temperature encountered in collector especially when the collector is idle.
    4. All of the above
  12. The ideal glazing materials for solar collector have the following properties:
    1. Transmit light very well and has high temperature withstand capability.
    2. Long life when exposed to UV and high temperatures, and also opaque to long wavelength infrared to reduce heat loss.
    3. Low cost having good impact resistance.
    4. All of these
  13. Which of the following statement is correct for using water as a heat exchange fluid in flat plate collectors?
    1. Water is non-toxic and inexpensive.
    2. Water has high specific heat and a very low viscosity.
    3. Water has a relatively low boiling and high freezing point.
    4. All of these
  14. Which of the following is the drawback of using water as a heat exchange fluid in flat plate collectors?
    1. Air is available in abundance and inexpensive.
    2. Air will neither freeze nor boil.
    3. Air has a very low heat capacity.
    4. Air is non-corrosive.
  15. Small rock pebbles are used for optimum storage of heat as
    1. They give a large surface area to mass ratio.
    2. They give a small surface area to mass ratio.
    3. Cost of the rocks is reduced.
    4. They improve the specific heat.
  16. Selective coating (surface) in flat plate solar collectors
    1. maximize the absorption of solar energy and emission of radiative loss
    2. maximize the absorption of solar energy and minimize emission of radiative loss
    3. minimize the absorption of solar energy and emission of radiative loss
    4. minimize the absorption of solar energy and maximize emission of radiative loss
  17. Following statements are given related to solar energy:
    1. I. The Equation of Time (EOT) in minutes is an empirical equation that corrects for the eccentricity of the Earth’s orbit and the Earth’s axial tilt.
    2. II. Since the Earth rotates 15° per hour, each hour away from solar noon corresponds to an angular motion of the sun in the sky of 15°.
    3. III. The solar constant is the average extraterrestrial insolation at the edge of atmosphere.
    4. IV Local Time equals Local Standard Time irrespective of the eccentricity of the earth’s orbit and because of human adjustments such as time zones and daylight saving.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. I, II, and III are correct
    2. II, III, and IV are correct
    3. III, IV, and V are correct
    4. I, II, and IV are correct
  18. Solar pond is a saline water pond in which salt concentration
    1. decreases from top surface to the bottom surface
    2. increases from top surface to the bottom surface
    3. remain the same in the entire pond
    4. none of these
  19. Working fluid used in solar Rankine cycle is
    1. air
    2. hydrogen
    3. helium
    4. steam

CHAPTER 4 Solar Cell

  1. The word photovoltaic comes from words meaning
    1. wind energy
    2. brightness
    3. light and electricity
    4. picture that moves
  2. A PV module is
    1. dozens of photovoltaic cells connected together
    2. wired in series
    3. wired in parallel
    4. all of these
  3. Solar PV systems can be
    1. connected to the power grid
    2. used to sell power to the grid
    3. a standalone source of electricity
    4. all of these
  4. Improving the efficiency of a PV cell can be done by
    1. placing the PV cell angle facing light all day
    2. placing coloured acetates on the cell
    3. heating the cell
    4. changing its direction to north
  5. In a series connection of photovoltaic,
    1. the positive terminal is connected to the positive terminal
    2. the negative terminal is connected to the negative terminal
    3. the positive terminal is connected to the negative terminal
    4. all of these
  6. What is the most commonly used material in making solar cells?
    1. silver
    2. iron
    3. aluminium
    4. silicon
  7. The electrical output of a solar cell depends on the
    1. intensity of solar radiation
    2. heat component of solar radiation
    3. ultraviolet radiation
    4. infrared radiation
  8. Solar constant throughout the year varies in the range
    1. 1.0–1/153 kW/m2
    2. 1.16–1.295 kW/m2
    3. 1.3–1.34 kW/m2
    4. 1.353–1.395 kW/m2
  9. The solar constant at normal incidence outside the atmosphere at the mean sun earth distance is approximately
    1. 1 kW/m2
    2. 1.4 kW/m2
    3. 1.367 kW/m2
    4. 1.399 kW/m2
  10. Solar photovoltaic cell converts solar energy directly into
    1. mechanical energy
    2. electricity
    3. heat energy
    4. transportation
  11. What does SPV stand for with respect to solar energy?
    1. Solar photovoltaic
    2. Solid plate voltaic
    3. Solar plate voids
    4. None of these
  12. Which of the following appliances use solar photovoltaic technology?
    1. Solar lantern
    2. Biogas plant
    3. Solar water heater
    4. Solar air heater
  13. Pyranometer is an instrument used for measuring
    1. temperature
    2. solar irradiance
    3. wind speed
    4. efficiency
  14. The presence of CO2 and H2O in the atmosphere results in absorption of
    1. long wave infrared radiations
    2. short wave ultraviolet radiations
    3. visible wavelengths of spectrum
    4. all of these
  15. Pyrheliometer instrument measures
    1. wind speed at an elevation
    2. total electromagnetic radiation emitted by the sun
    3. direct beam solar irradiance
    4. biogas pressure
  16. Solar cells are made of
    1. aluminium
    2. germanium
    3. silicon
    4. silver
  17. Open circuit voltage of a single solar cell is approximately
    1. 2 V
    2. 1.5 V
    3. 1 V
    4. 0.5 V
  18. A photovoltaic module is a
    1. series connection of flat plate collectors
    2. parallel connection of fuel cells
    3. series connection of thermionic converters
    4. series–parallel connection of solar cells
  19. Conversion of solar light into electricity has the following major drawbacks:
    1. Practical efficiency of solar cell is very less.
    2. Solar energy is available for limited period in a day.
    3. High cost
    4. All of these
  20. The maximum theoretical efficiencies of solar cells in a controlled chamber is approximately
    1. 10%
    2. 20%
    3. 45%
    4. 75%
  21. The band gap energy of silicon is
    1. 1.6 eV
    2. 1.4 eV
    3. 1.2 eV
    4. 1.1 eV
  22. Fill factor of solar cell is defined as the ratio of the maximum useful power to the ideal power. Its typical values range from
    1. 0.1–0.2
    2. 0.21–0.42
    3. 0.45–0.55
    4. 0.6–0.8
  23. Electron volt (eV) is the unit of
    1. current
    2. energy
    3. power
    4. voltage

