Cram Quizzes and Answers
Cram Quizzes
Chapter 1
Quiz 1
1. You are a project manager working for a large utility company. You have been assigned the responsibility to manage a project that performs monthly security vulnerability assessments and addresses any identified vulnerabilities. You question the assignment because
A. Security vulnerability assessments do not materially contribute to your organization’s products and should not be considered important enough to be classified as a project.
B. This endeavor cannot be considered a project because no start date is specified.
C. The recurring nature of the assessment in addition to the lack of ending date means that this endeavor is not a project at all.
D. A security vulnerability assessment produces no specific product, so it is not a project.
2. Which project knowledge area contains the processes that ensure the project includes the work required to successfully complete the project, and no more?
A. Project Scope Management
B. Project Quality Management
C. Project Integration Management
D. Project Risk Management
Quiz 2
1. You are managing a project that will implement a new accounting software package. You have assigned the resources, both personnel and equipment, and want to keep the IT manager in the loop by informing her of your decisions. Which type of organizational structure are you working in?
A. Projectized
B. Strong matrix
C. Weak matrix
D. Functional
2. During your accounting software implementation project, two project team members have difficulty working together. They come to you, the project manager, for help with resolving the issues. You immediately set up a meeting that includes the functional manager. After the meeting, you and the functional manager discuss the issues and agree on a solution. This type of management probably indicates you are working in what type of organizational structure?
A. Functional
B. Weak matrix
C. Balanced matrix
D. Projectized
Quiz 3
1. Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders over the life of a project?
A. Stakeholders ultimately direct all project activities.
B. Stakeholder influence is low at the beginning and tends to grow throughout the project.
C. Stakeholder influence is the highest at the beginning and tends to decrease throughout the project.
D. Stakeholders do not directly influence the project’s outcome; they only provide authority and resources.
2. During your accounting software implementation project, you find that training is not progressing as quickly as the schedule requires and the users are not well trained after the sessions are over. After investigating the cause, you find that the trainers you have retained do not have the proper experience and knowledge to effectively train your users. Which statement best describes the effect on the project and the effect of the action required to fix the problem?
A. The schedule is suffering. To fix the situation, you have to hire more experienced trainers and schedule extra training sessions. Your schedule returns to planned values while cost increases.
B. The quality and schedule are being negatively impacted. To fix the situation, you likely have to hire more experienced trainers at a higher rate and schedule extra training sessions. Quality and schedule return to planned values while cost increases.
C. This problem is the responsibility of the organization that provided the trainers. They provide replacement trainers who are qualified at the same price to continue the training required.
D. Although your training looks like it is behind schedule, you wisely built in enough slack time to cover such a problem. You simply find replacement trainers and continue the training.
3. You have just completed the defining activities, estimating activity resources, and estimating activity durations processes. Which process have you left out?
A. Sequence Activities
B. Develop Schedule
C. Control Schedule
D. Create WBS
Chapter 2
Quiz 1
1. To whom does the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct apply?
A. PMPs and PMP candidates
B. All project managers
C. All persons who are PMI members or hold a PMI certification
D. All PMI members
2. What is the most important goal of the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct?
A. To advance the profession of project management
B. To weed out unethical project managers
C. To address known ethical weaknesses of inexperienced project managers
D. To help project managers increase their skill levels
Quiz 2
1. You have access to proprietary information a vendor included as part of a bid proposal. The information was marked confidential and was included to show that the vendor would be issued a patent by the end of the month, which makes this company’s bid the best candidate for your company and significantly improves the market share of the vendor. What do you do with this information?
A. Invest in the company immediately
B. Tell your friends to invest in this company
C. Wait until the information becomes public knowledge and then decide if you want to invest in the company
D. Provide the proprietary information to a competing vendor
2. You are a project manager working on a project that has had numerous change requests from the customer that have resulted in scope creep. The project is over schedule and over budget. The remaining scope entails preferred user requirements that do not affect the operation of the application. You can complete the project this month if you reduce the scope and remove these preferred user requirements. What do you do?
A. Continue with the project and complete the remaining scope
B. Explain to the customer the benefits of reducing scope and make the customer sign off on this final change request
C. Reduce the scope, do not document this change, and tell the customer the project has been completed
D. Explain to the customer that the preferred user requirements are not possible and get the customer to sign off on this final change request reducing the project scope
Quiz 3
1. You are a project manager who has noticed that one of your team members is visibly agitated. The team member is upset because of pictures displayed in another team member’s cubicle. The pictures are clearly visible and do not appear objectionable to you. What should you do?
A. Encourage the upset team member to stop making a big deal over nothing.
B. Meet with the team member who has displayed the pictures, make a few jokes to keep it light, then suggest that the pictures be displayed in a less obvious place.
C. Meet with the team member who is upset to try and understand the basis for the concern. Work with the team member to find an acceptable solution.
D. Notify human resources that there is a personnel problem that needs attention.
2. While leading a project status meeting, a functional manager disagrees with a decision you have made and makes it a point to be very vocal about it. He uses the meeting to express his doubts about your skills and even goes so far as to suggest that your race plays a part in the way you make decisions. How should you react?
A. Do nothing. File a complaint with the manager’s boss after the meeting.
B. Use your authority as the meeting leader to take control of the discussion and present your rebuttal.
C. Suggest an immediate meeting between the two of you to discuss your differences.
D. Bring the manager’s boss into the meeting and ask for assistance in addressing his comments.
Quiz 4
1. Your spouse works for a vendor that is bidding on a project at your company. You are not affiliated with the specific project team that is evaluating bids, but you are part of the executive project management team. What do you do?
