Answers to the PMP Practice Exam

2. C

3. C

4. B

5. C

6. A

7. C

8. B

9. B

10. A

11. C

12. C

13. A

14. C

15. B

16. D

17. D

18. D

19. D

20. B

21. C

22. C

23. C

24. C

25. C

26. C

27. D

28. C

29. B

30. C

31. D

32. D

33. C

34. D

35. B

36. C

37. D

38. C

39. B

40. C

41. C

42. B

43. C

44. A

45. B

46. C

47. B

48. C

49. D

50. D

51. D

52. B

53. D

54. C

55. C

56. A

57. D

58. C

59. A

60. D

61. D

62. B

63. C

64. A

65. A

66. A

67. A

68. C

69. C

70. D

71. A

72. C

73. C

74. A

75. D

76. C

77. C

78. D

79. C

80. A

81. A

82. C

83. B

84. D

85. B

86. A

87. A

88. A

89. C

90. C

91. A

92. D

93. C

94. D

95. D

96. D

97. B

98. C

99. C

100. D

101. A

102. C

103. A

104. D

105. B

106. C

107. D

108. D

109. C

110. D

111. C

112. D

113. C

114. D

115. C

116. B

117. D

118. A

119. D

120. D

121. B

122. B

123. C

124. C

125. A

126. A

127. C

128. B

129. C

130. C

131. D

132. B

133. D

134. D

135. C

136. C

137. B

138. C

139. D

140. C

141. C

142. D

143. D

144. C

145. C

146. B

147. B

148. B

149. D

150. D

151. D

152. C

153. A

154. B

155. A

156. A

157. C

158. C

159. D

160. C

161. B

162. C

163. D

164. C

165. C

166. C

167. C

168. C

169. D

170. B

171. D

172. C

173. A

174. C

175. C

176. C

177. D

178. A

179. B

180. A

181. B

182. C

183. B

184. D

185. C

186. C

187. C

188. C

189. D

190. A

191. B

192. C

193. D

194. C

195. B

196. C

197. A

198. C

199. B

200. A

Answer C is correct. For the PMP exam, the PMBOK is the final authority. You will be asked many questions that require you to apply the knowledge you’ve gained from the PMBOK. That is where your experience comes in. Answers A and B are incorrect because they do not place the PMBOK as the primary authority. Answer D is incorrect because it totally ignores the fact that your experience will allow you to apply the PMBOK content.

Question 2

Answer C is correct. You should not participate in the study group. Answer A is incorrect because it clearly violates the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. Answers B and D are not good choices because of a lack of clear evidence that the questions are live PMP exam questions.

Question 3

Answer C is correct. You decide to include the business analyst because he possesses superior knowledge of the application area. Answers A and B are incorrect because his application area specific knowledge is the focus, not general management or interpersonal skills. Answer D is incorrect because it is not a specified area of expertise in the PMBOK. This question is an example of too much information. You will find many questions on the PMP exam that contain more information than you need. Use only what is necessary to answer the question. Don’t get confused by extraneous information.

Question 4

Answer B is correct. A fishbone diagram, also called an Ishikawa diagram or a cause-and-effect diagram, is used to determine the cause or causes of a production problem. Answer A is incorrect because control charts are used to determine whether a process is stable. Answers C and D are incorrect because these tools depict the frequency of a variable or the relationship between two variables, not the cause of a production problem.

Question 5

Answer C is correct. The process of smoothing out resources over multiple periods is called resource leveling. The other answers refer to terms not associated with smoothing out resources.

Question 6

Answer A is correct. Risk and uncertainty are the highest at the beginning of a project. These two factors make the probability of failure the highest at the beginning. The more you know about a project, the better chance you will have of completing it successfully. Answer B is incorrect because a lot is known about a project by the time you publish any plan. Risk and uncertainty are lower than at the beginning. Answers C and D are incorrect for similar reasons. As you move closer to the end of a project, you gain a higher level of confidence in the project’s outcome. This is largely due to the fact that as more work is accomplished, you can view and evaluate more and more of the project’s output.

Question 7

Answer C is correct. The create WBS process is the process that follows collect requirements and define scope. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the PMBOK process flow.

Question 8

Answer B is correct. Before continuing with any activity, you must have the authority to do so. Have the stakeholders sign the project charter and authorize the project. Answers A, C, and D constitute working on a project before it is authorized.

Question 9

Answer B is correct. Perform integrated change control, control schedule, and control quality are all processes in the monitoring and controlling process group. One of the primary concerns for processes in this process group is to identify areas in which changes to the plan are required. Manage communications is a process in the executing process group, which does not primarily focus on identifying areas in which changes are required.

Question 10

Answer A is correct. A lump-sum contract is the same as a fixed-price contract. Answer B is incorrect because it refers to an invalid type of contract. Answer C is incorrect because a purchase order does not hold the same weight as a formal contract. Because Answer A is the only correct answer, Answer D is also incorrect.

Question 11

Answer C is correct. “Quality assurance is the process of auditing the quality requirements and results from quality control measurements to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used.” Answer A is incorrect because “quality control is the process of monitoring and recording results of executing quality activities.” Answer B is incorrect because quality planning is the process of planning for the activities that ensure the appropriate level of quality. Answer D is incorrect because quality improvement describes how to respond to the results of the quality assurance process.

Question 12

Answer C is correct. Any problem that is presented to management should be accompanied with a recommended solution. Answer A is incorrect because the project manager likely does not have hiring and firing authority. Answer B is incorrect because it does not address a solution for the problem. Answer D is incorrect because the demand to fire an employee transcends the scope of the project and is beyond the authority and boundary of the project manager.