CHAPTER 5 Hydrogen Energy

  1. Hydrogen can play an important role as an alternative fuel to conventional fuel as
    1. an energy carrier
    2. an energy device
    3. a fossil fuel source
    4. an energy system
  2. What is the main by-product of burning hydrogen?
    1. H2O
    2. ash
    3. O2
    4. steam
  3. Hydrogen is produced by
    1. electrolysis
    2. incineration
    3. aerobic digestion
    4. decomposting
  4. Which of the following is not an application of hydrogen energy?
    1. Fuel cell
    2. Generator set
    3. Running a two wheeler
    4. Producing biofuel
  5. Hydrogen can be generated commercially by
    1. aerobic digestion
    2. steam methane reforming
    3. anaerobic digestion
    4. incineration
  6. Fuel reforming is a process of
    1. transforming fossil fuel into CO
    2. transforming fossil fuel into H2
    3. removing carbon compounds from fossil fuel
    4. none of these
  7. When hydrogen burns in air, it combines with which of the following gases to form water?
    1. O2
    2. N2
    3. CO2
    4. O3
  8. Which form of energy source yields only water?
    1. Hydrogen
    2. Biogas
    3. Methane
    4. Oxygen
  9. Hydrogen can be stored as a
    1. compressed gas
    2. liquid
    3. metal hydride
    4. both (a)and (c)

CHAPTER 6 Wind Energy

  1. Which of the following statement is not correct for wind power?
    1. It releases no greenhouse gases or acid forming emissions.
    2. It has been used from centuries for water pumping.
    3. It can be used to produce electricity.
    4. It is a continuous and uninterruptible source of energy.
  2. The maximum energy conversion efficiency of a wind turbine for a given swept area is
    1. 25.1%
    2. 50.4%
    3. 59.3%
    4. 99.9%
  3. If the velocity of wind is doubled, then the power output will increase by
    1. 10 times
    2. 8 times
    3. 2 times
    4. 6 times
  4. The terms Darrieus and Savonius rotors are related to
    1. small hydropower
    2. wind energy
    3. turbine
    4. coal extraction mechanism
  5. Power output from a wind energy generator is directly proportional to
    1. wind velocity
    2. square of wind velocity
    3. cube of wind velocity
    4. square root of wind velocity
  6. A place where many wind turbines are installed together to produce electricity is called a
    1. wind farm
    2. propeller collection
    3. wind station
    4. wind turbine station
  7. What type of energy is associated with wind?
    1. Potential energy
    2. Chemical energy
    3. Kinetic energy
    4. Rotational energy
  8. Wind turbines using aerodynamic lift produce more energy for a given area than wind turbines using aerodynamic drag as the
    1. lifting force pushes the blade in the direction of the wind
    2. lifting force roughly perpendicular to the local flow fields
    3. lifting force produces more torque
    4. drag services capture more energy because of greater friction on the blade surfaces
  9. The relationship between power available from wind ‘P’ and wind velocity ‘v’ is
    1. P ά v
    2. P ά v2
    3. P ά v3
    4. P = v
  10. An anemometer is an instrument used for measuring
    1. solar radiation
    2. wind speed
    3. temperature gradient
    4. depth in ocean
  11. Lower speed wind turbines are mainly driven by
    1. drag forces
    2. lift forces
    3. push forces
    4. none of these
  12. The torque causing the rotation of a rotor is due to the
    1. drag force
    2. gravitational force
    3. force of lift
    4. axial thrust
  13. With increase in height, wind speed
    1. increases
    2. decreases
    3. remains the same
    4. none of these
  14. Wind power plants are required to have a large rotor size for large power output because of
    1. low power density of air stream
    2. lift force acting perpendicular to the direction of wind flow
    3. lift force being more than drag force
    4. drag force acting perpendicular to lift force
  15. Which of the following forces act on the blades of wind turbine rotor?
    1. Lift force
    2. Drag force
    3. Both (a) & (b)
    4. None of these
  16. Wind machine with Darrieus type of rotor is a
    1. vertical axis machine
    2. horizontal axis machine
    3. machine that can spin in one direction only
    4. none of these
  17. Air density at standard conditions is about
    1. 1.885 kg/m3
    2. 2.55 kg/m3
    3. 1.226 kg/m3
    4. 3.267 kg/m3
  18. 8. The main disadvantage of wind power is that
    1. it is unreliable energy source as winds are uncertain and unpredictable
    2. wind energy systems are noisy when in operation
    3. large land open area is required
    4. all of these
  19. Wind energy conversion devices based on drag force
    1. move faster than wind
    2. move slower than wind
    3. move with equal velocity as wind
    4. do not depend on the velocity of wind
  20. The power generated by a wind turbine can be approximated as,