A. Inform your company of the relationship
B. Inform the vendor of the relationship
C. Both A and B
D. Disqualify the vendor
2. You work for a U.S.-based company hired to perform project management services in a foreign country. Other companies that have done business in this country inform you that gifts must be made to the government to obtain the necessary project approvals. What do you do?
A. Offer the recommended gifts to obtain project approvals
B. Do not offer gifts to obtain project approvals
C. Ignore the need for project approvals
D. Both B and C
Quiz 5
1. Falsification of information at any point during the PMI certification program can result in
A. Revocation of your PMI membership
B. Revocation of your PMP certification
C. Notification of your employer
D. Both A and B
2. You are responsible for developing a cost estimate to bid on a government contract. The scope was set by the government. Your supervisor says the cost estimate is too high and should be reduced by one-third to ensure that your company wins the contract. Your analysis shows that any reduction to the proposed cost estimate makes the project unable to meet the specified scope. What do you do?
A. Reduce the cost estimate and submit the proposal
B. Submit your initial cost estimate without reducing the cost
C. Explain to your supervisor in writing that your analysis shows that a reduction in the cost estimate makes the project unable to meet the specified scope
D. Both A and C
Chapter 3
Quiz 1
1. You are a project manager newly assigned to a project to implement new manufacturing management software. The project sponsor tells you he has chosen you because he is impressed with your record of completing projects. He tells you that work must start immediately, and there is not enough time to go through all of the formal documentation process. He asks for a quick list of tasks to start now. What do you do?
A. Put together a quick list of the most important tasks, per the sponsor’s request.
B. Start working on the project tasks and develop a general plan as soon as you can.
C. Refuse to start on the project until you develop a project charter and get it approved.
D. Explain to the sponsor the need for a project charter and project plan.
2. What is the main purpose for initiating a project?
A. Produce the project charter
B. Formally describe the project
C. Formally authorize the project
D. Assign the project manager to the project
Quiz 2
1. Which of the following statements does NOT apply to the project charter?
A. The project charter formally authorizes the project.
B. The project charter provides the project manager with authority to devote organizational resources to project activities.
C. The project charter identifies an external project sponsor.
D. The project charter includes a work breakdown structure (WBS) and associated WBS dictionary.
2. Who is responsible for creating the project charter?
A. The project manager
B. The project sponsor
C. The project team
D. The project management office (PMO)
Quiz 3
1. How much do stakeholders influence a project after the initiating and planning process groups?
A. None at all. Stakeholders only influence a project during the initiating and planning process groups.
B. Very little. Stakeholders only occasionally monitor a project’s progress after the planning process group.
C. Substantially. Stakeholders can potentially influence all aspects of a project throughout its life cycle.
D. It depends entirely on the project manager.
2. Which of the following are generally NOT project stakeholders?
A. Vendors
B. Customers
C. Functional managers
D. Project management office (PMO)
Quiz 4
1. When should a project manager be assigned to a project?
A. Prior to the start of project planning
B. After the project charter is approved
C. During project planning
D. During project execution
2. Which accounting concept refers to the value today of future cash flow?
A. Present value
B. Net present value (NPV)
C. Opportunity cost
D. Sunk cost
Chapter 4
Quiz 1
1. What is a common result of poor project planning?
A. Wasted effort
B. Lost time
C. Increased cost
D. All of the above
2. Which of the following aspects of planning has the most processes and is concerned with decomposing the work of a project into manageable chunks?
A. Scope
B. Time
C. Cost
D. Quality
Quiz 2
1. You are a project manager newly assigned to a large project for your organization. The project charter has been signed, and the stakeholders have been identified. What should you do next?
A. Ask appropriate team members to submit WBS input
B. Initiate the scope planning process
C. Start the develop project management plan process
D. Begin the activity definition process
2. Which of the following is NOT part of the expert judgment tool and technique for the develop project management plan process?
A. Tailor the process to meet the project needs
B. Hold planning meetings to develop the risk management plan
C. Determine resources and skill levels needed to perform project work
D. Define the level of configuration management to apply to the project
Quiz 3
1. As project manager, you are about to start the define scope process. You have the project charter and the organizational process assets list. Because there are no change requests in your project at this point, what must you have before you begin?
A. Product analysis
B. Requirements documentation
C. Updates to project documents
D. WBS
2. What does a project scope statement document?
A. What work is to be completed during the project
B. What deliverables need to be produced by the project
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
3. The work breakdown structure (WBS) does all of the following except
A. Organizes and defines the entire scope of the project
B. Divides the project into smaller, more manageable tasks
C. Serves as a high-level planning tool for work planned but not yet approved
D. Both A and B
4. Which of the following is an output of the collect requirements process?
A. Scope management plan
B. Requirements management plan
C. Requirements risk breakdown
D. Requirements traceability matrix
Quiz 4
Use Figure 4.6 for Questions 1, 2, and 3.
1. What is the critical path for this project, and what is the duration of the critical path?
A. A–B–D–F–G, 13 days
B. A–C–E–G, 14 days
C. A–B–D–F–G, 14 days
D. A–C–E–G, 13 days
2. How many days late can Task D start without affecting the project completion date?
A. One day
B. Two days
C. Zero days
D. Three days
3. If Task C starts two days late, what is the effect on the project end date?
A. The project ends one day late because there is slack of one day.
B. The project is still two days early because Tasks B, D, and F each have one day of slack.
C. The project is one day late because Task C is on the critical path.
D. There is no effect on the project end date.
4. When developing the estimates for project phases, you choose to add the individual estimates for the activities comprising each phase. What type of estimation method are you using?
A. Parametric estimating
B. Bottom-up estimating
C. Top-down estimating
D. Analogous estimating
5. What is the primary purpose of the define activities process?
A. Identify the specific actions to be performed that result in the stated project deliverables
B. Identify and document relationships among project activities
C. Analyze activity sequences, durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints
D. Monitor the status of the project schedule and manage schedule changes
6. Which estimating technique is the best choice if you know the durations of similar activities from other projects?
A. Analogous estimating
B. Parametric estimating
C. Three-point estimating
D. Historical analysis estimating
7. Which of the following is NOT an output of the develop schedule process?
A. Project schedule
B. Schedule baseline
C. Schedule data
D. Resource breakdown structure
Quiz 5
1. The project cost and schedule for deliverables can be reasonably estimated at what level of the WBS?
A. The highest level
B. The middle level
C. The work package level
D. Both A and C
2. When the cost of an activity cannot be estimated with an adequate degree of certainty, the work within the activity can be decomposed. The resource requirements for each lower, more detailed work package can be estimated and aggregated to form a basis for estimating the cost for overarching scheduled activity. What is this type of estimating called?
A. Bottom-up estimating
B. Decomposed estimating
C. Should-cost estimating
D. Three-point estimating
3. Which process results in the project funding requirements document as one of its outputs?
A. Estimate activity resources
B. Estimate activity durations
C. Estimate costs
D. Determine budget
Chapter 5
Quiz 1
1. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of a project manager?
A. Acquiring human resources for the project team
B. Managing overall responsibility for quality in the organization
C. Managing risk on the project
D. Monitoring customer satisfaction on the project
2. Which subsidiary plan/component documents how an organization will achieve the quality objectives for a project?
A. Quality management plan
B. Quality baseline
C. Process improvement plan
D. Quality control checklist
3. Which quality theory outlines 14 points and calls for quality awareness at all levels of the organization?
A. CMM
B. Kaizen
C. TQM
D. Malcolm Baldrige
Quiz 2
1. Which resource planning tool provides information on resource responsibility and accountability?
A. OBS
B. RBS
C. RAM
D. RACI matrix
2. What is the primary purpose of the human resource management plan?
A. Identify and document roles, responsibilities, and skills necessary for project goal fulfillment
B. Describe how the project team will interact
C. Assemble the project team
D. Document strategies to motivate the project team
Quiz 3
1. What type of communication would be best for casual, non-urgent information exchange between team members in geographically distant locations?
A. Telephone
B. Conference call
C. Email
D. Shared memo
2. Which type of communication would be the best choice for discussing schedule changes to an entire team that is located in several different physical sites?
A. Conference call
B. Email
C. Website
D. One-on-one telephone calls
Quiz 4
1. Which input is NOT used for the identify risks process?
A. Project charter
B. Scope baseline
C. Cost management plan
D. Academic studies
2. In evaluating project risk, a decision tree analysis is most helpful in which of the following scenarios?
A. Describing a potential risk and the implications for each available choice and outcome associated with the risk
B. Describing a potential risk and the most likely choice and outcome associated with the risk
C. Describing a potential risk and the least likely choice and outcome associated with the risk
D. None of the above
3. The identification of risks associated with a project
A. Occurs only at the beginning of a project, when the risk management plan is developed
B. Is an ongoing process, regularly scheduled throughout the life cycle of a project
C. Occurs as needed throughout the life cycle of a project
D. Both B and C
4. Which of the following is the only valid tool and technique for the plan risk management process?
A. Reserve analysis
B. Planning meetings and analysis
C. Checklist analysis
D. Contingent response strategies
5. Which input is NOT used for the qualitative risk analysis process?
A. Cost management plan
B. Risk register
C. Risk management plan
D. Scope baseline
6. Which tool and technique is NOT used for the plan risk responses process?
A. Strategies for positive risks or opportunities
B. Contingent response strategies
C. Risk audits
D. Expert judgment
Quiz 5
1. The responsibility for tailoring a contract for goods and services to the needs of the project lies with whom?
A. The project manager
B. The project management team
C. The attorneys
D. The contract manager
2. What is the name for the decision about whether a product or service can be produced by the project management team or can be purchased?
A. Buyer assessment
B. Expert judgment
C. Make-or-buy analysis
D. Procurement evaluation
Quiz 6
1. Which type of stakeholder should be managed most closely throughout the project life cycle?
A. Low interest, high power
B. Low interest, low power
C. High interest, high power
D. High interest, low power
2. Why must the stakeholder management plan include provisions to change the plan?
A. The initial plan may be insufficient as more stakeholders are identified.
B. Stakeholders may gain or lose interest in the project as work progresses.
C. Stakeholders may change positions and responsibilities.
D. Project work beyond the defined scope may impact different stake-holders.
Chapter 6
Quiz 1
1. Which activity is NOT performed as part of the direct and manage project work process?
A. Staff, train, and manage the project team.
B. Create and verify deliverables.
C. Manage risks and implement risk responses.
D. Monitor implementation of approved changes.
2. You’re part of a project team constructing a manufacturing plant. You begin using process engineering to define the assumptions and constraints of the manufacturing process to be performed at the plant. This information is then used to design the major manufacturing units within the plant, which in turn serves as the starting point for designing the detailed plant layout and all other associated facilities. Next, design drawings are completed for fabrication and construction requirements. Changes and modifications occur during actual construction, requiring change control management and “as-built” documents. Finally, user acceptance testing and turnover of the completed manufacturing plant results in more adjustments and corrections. This is an example of
A. Analogous estimating
B. Assumptions analysis
C. Fast tracking
D. Progressive elaboration
3. What does crashing a project schedule imply?
A. Project cost and project schedule trade-offs occur to achieve the maximum schedule compression for the least cost to the project without compromising the intended scope of the project.