    Equation1.png

    As per the above equation, the greatest increase in the power generated by a wind turbine will be obtained by
    1. decreasing the area of the turbine blades half
    2. increasing the area of the turbine blades 3 times as large
    3. shifting the turbine to a location having 1/4th wind velocity
    4. shifting the turbine to a location having double the wind velocity
  21. Betz law of theory of momentum finds application in
    1. geothermal plant
    2. MHD plant
    3. solar plant
    4. wind power plant
  22. Energy of wind blowing on large sea surface is stored in sea waves as
    1. chemical energy
    2. electrical energy
    3. mechanical energy
    4. thermal energy
  23. Following is the vertical axis wind turbine:
    1. Multi-blade type
    2. Propeller type
    3. Sail type
    4. Savonius type
  24. The speed of operation of propeller type wind turbine is about,
    1. 50–80 rpm
    2. 100–150 rpm
    3. 150–250 rpm
    4. 300–400 rpm
  25. Darrieus wind rotor has the following properties:
    1. It has two or three blades shaped like aerofoil.
    2. It requires less surface area as compared to Savonius type windmill.
    3. It runs independently of the direction of the wind
    4. All of these

CHAPTER 7 Geothermal Energy

  1. The correct statement related with geothermal energy is
    1. the use of naturally derived heated water or steam to heat building or drive turbo generators
    2. the heat derived from the crushing of large quantities of rocks
    3. the heat derived from molten fluid
    4. it is a heating system that uses hot water pipes embedded in flooring within a home
  2. Which of the following are considered to be drawbacks of geothermal energy?
    1. It is not available everywhere. It is available only in areas where hot rocks are Present near the earth’s surface.
    2. High cost of exploration and drilling
    3. Land pollution and seismic hazards
    4. All of these
  3. Which type of energy does volcanoes posse?
    1. Mechanical energy
    2. Geothermal energy
    3. Electrical energy
    4. Nuclear energy
  4. The molten mass of earth is called
    1. magnus
    2. magma
    3. hot cake
    4. magmus
  5. Geothermal energy reservoirs are
    1. liquid-dominated reservoirs
    2. steam-dominated reservoirs
    3. hot rocks with no water
    4. all of these
  6. No moving parts are required in
    1. geothermal power plant
    2. thermionic power plant
    3. OTEC power plant
    4. tidal power plant
  7. In geothermal power plants, waste water is
    1. re-circulated after cooling in cooling towers
    2. evaporated in ponds
    3. discharged back inside the earth
    4. none of these
  8. Geysers steam is continuously vented through fissures in the ground. These vents are called
    1. fumaroles
    2. pot holes
    3. sun spot
    4. pores
  9. In saline water-dominated geothermal energy, power is developed using
    1. binary systems
    2. flashed steam systems
    3. total flow systems
    4. all of these
  10. Geothermal energy is
    1. a renewable energy resource
    2. an inexhaustible energy resource
    3. alternative energy resource
    4. all of these

CHAPTER 8 Solid Wastes and Refuse and Agricultural Refuse

  1. Match the list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
    uTable1.png
  2. Select the correct statement using the codes given below.
    1. I. Incineration is a waste treatment technology that includes the combustion of waste for recovering energy.
    2. II. Many hazardous wastes can be recycled into new products.
    3. III. Recuperators are different types of heat exchanger that the exhaust gases are passed through, consisting of metal tubes that carry the inlet gas and thus preheating the gas before entering the process.
    4. IV. eat pipes are low thermal conductors.

    Codes:

    1. I, II, and III are correct
    2. I, II, and IV are correct
    3. II, III, and IV are correct
    4. I, II, III, and IV are correct
  3. Following are the advantages of waste heat recovery systems:
    1. Thermal and air pollution decrease since less flue gases of high temperature are emitted from the plant as most of the energy is recycled.
    2. The recovery process will add to the efficiency of the process and thus decrease the costs of fuel and energy consumption needed for that process.
    3. As Fuel consumption reduces, so the control and security equipment for handling the fuel decreases as fuel combustion reduces in the process.
    4. All (a), (b), and (c) are the advantages.
  4. Waste material is reduced to ashes in the following process:
    1. Biodegradation
    2. Composting
    3. Incineration
    4. Recycling
  5. Environment can be kept clean by the following waste management methods (three R’s):
    1. Recreate, Recycle, and Remember
    2. Recreate, Recycle, and Reuse
    3. Recycle, Reuse, and Reduce
    4. Reuse, Reduce, and remember
  6. Method of final disposal of waste is
    1. landfills
    2. recycle
    3. reuse
    4. sanitation
  7. By the fermentation of sugar cane, following fuel can be produced:
    1. Biodiesel
    2. Biogas
    3. Ethanol
    4. Producer gas
  8. Urban wastes are used for the following:
    1. Heat generation
    2. Electricity generation
    3. Composting
    4. All of these
  9. Exposure to hazardous toxic waste is dangerous to health. The safest disposal method of hazardous waste is the following:
    1. Briquetting
    2. Fermentation
    3. Landfills
    4. Incineration
  10. Following statements are given related with waste management:
    1. I. A landfill is a site for the disposal of waste materials by burial of waste in ground.
    2. II. Recyclate is a raw material processed in a waste recycling plant or materials recovery facility, which will be used to form new products.
    3. III. Recycling is a process to change waste materials into new products and thus preventing wastage of potentially useful materials and minimizing the consumption of fresh raw materials.
    4. IV Solid waste management is the methodology of generation, prevention, characterization, monitoring, treatment, handling, reuse, and residual disposition of solid wastes.