B. Project cost and project schedule overruns may result in a project coming in over budget and over time but within the original defined project scope.
C. It involves throwing more resources at the project to meet the planned project end date and planned project scope.
D. This is another term for fast tracking a project.
Quiz 2
1. What is the name for comparing planned project practices or actual project best practices from other comparable projects to your project in an effort to improve the quality of your project and establish performance measurement baselines?
A. Benchmarking
B. Continuous improvement
C. Metric creation
D. Quality assurance (QA)
2. A structured, independent review to determine whether project activities adhere to your project management plan and other project documentation, including all project policies, procedures, and standards, is called a(n)
A. Assurance review
B. Organizational process assessment
C. Process analysis
D. Quality audit
3. Which of the following is NOT one of the seven basic quality tools?
A. Cause-and-effect diagram
B. Statistical sampling
C. Histogram
D. Scatter diagram
Quiz 3
1. A project manager has budgeted money to provide cash awards to team members who exceed expectations. A project team member who is motivated by the chance to earn a cash reward can most accurately be explained by which theory?
A. Hierarchy of needs
B. Theory X
C. Achievement theory
D. Expectancy theory
2. A project is a month into the executing phase. There are some cliques forming among the team members. Which leadership style is most appropriate?
A. Directing
B. Delegating
C. Coaching
D. Supporting
3. A project team is composed of team members in two countries plus a contractor team in a third country. What tool would optimize communication?
A. Project schedule tool
B. War room
C. Manual filing system
D. Extranet-based electronic document repository
4. Which of the following is NOT an output of the acquire project team process?
A. Project staff assignments
B. Resource calendars
C. Team performance assessments
D. Project management plan updates
Quiz 4
1. How many communication channels exist for a team of 20 members?
A. 20
B. 80
C. 190
D. 230
2. Communication technology factors that can affect a project include
A. The urgency of the need for information
B. The expected staffing on the project and the individuals’ competencies
C. The length of the project
D. All of the above
Quiz 5
1. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of a bidder conference?
A. All prospective vendors hear questions and answers form all parties
B. Featured vendors receive preferential access
C. Procurement requirements are communicated to all prospective vendors
D. Questions can be collected before the conference to allow for complete answers
2. Which technique for selecting a seller is useful when there are several differences between the sellers and no clear “best choice”?
A. Weighting system
B. Expert judgment
C. Seller rating system
D. Screening system
Quiz 6
1. What is the key benefit of the manage stakeholder engagement process?
A. It maintains an updated roster of engaged stakeholders.
B. It provides an opportunity to align stakeholders with closely related team members.
C. It enables the project manager to strengthen support and decrease resistance from stakeholders.
D. It gives the project manager the authority to persuade stakeholders to support project activities.
2. Which output of the manage stakeholder engagement process may result in alterations to the project product?
A. Project documents updates
B. Project management plan updates
C. Issue log
D. Change requests
Chapter 7
Quiz 1
1. The change control system is a subsystem of what?
A. Configuration management
B. Project management
C. Risk management
D. Scope management
2. Approved change requests can cause a change to which of the following project elements?
A. Scope
B. Quality
C. Schedule
D. All of the above
3. Which of the following best describes the monitor and control project work process?
A. Tracking, reviewing, and regulating the progress made toward fulfilling project objectives
B. Performing the work defined in the project management plan
C. Reviewing change requests, approving change requests, and managing changes to the project
D. Monitoring the status of the project and product scope, as well as changes to the scope baseline
4. Which of the following is NOT a valid output of the validate scope process?
A. Accepted deliverables
B. Project management plan updates
C. Change requests
D. Project document updates
Quiz 2
1. The activity that is most concerned with the current status of the project schedule is
A. Project time management
B. Project risk management
D. Control schedule
E. Both C and D
2. The Ishikawa diagram, control chart, Pareto chart, and statistical sampling are examples of tools used in
A. The assure quality process
B. The control quality process
C. Six Sigma
D. None of the above
3. The most commonly used performance measure for evaluating whether work is being completed as planned at any given point in a project is which of the following?
A. Cost variance (CV)
B. Schedule variance (SV)
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
4. You’re managing a project using the earned value technique (EVT) for cost management. The project planned value (PV) is $200,000. The project earned value (EV) is $100,000. The actual value (AV) is $150,000. What is the cost variance (CV) for the project?
A. 100,000
B. –100,000
C. 50,000
D. –50,000
Quiz 3
1. Before risk mitigation can occur, what two processes must be accomplished?
A. Acceptance and delivery requirements
B. Identification and trigger recognition
C. Phasing and interactions
D. Quantitative analysis and qualitative
E. None of the above
2. Which of the following is NOT an output of the control risks process?
A. Change requests
B. Work performance information
C. Risk-related contract decisions
D. Project document updates
3. Which of the following processes utilizes inspections as a tool or technique?
A. Perform integrated change control
B. Control schedule
C. Control risks
D. Control procurements
4. Which of the following is NOT a tool and technique of the manage communications process?
A. Variance analysis
B. Interpersonal skills
C. Forecasting methods
D. Communication methods
Chapter 8
Quiz 1
1. The primary output of the close project or phase process is
A. Formalize and distribute all information pertaining to the project closing
B. Lessons learned
C. Release all personnel assigned to the project
D. Get customer and sponsor approval
E. Both B and D
2. Which one of these is NOT an output of the close procurements process?
A. Closed procurements
B. Contract file
C. Lessons learned documentation
D. Organizational process assets updates
E. Both B and C
3. Lessons learned are
A. Best collected at the end of a project
B. Collected for the historical knowledge base
C. Necessary only at the end of a project
D. A store of historical information
E. Used to collect information about good and bad outcomes throughout a project
Cram Quiz Answers
Chapter 1
Quiz 1
1. Answer C is the best answer. As explained in this question, recurring security vulnerability assessments with no ending date cannot be considered a project. Projects must have time boundaries. Answer A is incorrect because the project product does not have to be directly related to an organization’s main product(s). Answer B is incorrect because the lack of a specific start date in the question description would not automatically disqualify the assessment as a project. Answer D is incorrect because a security vulnerability assessment does create at least one product—the vulnerability assessment report.
2. Answer A is the best answer. Project scope management is mainly concerned with defining the work a project needs to accomplish. This definition is used to ensure all the necessary work is done and no unnecessary work is done. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because these knowledge areas focus on areas of a project other than scope.
Quiz 2
1. Answer B is correct. In a strong matrix, the project manager has the preeminent position of authority. Because the functional manager does still have authority, a good project manager will keep the functional manager in the loop as much as possible. Answer A is incorrect because projectized organizations do not have functional managers. Answers C and D are incorrect because in a weak matrix in a functional organization, the project manager does not have greater authority than the functional manager. The project manager would have to defer to the functional manager, not just keep her in the loop.
2. Answer C is correct. In a balanced matrix, the project manager and functional manager work together to meet the needs of the department and the project. Answers A and B are incorrect because the functional manager has greater authority and would likely handle problems directly in a functional or weak matrix structure. Answer D is incorrect because the project manager would handle such issues directly in a projectized organization.
Quiz 3
1. Answer C is the best answer. Stakeholder influence is greatest at the beginning of a project. When the initial objectives are being developed, the stakeholders have a lot of input. After the main project parameters are agreed upon, the project manager and project team start working on those objectives, and the stakeholder involvement decreases. Answer A is incorrect because the project manager, not the stakeholders, directs project activities. Answers B and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the stakeholder involvement.
2. Answer B is correct. The question states that training is not meeting the schedule, and the result is that the training is not getting people properly trained. This means both schedule and quality are suffering. Of all the solutions, Answer B provides the best description of the effects on your project. Answer A is incorrect because it does not mention the impact on project quality. Answer C is incorrect for several reasons. The problem might be the responsibility of the organization that supplied the trainers, but the responsibility for the impact on the project is the project manager’s. Answer C also ignores the quality issue. Answer D is incorrect because it implies that the project manager padded the schedule. This is not an ethical practice. Your estimates should be realistic. If you expect such problems to occur, you should address them in the beginning of the project, along with appropriate recovery methods. By padding the schedule, you hide a real risk to the project.
3. Answer A is correct. The PMBOK places sequencing activities between defining activities and estimating activity resources. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the PMBOK flow. You will see questions similar to this one on the PMP exam. Know your process flows.
Chapter 2
Quiz 1
1. Answer C is the best answer. The PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct applies to all PMI members, all persons who are not PMI members but hold a PMI certification, and anyone who serves in a volunteer capacity for PMI.
2. Answer A is correct. The main goal of the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct is to advance the profession as a whole. While the other goals are part of the Code, they are only parts of the overall goal of advancing the profession.
Quiz 2
1. Answer C is the best response. You have a responsibility to maintain and respect the confidentiality of sensitive information obtained in the course of professional activities. This responsibility makes Answers A and B incorrect. You have a responsibility to recognize and respect intellectual property developed and owned by others, which makes Answer D an incorrect choice.
2. Answer A is the best response. You have a responsibility to maintain and satisfy the scope and objectives of professional services, unless otherwise directed by your customer. Answers B, C, and D require manipulation of your customer and/or falsification of information, which is not in compliance with professional conduct.
Quiz 3
1. Answer C is the best choice. One aspect of respect is listening to others and trying to understand them. Your best option is to start with the team member who is agitated and try to understand the cause of the agitation. You might find that the objection is valid after you have heard the other person’s point of view. Answers A and B do not show respect to your team member, and Answer D just attempts to pass the responsibility to someone else.
2. Answer C is the correct answer. The PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct requires that you act in a professional manner even when others do not. Answer A is incorrect because doing nothing solves nothing. Going to the manager’s boss is likely to make the situation worse, not better. Answer B is incorrect because it is an emotional response, not a professional one. Answer D is incorrect because you should always first attempt to solve differences one-on-one.
Quiz 4
1. Answer C is the best response. You have a responsibility to disclose to both the vendor and your company significant circumstances that could be construed as a conflict of interest or an appearance of impropriety. Answers A and B are both correct but are not the best responses. Answer D is not correct. You have an obligation to disclose the information. Your company and the vendor can decide the best course of action, given the information.