    Using the codes given below, select the correct answer:

    1. I is correct.
    2. I and II are correct.
    3. I, II, and III are correct.
    4. I, II, III, and IV are correct.
  11. Match List I (Plastic Resin ID Code) with List II (Plastic Type) and select the correct answer using the code given below.
    uTable2.png
  12. Match List I (Technology) with List II (Major Products) and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
    uTable3.png
  13. Following statements are related with availability of plastic wastes:
    1. I. Polyethylene terephthalate (PETE) plastics are used to make soda and water bottles, medicine containers, and many other common consumer product containers. Once it has been processed by a recycling facility, PETE can become fibrefill for winter coats, sleeping bags, and life jackets. It can also be used to make bean bags, rope, car bumpers, tennis ball felt, combs, cassette tapes, sails for boats, furniture and, of course, other plastic bottles.
    2. II. High-density polyethylene plastics are used in the production of heavier containers of laundry detergents and bleaches as well as milk, shampoo, and motor oil jugs and bags. It is often recycled into toys, piping, plastic lumber, and rope. It can also be processed to crude oil.
    3. III. Polyvinylchloride is commonly used in plastic pipes, shower curtains, medical tubing, vinyl dashboards, and even some baby bottle nipples.
    4. IV. Polystyrene (Styrofoam) plastic is used to manufacture items such as coffee cups, disposable cutlery, meat trays, packing “peanuts”, and insulation. It is widely accepted because it can be reprocessed into many items including cassette tapes and rigid foam insulation.

    Using the codes given below, select the correct answer:

    1. I is only correct.
    2. I and II are correct.
    3. I, II, and III are correct.
    4. I, II, III, and IV are correct.
  14. The following statement is not correct:
    1. Plastic recycling is the process of recovering scrap or waste plastics and reprocessing the material into useful products, sometimes completely different in form from their original state.
    2. Thermal de-polymerization is a process that involves the conversion of assorted polymers cracked into crude oil.
    3. The easiest and the most common plastics to recycle is nylon and polycarbonate (PC).
    4. Plastic wastes can also be processed into wax-free hydrocarbon such as naphtha and diesel oil.

CHAPTER 9 Biomass Energy

  1. Using biomass as a source of energy for heating includes heating with
    1. coal
    2. natural gas
    3. petroleum
    4. wood stove
  2. Biomass can be converted into
    1. liquid fuel
    2. hydrogen
    3. producer gas
    4. all of these
  3. Gasification of biomass is a
    1. biochemical conversion process
    2. chemical conversion process
    3. thermochemical conversion process
    4. biological conversion process
  4. Biomass can be used as fuel through
    1. combustion
    2. fermentation
    3. digestion
    4. all of these
  5. Biomass can be converted into
    1. solid fuel
    2. liquid fuel
    3. gaseous fuel
    4. all of these
  6. Which of the following fuel does not give ash as residue when burnt?
    1. Wood
    2. Charcoal
    3. Biogas
    4. Coal
  7. The gas produced by burning wood in an insufficient supply of oxygen is called
    1. Producer gas
    2. Biogas
    3. Natural Gas
    4. Nitrogen gas
  8. Bagasse is
    1. a type of coal
    2. wood product
    3. sugarcane product
    4. rice straw

CHAPTER 10 Biogas Energy

  1. Biogas is produced when anaerobic bacteria digest organic matters in absence of oxygen. This process is called
    1. anaerobic reduction
    2. anaerobic digestion
    3. anaerobic oxidation
    4. anaerobic drying
  2. Which gas has a major share in biogas?
    1. N2
    2. CH4
    3. CO2
    4. H2
  3. What is the biggest source of biogas in rural India?
    1. Kitchen waste
    2. Leaves
    3. Cow dung
    4. Industrial waste
  4. Under normal conditions, the maximum yield of biogas can be obtained at
    1. 7°C–10°C
    2. 11°C–15°C
    3. 16°C–25°C
    4. 26°C–35°C

CHAPTER 11 Tidal Energy

  1. The interaction between sun, earth, and moon causes the strongest phenomena for the availability of the following energy:
    1. ocean thermal
    2. sea waves
    3. tidal
    4. wind
  2. The tidal energy of a sea wave is the sum of its
    1. mechanical energy and thermal energy
    2. potential energy and hydropower energy
    3. potential energy and kinetic energy
    4. kinetic energy and thermal energy
  3. The tidal range is the difference between
    1. water movement speed and high tide
    2. water movement direction and high tide
    3. Water elevation at high tide and low tide
    4. mean sea level and low fields elevation
  4. Bulb turbines used in tidal power plants are
    1. high head turbines
    2. high pressure turbine
    3. high speed
    4. low head turbine
  5. Tides are created primarily by
    1. absorption of solar radiation in the atmosphere
    2. gravitational attraction between the earth and moon
    3. interaction of winds with the surface of oceans
    4. rotation of the earth about its axis and its motion around the sun
  6. Following advantages are given for tidal power:
    1. I. Tidal power belongs to renewable energy sources meaning it cannot be depleted like fossil fuels.
    2. II. Tidal power belongs to the most efficient energy sources by having efficiency of approximately 80%.
    3. III. Tides are predictable, and this predictability is also one of the advantages that tidal power has over other energy sources because rise and fall of tides are much more cyclic than random weather patterns.
    4. IV. Harnessing tidal power has positive impact on climate change because it produces no greenhouse gas emissions.
    5. V. Tidal power plants maintain cost-competitiveness on global energy market.

    Using the codes given below, select the correct answer.

    1. I, II, III, and IV are correct.
    2. I, II, III, and V are correct.
    3. II, III, IV, and V are correct.
    4. III, IV, and V are correct.
  7. Following disadvantages are given for tidal power:
    1. I. Tidal power plants are connected with high upfront costs needed for construction and therefore lack cost-competitiveness on global energy market.
    2. II. Tidal power is intermittent source of energy that can only produce electricity during tidal surges.
    3. III. Harnessing tidal power has positive impact on climate change because it produces no greenhouse gas emissions.
    4. IV Tidal power needs big funds and plenty of scientific research before reaching the commercial character.

    Using the codes given below, select the correct answer.