2. Answer B is the best response. Answer A is not correct because you have a responsibility to refrain from offering inappropriate gifts for personal gain. The exemption regarding conformity with applicable laws or customs of the country where project management services are being performed does not apply because you are working for a U.S.-based company and are subject to U.S. law. Answers C and D are incorrect because you have a responsibility to comply with laws and regulations in the country where providing project management services requires project approvals.
Quiz 5
1. Answer D is the best response. Falsification of any information directly or indirectly related to all aspects of the PMI certification program can result in both revocation of your PMI membership and your PMP certification. Although Answers A and B are both correct, they are not the best responses. Answer C is not correct. PMI will not notify your employer if you falsify information at any point during the PMI certification program.
2. Answer C is the best response. You have a responsibility to provide accurate and truthful representations in the preparation of estimates concerning costs, services, and expected results. This responsibility makes Answers A and D inappropriate. You have accountability to your management, and Answer B is not appropriate because you are usurping your manager’s authority and undermining your own professional conduct by doing so.
Chapter 3
Quiz 1
1. Answer D is correct. Answers A and B ignore the PMBOK requirement that a project manager insist on proper project management techniques. It is crucial that a PMP candidate understand the need for properly obtaining authorization for a project (initiating) and then planning a project before starting actual work. Answer C is too extreme for the initial response. The sponsor might have made the request to immediately begin work out of a lack of understanding of project management. Always start by getting as much information as you can and educating others on the benefits of good project management.
2. Answer C is correct. Answer A mentions one of the outputs of a process in initiating, but the project charter is not the main purpose of project initiation. Answer B is incorrect as well because describing the project is not the primary purpose of initiating. Answer D is incorrect because assigning a project manager is a task carried out during initiating but is not the primary purpose.
Quiz 2
1. Answer D is the correct response. A work breakdown structure (WBS) is not a component of the project charter. Answers A, B, and C are all components of the project charter.
2. Answer B is correct. The project sponsor creates the project charter. Answers A, C, and D list groups that can assist in creating the project charter but do not have the responsibility for creating the project charter.
Quiz 3
1. Answer C is correct. Since stakeholders all have an interest in the outcome of the project, they generally use their influence to ensure that the project proceeds in a manner with which they are comfortable. The project manager must ensure that stakeholders do not interfere with the overall goal of the project by protecting their own interests.
2. Answer A is correct. Although a vendor might be a stakeholder in some cases, vendors generally do not appear on the common stakeholders list. All other entities listed are generally considered stakeholders.
Quiz 4
1. Answer A is the best response. A project manager should be assigned prior to the start of project planning. Answer B is incorrect because the project manager should be assigned prior to the creation of a project charter. Answer C is incorrect because a project manager should be assigned prior to, not during, project planning. Similarly, Answer D is incorrect because a project manager should be in place before project execution.
2. Answer A is correct. Answers B, C, and D refer to other accounting concepts. Refer to Table 3.3 for more information.
Chapter 4
Quiz 1
1. Answer D is correct. Poor project planning almost always results in wasted effort, lost time, and increased cost.
2. Answer B is correct. There are six time-related planning processes. Time management processes provide the mechanism to decompose work into small, manageable chunks.
Quiz 2
1. Answer C is correct. The first process in the planning group is develop project management plan. Answers A, B, and D skip the first process and start subsequent processes prematurely.
2. Answer B is correct. Holding planning meetings to develop the risk management plan is a tool and technique for the plan risk management process. Answers A, B, and D all refer to valid components of the expert judgment tool and technique for the develop project management plan process.
Quiz 3
1. Answer B is correct. The requirements documentation is an input you need before starting the define scope process. Answer A is incorrect because product analysis is a tool and technique of define scope, not an input. Answer C is incorrect because project document updates are an output, not an input. Answer D is incorrect because the WBS is created in a subsequent process and is not available at this point. Know your inputs, tools and techniques, and outputs of all processes.
2. Answer C is the best response. A project scope statement documents what work is to be accomplished and which deliverables need to be produced. Answers A and B are both individually correct, but Answer C is the better response. Answer D is incorrect.
3. Answer C is the correct response. The WBS provides a detailed definition of work specified in the current, approved project scope statement. Both Answers A and B describe the WBS and are therefore incorrect responses to the question.
4. Answer D is the correct response. Answers A and B are incorrect because these are outputs of the plan scope management process. Answer C is incorrect because there is no such defined output as a requirements risk breakdown.
Quiz 4
1. Answer B is correct. The path A–C–E–G is the longest direct path from start to finish. All other answers are incorrect because they state either the incorrect path or project duration.
2. Answer A is correct. Because Task D is not on the critical path and has a slack of one day, it can start one day late (at most) without affecting the project end date.
3. Answer C is correct. Because Task C is on the critical path, any delay of the task delays the project.
4. Answer B is correct. Bottom-up estimating is the process of calculating estimates by aggregating the individual estimates of activities that make up the desired activity group. Answer A is incorrect because parametric estimating uses a process of multiplying quantity of work by the productivity rate. Answer C is incorrect because top-down estimating starts with an estimate and decomposes the estimate into smaller units to apply to the individual work packages. Answer D is incorrect because analogous estimating uses similar work packages, not estimate aggregation.
5. Answer A is correct. The stated answer is the main purpose of the define activities process. Answer B is incorrect because it states the purpose of the sequence activities process. Answer C is incorrect because it states the purpose of the develop schedule process. Answer D is incorrect because it states the purpose of the control schedule process.
6. Answer A is correct. Analogous estimating uses parameters from other similar activities to estimate durations. Answers B and C are incorrect because they refer to estimating techniques that do not consider similar activities. Answer D is incorrect because it refers to an estimating technique that doesn’t exist.
7. Answer D is correct. The resource breakdown structure is an output of the estimate activity resources process. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they are all valid outputs of the develop schedule process.
Quiz 5
1. Answer D is the correct response. The project cost and project schedule for work can be reliably estimated at the work package, or lowest, level of the WBS using bottom-up estimating, or at the highest level using top-down estimating.
2. Answer A is the correct response. Bottom-up estimating is a technique for estimating cost through decomposition. A bottom-up estimate is based on the cost requirements for each lower work package and then is combined to estimate cost of the entire component of work. Answer B is incorrect because there is no technique called decomposed estimating. Answer C is incorrect because should-cost estimating is an activity duration estimating technique. Answer D is incorrect because three-point estimating does not incorporate decomposition.
3. Answer D is the correct response. The determine budget process produces the project funding requirements as one of its outputs, along with the cost performance baseline and project document updates. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because these processes do not produce the project funding requirements document as an output. Make sure you know the inputs, tools and techniques, and outputs of all the project processes.
Chapter 5
Quiz 1
1. Answer B is correct. Senior management is responsible for quality in the organization. The project manager is responsible for product quality on the project.
2. Answer A is correct. The quality management plan lists which quality policies apply to the project and documents how the quality objectives will be met. The quality baseline documents the quality objectives for the project. The process improvement plan documents how processes will be analyzed for improvement. A quality control checklist is used to ensure that steps of a process are completed.
3. Answer C is correct. Total quality management (TQM) uses 14 points and calls for quality awareness from everyone involved. CMM outlines five levels of process maturity. Kaizen, or continuous improvement, calls for a cycle of improvements to processes. Malcolm Baldrige is an award for quality awareness.
Quiz 2
1. Answer D is correct. The RACI (responsible, accountable, consult, inform) matrix provides information both on resource responsibility and accountability. The RAM only provides responsibility information. Neither the OBS nor RBS provides responsibility information.
2. Answer A is correct. Answers B, C, and D describe other processes in the executing process group.
Quiz 3
1. Answer C is correct. Email provides a good medium for exchanging messages among team members who are in different time zones. Telephone conversations and conference calls require much more scheduling effort, and exchanging shared memos requires additional effort.
2. Answer A is correct. In this case, a conference call provides the ability for the project manager to inform the team simultaneously and also take feedback from team members. The other options are more time-consuming and make feedback more difficult.
Quiz 4
1. Answer A is correct. The project charter is not used. The scope baseline and cost management plan are used. Academic studies are part of enterprise environmental factors that also include commercial databases, benchmarking, or other industry studies.
2. Answer A is the correct response. A decision tree diagram can be used to consider potential risks and all the implications associated with the risk. You can include every conceivable choice and outcome. Every option is considered. Answer B is incorrect because choice and outcome are limited to the most probable scenario. Answer C is incorrect because choice and outcome are limited to the least probable scenario. Answer D is incorrect.
3. Answer D is the best response. Risk analysis is not limited to the beginning of a project’s life cycle, when the risk management plan is developed. The risk management plan should include a tool for risk assessment as a continuous process throughout the project. Risk reassessment should be a scheduled component of the project but should also have the flexibility to occur as needed at greater or lesser intervals, based on the level of risk.
4. Answer B is correct. Planning meetings and analysis is the only tool and technique defined for the plan risk management process. All the other answers refer to tools and techniques from other processes.
5. Answer A is correct. The cost management plan is an input for the perform quantitative risk analysis process. All the other answers are valid inputs for the perform qualitative risk analysis process.
6. Answer C is correct. Risk audits are a tool and technique for the monitor and control risks process. All other answers are valid tools and techniques for the plan risk response process.
Quiz 5
1. Answer B is the best response. The responsibility for tailoring a contract for goods and services to the needs of the project lies with the project management team. The project management team can include the project manager, attorneys, and/or contract manager, but the responsibility does not rest solely with one individual.
2. Answer C is the best response. The decision about whether a product or service can be produced by the project management team or can be purchased is called make-or-buy analysis.
Quiz 6
1. Answer C is the best response. Stakeholders with high interest in the project and who possess high power to impact the project must be managed most closely to ensure that they are engaged and satisfied. All other combinations of interest and power have less impact and do not need to be managed as closely.
2. Answer B is the best response. As project work progresses, different stake-holders may become more or less interested in the project due to awareness or changing operational focus. Many factors may change how interested any stakeholder may be at any point in the project life cycle. Answer A is incorrect because the identify stakeholders process should produce a complete list of stakeholders. Answer C can be true in some cases but generally happens less frequently than Answer B and therefore is not the best answer. Answer D is incorrect because work beyond the project scope is not allowed.
Chapter 6
Quiz 1
1. Answer D is correct. During the direct and manage project work process, approved changes are implemented, but monitoring of those changes is part of the monitor and control project work process. All other activities are performed as part of direct and manage project work process.
2. Answer D is the correct response. Progressive elaboration is a technique for continuous improvement in your planning efforts. More details are added to your planning documents as the information becomes available, and each successive iteration of your planning process results in a better plan.
3. Answer A is the correct response. Crashing is a schedule compression technique whereby the project cost and project schedule are optimized to obtain the highest degree of schedule compression for the least cost to the project. Crashing does not always result in a viable project solution and can increase the overall cost of a project. Answer B is incorrect because crashing is not a term used for a project that is over time and over budget. Answer C is incorrect because crashing does not necessarily allow you to meet the planned project end date. Answer D is incorrect because fast tracking is another schedule compression tool used to perform multiple phases of project development in parallel.