    1. I, II, and III are correct.
    2. I, III, and IV are correct.
    3. II, III, and IV are correct.
    4. I, II, and IV are correct.
  8. For a tidal power plant, h is the vertical tidal range, A is the horizontal area of the barrage basin, ρ is the density of water, and g is the acceleration due to the gravity. The energy (E) available from barrage is
    1. E = (1/2) Aρgh
    2. E = (1/2) Aρgh2
    3. E = (1/2) [Aρgh]2
    4. E = Aρgh2

CHAPTER 12 Sea Wave Energy

  1. Because of the following property, a sea wave is likely to bend toward a headland rather than travel straight toward land.
    1. Diffraction
    2. Reflection
    3. Refraction
    4. Wave interference
  2. The two swells in phase interfere with each other
    1. destructively
    2. constructively
    3. orthogonally
    4. refractively
  3. Shape of movement of sea waves in deep water is
    1. circular
    2. elliptical
    3. horizontal
    4. spherical
  4. Water waves are also called as
    1. celestial waves
    2. hydro spherical waves
    3. orbital waves
    4. spherical waves
  5. Ocean waves moving with steady speed is called
    1. Tsunami
    2. Progressive wave
    3. spilling breaker
    4. Tidal wave
  6. Following factor(s) generally determine(s) the maximum length and height of ocean waves
    1. celerity
    2. duration
    3. fetch
    4. all of these
  7. The speed of a sea wave is equal to
    1. the height divided by the frequency
    2. the wavelength divided by the amplitude
    3. the period divided by the wavelength
    4. the wavelength divided by the period
  8. A wave with a period of 10 s and a wavelength of 130 m will travel at a velocity of
    1. 1.3 m/s
    2. 13 m/s
    3. 130 m/s
    4. 1,300 m/s
  9. The horizontal distance between two successive crests or troughs of a sea wave is the
    1. Amplitude
    2. Height
    3. Period
    4. Wavelength
  10. In a wave train,
    1. the individual wave crests move toward the back of the group.
    2. the individual wave crests move toward the front of the group.
    3. the train carries the energy of the waves.
    4. both
    5. and (c)
  11. Following factors work determine(s) the size of wind waves:
    1. Wave length
    2. wave height
    3. wave period
    4. all of these
  12. Sea waves which can travel long distances without losing much energy is called
    1. capillary wave
    2. gravity waves
    3. rogue waves
    4. swell waves
  13. On a moderately sloped beach, following occurs:
    1. Open ocean breaker
    2. Plunging breaker
    3. Spilling breaker
    4. Surging breaker
  14. Following device is not used for sea wave energy conversion to electrical energy:
    1. Aquabuoy
    2. Bulb turbine
    3. Oscillating water column
    4. Tapchan
  15. Given that the significant height of sea wave is H (m), period of wave is T(s), g is the acceleration due to gravity in m/s, and ρ is the specific density of water in kg/m3. The approximate expression for wave power is given by
    1. P = 0.5 H2 × T (kW/m)
    2. P = 0.5 H2 × T2 (kW/m)
    3. P = 0.5 H × T2 (kW/m)
    4. P = ρ × g × H × T
  16. Assertion (A): Capillary waves transfer energy from air to water to drive currents.

    Reason (R): Capillary waves are the first to form when the wind blows. Using the codes given below, select the correct answer:

    1. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
    2. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    3. A is correct but R is incorrect.
    4. A is incorrect but R is correct.
  17. Sea waves usually break when wave ratio equals to
    1. 4/7
    2. 3/7
    3. 2/7
    4. 1/7
  18. Steepness of sea wave is given as
    1. the product of wave height and wavelength
    2. the ratio of wave height to wavelength
    3. the ratio of wavelength to wave height
    4. the square of product of wave height and wavelength
  19. In a shallow water wave, depth of water is 4,000 m and wavelength is 50 km. Wave speed is
    1. 39,240 m/s
    2. 198.1 m/s
    3. 99 m/s
    4. 49.52 m/s

CHAPTER 13 Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion

  1. The Ocean thermal energy conversion system that is meant to generate power is most suitable in
    1. sub-tropical region
    2. tropical region
    3. cold region
    4. moderate climate region
  2. The temperature gradient of ocean thermal energy conversion system is utilized in
    1. internal combustion engines
    2. heat engine
    3. water turbines
    4. none of these
  3. The overall efficiency of an OTEC power plant is
    1. 2%–3%
    2. 10%–15%
    3. 15%–20%
    4. 20%–25%
  4. Large amounts of solar energy are stored in oceans and seas. The process of harnessing this energy is called
    1. ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC)
    2. ocean thermal conversion (OTC)
    3. ocean and sea thermal energy conversion (OSTEC)
    4. sea thermal energy conversion (STEC)
  5. The energy available when the temperature of water at the surface of ocean is different from that at deeper level is called
    1. ocean thermal energy
    2. sea water energy
    3. ocean water energy
    4. none of these
  6. Ocean and sea waves are indirectly caused due to
    1. pressure gradients
    2. solar energy
    3. geothermal energy
    4. none of these

CHAPTER 14 Fuel Cell

  1. The following statement is not correct:
    1. German scientists Schonbein discovered the principle of the fuel cell in the year 1838.
    2. Fuel cell works as long as fuel is supplied to it.
    3. A battery cell is a closed system that stores reactant in it.
    4. Fuel cell is a closed system that stores the reactant in it.
    5. A battery cell requires regular replacement.
  2. Following statements are given in relation to fuel cell:
    1. I. Fuel cells operate using hydrogen.
    2. II. Hydrocarbon fuels yield hydrogen in a process called reforming.
    3. III. Use of reformed hydrogen does not lead to carbon dioxide emission.
    4. IV. Fuel cells are open system in which reactants are continuously supplied.
    5. V. A fuel cell is different from battery.

    Using the code given below, select the correct answer.