Quiz 2
1. Answer A is the best response. Benchmarking is the practice of comparing your project to other planned project practices or actual project best practices in an effort to improve your project and establish performance measurement benchmarks. Answer B is incorrect because continuous improvement is a Plan–Do– Check–Act cycle for improving quality in the product developed by a project. Answer C is incorrect because metrics are specific defined tools for describing and measuring key values for quality control. Answer D is incorrect because quality assurance (QA) is the application of planned, systematic activities to achieve specific quality objectives. QA is the overarching process in which continuous process improvement is practiced. Benchmarking is one task within the process, and using metrics is a way to assess quality initiatives.
2. Answer D is the correct response. A quality audit is a structured, independent review that provides an assessment of whether a project’s activities meet organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures.
3. Answer B is the correct response. Statistical sampling is a quality control technique, but it is not one of the seven basic quality tools. The seven basic quality tools are cause-and-effect diagrams, control charts, flowcharts, histograms, Pareto diagrams, checksheets, and scatter diagrams. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because these items are part of the seven basic quality tools.
Quiz 3
1. Answer D is correct. The person is working hard because he expects to be rewarded. The other theories do not talk about rewards as motivators.
2. Answer C is correct. The formation of cliques occurs during the storming stage of team development. During this stage, the correct situational leadership style is coaching.
3. Answer D is correct. An electronic document repository allows all team members, regardless of location, access to the documents. Manual filing and war rooms are optimal for a project team in one location. A project scheduling tool might allow team members on a shared network to share data but would not be helpful for a third-party team.
4. Answer C is correct. Team performance assessments is an output of the develop project team process. All other answers are valid outputs of the acquire project team process.
Quiz 4
1. Answer C is correct. Using the formula (n) * (n – 1) / 2, the calculation is 20 * (20 – 1) / 2.
2. Answer D is the best response. Communications technology factors include the urgency of the need for information, the expected staffing for the project, the staff members’ individual skill sets, and the length of the project.
Quiz 5
1. Answer B is correct. The main goal of a bidder conference is to eliminate any preferential treatment for any prospective vendor. Answers A, C, and D are all features and benefits of bidder conferences.
2. Answer A is the best answer. While Answers B, C, and D could be viable choices, only a weighting system allows for easy comparison of sellers when multiple variables are involved.
Quiz 6
1. Answer C is correct. The manage stakeholder engagement process gives project managers the ability to engage stakeholders in more positive ways and reduce resistance to project activities.
2. Answer D is the correct answer. The only approved method of altering the project product is through the change management process. This process starts with submitted change requests.
Chapter 7
Quiz 1
1. Answer A is the correct response. The change control system is a subsystem of the configuration management system and, according to the PMBOK, is defined as “a collection of formal documented procedures that define how project deliverables and documentation will be controlled, changed, and approved.”
2. Answer D is the best response. Approved change requests can cause a change to project scope, project quality, and project schedule.
3. Answer A is the best response. The monitor and control project work process tracks, reviews, and regulates the progress made toward fulfilling the project objectives. Answer B is incorrect because it describes the direct and manage project work process. Answer C is incorrect because it describes the perform integrated change control process. Answer D is incorrect because it describes the control scope process.
4. Answer B is correct. Project management plan updates is an output of the control scope process. All other answers are valid outputs of the validate scope process.
Quiz 2
1. Answer D is correct. One of the control schedule deliverables is to determine the current status of the project schedule.
2. Answer B is correct. The Ishikawa diagram, control chart, Pareto chart, and statistical sampling are examples of basic tools of the control quality process.
3. Answer C is the best response. The most commonly used performance measures for evaluating whether work is being completed as planned at any given time in a project are cost variance (CV) and schedule variance (SV). Answers A and B are both individually correct, but Answer C is the best answer. Answer D is incorrect.
4. Answer D is the correct response. Cost variance (CV) is calculated by subtracting the actual cost (AC) from the earned value (EV): CV = EV – AV. In the example given, the AC is $150,000, and the EV is $100,000. Therefore, $100,000 – $150,000 = –$50,000. Answer A is incorrect. Answer B is the schedule variance (SV), not the CV, so it is incorrect. Answer C is incorrect.
Quiz 3
1. Answer B is correct. Before risks can be mitigated, you need to know how probable is it that they will occur and what their triggering events are.
2. Answer C is correct. Risk-related contract decisions is not an output of the control risks process. Change requests, work performance information, and project document updates are all outputs of the control risks process.
3. Answer D is correct. Of the processes listed, only control procurements utilizes inspections and audits as a tool or technique. None of the other processes utilize inspections. Of all the 47 processes, validate scope and control quality also utilize inspection.
4. Answer B is correct. Interpersonal skills is a tool and technique of the manage stakeholder engagement process. All the other answers are valid tools and techniques of the manage communications process.
Chapter 8
Quiz 1
1. Answer A is correct. The primary output of the project closing process is to formalize and distribute all the information pertaining to the closing of the project. This coordinated message is distributed by administrative closure, contract closure procedure, final product, service, or result, and organizational process assets (updates).
2. Answer E is correct. The only two outputs of the close procurements process are closed procurements and organizational process asset updates.
3. Answer E is correct. Lessons learned are used to collect information pertaining to good and bad outcomes throughout project execution. If you look at the output sections of the PMI methodology, lessons learned are part of virtually all the execution processes.