    1. I, II, and III are correct.
    2. II, III, and IV are correct.
    3. III, IV, and V are correct.
    4. I, II, and IV are correct.
  3. Intrinsic Gibb’s free energy of the reaction in hydrogen–oxygen fuel cell is
    1. 237 kJ/mole of hydrogen
    2. −237 kJ/mole of hydrogen
    3. 273 kJ/mole of hydrogen
    4. −273 kJ/mole of hydrogen
  4. Assertion (A): A fuel cell is an electrochemical cell that converts chemical energy into electrical energy without combustion.

    Reason (R): The chemical energy of reactants in fuel cell is converted as low voltage dc as an isothermal process.

    Using the codes given below, select the correct answer.

    1. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
    2. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    3. A is correct but R is incorrect.
    4. A is incorrect but R is correct.
  5. Fuel cells have the following advantage:
    1. Fuel cells are more efficient than combustion engines.
    2. Fuel cells emit low emission.
    3. Fuel cells give quite (silent) operation.
    4. All of these
  6. Following is not the correct statement related with fuel cells:
    1. Fuel cells require hydrogen and oxygen as fuel to produce electricity and water.
    2. Fuel cells are simple in construction with a few or no moving parts.
    3. All fuel cells are very cheap.
    4. Modular installations of fuel cells can be used to match the load and increase the reliability of system.
  7. The ideal voltage of hydrogen–oxygen fuel cell at 1 atmospheric pressure and 25° C temperature is
    1. 1.18 V
    2. 1.23 V
    3. 1.32 V
    4. 1.81 V
  8. Given the following choices, which one has the greatest ability to perform useful work as the energy source quality is high.
    1. Coal
    2. Electricity
    3. Oil
    4. Solar

CHAPTER 15 Magnetohydrodynamic (MHD) Power Generation

  1. In a MHD generator, material used as conductor is
    1. copper and aluminium
    2. gas
    3. liquid metal
    4. liquid metal and gas
  2. Power output of an MHD generator per unit volume is
    1. proportional to the specific electrical conductivity of gas
    2. square of the fluid velocity
    3. square of magnetic field strength
    4. all of these
  3. The electrical power generated by MHD generator is
    1. AC only
    2. AC and DC both
    3. DC only
    4. triangular waveform
  4. Commonly used seeding material in MHD generator is
    1. aluminium oxide
    2. cesium
    3. potassium carbonate
    4. sodium chloride
  5. Following statement is given for MHD generators:
    1. I. The nature of electric current developed in MHD generator is pure direct current (DC).
    2. II. Generally, potassium carbonate is used as seed material in MHD generator.
    3. III. In MHD generator, the seeding material is used to reduce the electric conductivity of gas.
    4. IV A magnet producing high magnetic flux density is necessary for efficient operation of MHD generator.

    Using the following codes, select the correct answer:

    1. I, II, and III are correct.
    2. I, II, and IV are correct.
    3. II, III, and IV are correct.
    4. I, II, III, and IV are correct.
  6. Seeding material is injected into the working fluid of MHD generator in order to
    1. increase the electrical conductivity of gas
    2. reduce the electrical conductivity of gas
    3. reduce the temperature of the gas
    4. increase the magnetic field density
  7. MHD generation mainly depends on
    1. electric conductivity
    2. permeability
    3. permittivity
    4. all of these
  8. Following statements are given for the application advantage of MHD generators as compared to a conventional fossil fuel generator.
    1. I. It has no moving parts.
    2. II. It is a most promising direct energy converter.
    3. III. It is smaller in size.
    4. IV. It is very cheap.

    Using the code below, select the correct answer:

    1. I, II, and III are correct.
    2. I, II, and IV are correct.
    3. II, III, and IV are correct.
    4. I, II, III, and IV are correct.

CHAPTER 16 Thermoelectric Converters

  1. Electrode materials in thermo electric generators are
    1. carbon
    2. ferrite
    3. metal conductor
    4. semiconductor
  2. Following statements are given related to thermo electric generators:
    1. I. The voltage output of a thermoelectric generator depends on Seebeck constant and temperature difference.
    2. II. The temperature difference between hot source and heat sink causes flow of AC current through the load in thermo electric generator.
    3. III. The most commonly used material for thermo electric generator is lead telluride.
    4. IV. The efficiency of thermo electric generator is defined as the ratio of power developed across the load resistance to the heat flow from the source.

    From the code given below, select the correct answer:

    1. I, II, and III are correct.
    2. I, II, and IV are correct.
    3. I, III, and IV are correct.
    4. I, II, III, and IV are correct.
  3. Assertion (A): A thermo electric power converter having hot source at one end and heat sink at the other end produces potential difference.

    Reason (R): The voltage generated by this converter is given by the product of Seebeck constant and temperature difference between hot and cold junctions.

    Using the codes given below, select the correct answer.

    1. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
    2. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    3. A is correct but R is incorrect.
    4. A is incorrect but R is correct.
  4. Following is not a thermo electric material:
    1. Bismuth Telluride
    2. Copper
    3. Lead Telluride
    4. Silicon Germanium
  5. When an electric current is passed through two dissimilar conductors connected to form a thermocouple, heat is evolved at one junction and absorbed at the other end. The absorption and evolution of heat depends on the direction of flow of current. This effect is called
    1. Joule effect
    2. Peltier effect
    3. Seebeck effect
    4. Thompson effect
  6. Following statements is not correct in describing the advantage of thermoelectric generator:
    1. Thermoelectric generator has quieter operation as there are no moving parts.
    2. Thermoelectric generation is environment friendly.
    3. Thermoelectric generators are highly efficient.
    4. Thermoelectric generators are very useful for waste heat recovery.
  7. Seebeck effect was discovered in the year
    1. 1810
    2. 1821
    3. 1838
    4. 1883
  8. Select the correct statement from the following:
    1. The direction of energy flow in thermoelectric generator is reversible.
    2. The thermoelectric generators are highly efficient converter.
    3. The thermoelectric generators are suitable for high power applications.
    4. Moving parts in thermoelectric converters require regular maintenance.
  9. A difference of temperature between the two junctions of a thermocouple will produce
    1. cooling
    2. heating
    3. voltage between junction
    4. nothing

CHAPTER 17 Thermionic Converters

  1. A thermionic converter converts heat energy directly into electrical energy by using
    1. Peltier effect
    2. Seebeck effect
    3. Thermionic emission effect
    4. Thompson effect
  2. Gas filled in between electrodes of a thermionic converter is
    1. carbon dioxide
    2. caesium
    3. hydrogen
    4. methane
  3. Direct conversion of heat into electrical power is possible through
    1. batteries
    2. fuel cell
    3. thermionic converters
    4. all of these
  4. The common material for electrodes of thermionic converter is Tungsten. It has work function of approximately
    1. 5.4
    2. 4.54
    3. 3.38
    4. 1.5
  5. If k is the Boltzmann constant in eV/°K and T is the temperature at the emitter surface, the average energy of escaping electron escaping from emitter surface is given by the expression
    1. kT
    2. Equation2.png
    3. 2kT
    4. (2kT)2
  6. If the Boltzmann constant is 8.62 eV/°K and the temperature at the emitter surface is 1,000 Kelvin, the average energy of escaping electron escaping from emitter surface is given by
    1. 0.415 eV
    2. 0.172 eV
    3. 0.086 eV
    4. 0.03 eV
  7. Individual thermionic converter is a
    1. high voltage and high current device.
    2. high voltage and low current device
    3. low voltage and high current device
    4. low voltage and low current device
  8. Assertion (A): A large number of thermionic converters are sequentially arranged to obtain useful voltage.

    Reason (R): Individual thermionic converter is a low voltage and high current device.

    Using the code given below, select the correct answer.

    1. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
    2. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    3. A is correct but R is incorrect.
    4. A is incorrect but R is correct.
  9. Assertion (A): Thermionic converters are used in space power application for spacecraft.

    Reason (R): Separator of fluids is required in thermionic converters.

    Using the code given below, select the correct answer.

    1. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
    2. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    3. A is true but R is false.
    4. A is false but R is true

CHAPTER 18 Concept of Energy Conservation and Energy Management

  1. Following statements are given related to energy conservation and management. Select the correct answer by choosing the code given below:
    1. I. The objective of conservation of energy is simply, in present-day context, to obtain maximum useful energy and least wasteful energy. It is called energy conservation.
    2. II. Quality of life, standard of living, and prosperity of a country are indexed by per capita of energy consumption of its people. Energy consumption is, therefore, a parameter that is used to identify the social and techno-economical disparity between different countries.
    3. III. The Energy Management term is accepted globally as more technically accurate than energy conservation and energy consumption. It includes performing a task with minimum quantity of energy at an appropriate quality without affecting the morale of personnel working in the vicinity with capital expenditure avoidance.
    4. IV. Energy management is defined as doing a task with minimum quantity of energy at appropriate quality without attention to cost and morale of personnel.
    5. V. The two terms Energy Conservations and Energy Consumptions cannot be recommended as they are technically inaccurate terminology although they are very frequently used. Energy Management term is presently finding wide publicity and is being continuously recommended as it is technically accurate.

    Codes:

    1. I, II, III, and IV are correct.
    2. I, II, III, and V are correct.
    3. II, III, IV, and V are correct.
    4. I, II, III, IV, and V are correct.
  2. Energy conservation and management do not relate to the following statements:
    1. Preserving the quality of the energy form.
    2. No damage to environment and adverse effect on morale of personnel.
    3. Energy cost saving is the direct savings to end user but it has no effect on utility load factor.
    4. Load management refers to the supply side of the energy system.
  3. Benefits of energy conservation or management is
    1. setting of new energy generating plants can be delayed
    2. reduction in energy consumption cost on billing to energy user
    3. reduced damage to environment
    4. all of these
  4. Any energy management implementation criteria is based on
    1. necessity satisfaction
    2. favourable impact on utilities or energy user
    3. identification of preferred systems
    4. all of these
  5. Energy management programs with housekeeping and maintenance measures can be implemented by reduction of demand in a simple and better way without chaos and politics is
    1. through self-awareness or self-denial
    2. through enforcement and regulatory actions
    3. through economic measures.
    4. all of these
  6. Energy containment is one of the general principles of energy conservation and management. It includes
    1. repair and sealing of air, steam and water leaks, and recovery of energy from wastes
    2. proper location of process steps in a manufacturing plant
    3. captive power generation near the workplace
    4. retrofitting exercise
  7. When cooking on a gas burner, colour of flame settings to conserve LPG is
    1. blue flame
    2. yellowish flame
    3. red flame
    4. brown flame
  8. In the refrigerator system, the following contains energy effectively and reduces losses:
    1. compressor
    2. heat pump
    3. thermostat
    4. none

CHAPTER 19 Energy Conservation and Management in Different Energy Activity Sector

  1. The Power Management System (PMS) prevents blackouts and disturbances of power system operations in addition to the following benefits:
    1. Control energy costs
    2. Enhance safety
    3. Mitigates both environmental and health impacts
    4. All of these
  2. The best method for reducing consumer demand during peak period is
    1. peak saving or load shifting
    2. valley filling
    3. conservation
    4. none of these
  3. Power factor correction is an energy saving technology that is used
    1. to improve the operating efficiency of electrical power systems
    2. to reduce electricity costs
    3. to reduce environmental hazards
    4. all of these
  4. If LF is load factor, kWh is the total energy consumption for the billing period, kW is the peak demand set during the billing period and D is the number of billing days in the month, then percentage load factor is given by
    1. %LF = [kW/(kWh × D × 24)] × 100
    2. %LF = [kWh/(kW × D × 24)] × 100
    3. %LF = [kWh × D/(kW × 24)] × 100
    4. %LF = [kW × D × 24)/kWh] × 100
  5. Actual load calculation on three-phase induction motor by slip method is carried out. Let NS be motor synchronous speed in rpm, NR be name plate full-load speed in rpm, NA be actual measured speed in rpm, and HP be the name plate-rated horse power. Actual load horse power on electric motor (ALHP) is given by
    1. ALHP = HP × [(NS – NA)/(N – NR)]
    2. ALHP = HP × [(NS – NR)/(NS – NA)]
    3. ALHP = HP × [(NR – Na)/(NS – NR)]
    4. ALHP = HP × [(NS + NA)/(NS + NR)]
  6. The annual energy savings are obtained by replacing standard motor with an efficiency of (ηst) by an efficient motor with an efficiency of (ηef). Annual energy saving will be
    1. proportional to (1/ηef)
    2. proportional to (ηst/ηef)
    3. proportional to [(1/ηst) – (1/ηef)]
    4. proportional to [(1/ηef) – (1/ηst)]
  7. Two 40-W rapid start fluorescent lamps with conventional electromagnetic ballast (consumption 15 W) are used for lighting a space for 12 hours a day. When one lamp is removed from the circuit, but both ballasts remain energized, energy saved per day is
    1. 26.26%
    2. 36.36%
    3. 50%
    4. 59.59%

ANSWERS

Chapter 1

1. (a)    2. (a)    3. (d)    4. (c)    5. (c)    6. (b)    7. (c)    8. (d)    9. (b)    10. (a)    11. (b)    12. (c)    13. (c)    14. (a)    15. (a)    16. (a)    17. (c)    18. (b)    19. (d)    20. (c)    21. (c)    22. (b)    23. (c)    24. (a)    25. (a)    26. (a)    27. (b)    28. (a)    29. (d)    30. (b)    31. (a)    32. (d)    33. (b)    34. (d)

Chapter 2

1. (d)    2. (d)    3. (c)    4. (b)    5. (c)    6. (c)    7. (d)    8. (b)    9. (b)    10. (c)    11. (c)    

Chapter 3

1. (c)    2. (b)    3. (a)    4. (c)    5. (b)    6. (c)    7. (a)    8. (b)    9. (d)    10. (c)    11. (d)    12. (d)    13. (d)    14. (c)    15. (a)    16. (b)    17. (a)    18. (b)    19. (d)

Chapter 4

1. (c)    2. (d)    3. (d)    4. (a)    5. (c)    6. (d)    7. (a)    8. (d)    9. (c)    10. (b)    11. (a)    12. (a)    13. (b)    14. (a)    15. (c)    16. (c)    17. (d)    18. (d)    19. (d)    20. (c)    21. (c)    22. (d)    23. (b)

Chapter 5

1. (a)     2. (a)    3. (a)    4. (d)    5. (b)    6. (b)    7. (a)    8. (a)    9. (d)

Chapter 6

1. (d)    2. (c)    3. (b)    4. (b)    5. (c)    6. (a)    7. (c)    8. (c)    9. (c)    10. (b)    11. (a)    12. (c)    13. (a)    14. (a)    15. (c)    16. (a)    17. (c)    18. (d)    19. (b)    20. (d)    21. (d)    22. (c)    23. (d)    24. (d)    25. (d)

Chapter 7

1. (c)    2. (d)    3. (b)    4. (b)    5. (d)    6. (b)    7. (c)    8. (a)    9. (d)    10. (d)

Chapter 8

1. (c)    2. (a)    3. (d)    4. (c)    5. (c)    6. (a)    7. (c)    8. (d)    9. (d)    10. (d)    11. (a)    12. (b)    13. (d)    14. (c)

Chapter 9

1. (d)    2. (d)    3. (c)    4. (d)    5. (d)    6. (c)    7. (a)    8. (c)

Chapter 10

1. (b)    2. (b)    3. (c)    4. (d)

Chapter 11

1. (c)    2. (a)    3. (c)    4. (d)    5. (b)    6. (a)    7. (a)    8. (b)

Chapter 12

1. (c)    2. (b)    3. (a)    4. (c)    5. (b)    6. (d)    7. (d)    8. (b)    9. (d)    10. (d)    11. (d)    12. (d)    13. (b)    14. (b)    15. (a)    16. (a)    17. (d)    18. (b)    19. (b)

Chapter 13

1. (a)    2. (b)    3. (a)    4. (a)    5. (a)    6. (b)

Chapter 14

1. (d)    2. (d)    3. (b)    4. (a)    5. (d)    6. (c)    7. (b)    8. (b)

Chapter 15

1. (b)    2. (b)    3. (c)    4. (c)    5. (b)    6. (a)    7. (a)    8. (a)

Chapter 16

1. (d)    2. (c)    3. (b)    4. (b)    5. (b)    6. (c)    7. (b)    8. (a)

Chapter 17

1. (c)    2. (b)    3. (c)    4. (b)    5. (c)    6. (b)    7. (c)    8. (a)    9. (c)

Chapter 18

1. (b)    2. (c)    3. (d)    4. (d)    5. (a)    6. (a)    7. (a)    8. (b)

Chapter 19

1. (d)    2. (a)    3. (d)    4. (b)    5. (b)    6. (c)    7. (b)

..................Content has been hidden....................

You can't read the all page of ebook, please click here login for view all page.
Reset
18.217.4.206