Question 13

Answer A is correct. Communication between any people occurs based on the relationship between them. Formal and distant relationships yield formal and distant communications, and closer relationships tend to result in freer communication. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because the project manager’s standing or the size of the project do not have nearly as much impact on communication as the relationships in the project team.

Question 14

Answer C is correct. Calculate the expected value of an outcome by summing the result of the product of the value of each outcome and its probability. Answers A and B are incorrect because they define incorrect formulas. Answer D is incorrect because linear regression does not produce the expected value of an outcome.

Question 15

Answer B is correct. Expected monetary value is calculated as the sum of individual risk values (P * I). The weather risk (positive) impact is 0.25 * $80,000 = $20,000. The fuel price increase risk (negative) is 0.10 * –$45,000 = –$4,500. EMV = $20,000 + –$4,500 = $15,500. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because they incorrectly calculate EMV.

Question 16

Answer D is correct. Although a lessons learned session should be held at project conclusion, these sessions should also be held throughout the project, especially at key milestones and when something goes wrong.

Question 17

Answer D is correct. The project manager is assigned to achieve the project objectives and is ultimately responsible for controlling quality.

Question 18

Answer D is correct. A notice to proceed is not part of the acquisition process. All other listed activities are components of the acquisition process.

Question 19

Answer D is correct. Because a project manager has primary responsibility over his or her project, it is important to involve the project managers of all involved projects as well as inform the functional managers. All interested parties should be able to work out a solution. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they fail to involve the project managers from the competing projects.

Question 20

Answer B is correct. You should address the problem by talking with the vendor about the rumor. Answer A is incorrect and would delay the project and likely cause future problems. Answer C is incorrect because it would probably violate the contract between the buyer and seller. Answer D is also incorrect because your agreement is between the vendor and the performing organization, not the labor union.

Question 21

Answer C is correct. A project team meeting is likely to embarrass the team member and breed resentment. All other answers refer to methods that direct communication with only the team member and would not incur the same embarrassment as a team meeting.

Question 22

Answer C is correct. A successful enterprise program starts with the tone at the top and the enterprise governance of your organization.

Question 23

Answer C is correct. A post-implementation review is a product or service performance review after the implementation has taken place.

Question 24

Answer C is correct. Lag is the delay between the start/finish of one activity and the start/finish of another activity. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because slack and float refer to the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of the succeeding activity.

Question 25

Answer C is correct. Subordinate-centered leadership empowers the project team to make most decisions. Answer A is incorrect because the laissez-faire leadership style empowers no one. It is a “hands-off” approach. Answers B and D are incorrect because they do not empower the project team to make decisions.

Question 26

Answer C is correct. Marketing is not an activity of procurement management. All the other options refer to valid activities in procurement management.

Question 27

Answer D is correct. Find out why the third vendor delivered an estimate that was unusual. A clear statement of work is needed for the vendors to provide accurate estimates. Answers A, B, and C are all inappropriate actions because they discuss another vendor’s estimate. This information should be kept confidential between the buyer and seller.

Question 28

Answer C is correct. Requesting and obtaining feedback is the only way to really find out if a team member understands a message. All other answers refer to methods to increase the likelihood that a team member will receive a message but do not ensure that the message is understood.

Question 29

Answer B is correct. The critical path is the sequence of activities in which any delay will postpone the project completion date. All other answers are incorrect detractors.

Question 30

Answer C is correct. A project that ends in integration mode has had its resources assigned to other areas. A project that ends in extinction is a project that has ended before meeting its stated objectives, and a project that ends in inclusion mode is a project that has been accepted and has transitioned to be part of the organization.

Question 31

Answer D is correct. Among other components, the project charter includes measurable project objectives, a summary milestone schedule, and project approval requirements. Although each answer is individually correct, the best answer is “all of the above.”

Question 32

Answer D is correct. A project that ends in extinction mode is a project that has ended before meeting its stated objectives. The other project modes are integration and inclusion mode. A project that ends in integration mode is a project for which resources have been assigned to other areas, and a project that ends in inclusion mode is a project that has been accepted and has transitioned to be part of the organization.

Question 33

Answer C is correct. It is important that project documentation maintain the original documents and all changes that have occurred over time. Answer A is incorrect because it disregards the original baseline. Answer B is incorrect because the change is only an annotation. That answer might sound correct, but it is important that changes be integrated, not just annotated. Answer D is incorrect because it, too, disregards the original baseline.

Question 34

Answer D is correct. Increasing the cost by 25% would be inappropriate. A risk assessment describing how the project might fail if the budget is not accurate is most appropriate. Answers A, B, and C are all incorrect because these choices are unethical. Always provide honest estimates of the project work.

Question 35

Answer B is correct. EV is the value of work performed and, in the case of work performed at a periodic rate, is calculated by multiplying the periodic rate by the duration of work (hourly rate times number of hours). Answers A and C are incorrect because they refer to incorrect formulas. Answer D is incorrect because the information necessary to calculate EV is available for a properly planned activity that has been completed.

Question 36

Answer C is correct. A project that ends in inclusion mode is a project that has transitioned to be part of the organization and its support infrastructure. The other project modes are extinction and integration mode. A project that ends in integration mode has had its resources assigned to other areas, and a project that ends in extinction mode is a project that has ended before meeting its stated objectives.

Question 37

Answer D is correct. A project must have a specific time frame, objectives, and resources. Answers A and B are incorrect because they do not reference a specific time frame and are ambiguous with respect to goals. Answer C is incorrect because it does not specify which goals the project will fulfill.

Question 38

Answer C is correct. The schedule compression technique of crashing is used to decrease the overall project duration. If the activity that is crashed causes the overall project duration to be decreased to less than the critical path duration, a new critical path emerges. Answer A is incorrect because the crashed activity might not appear on the critical path and might therefore have no effect on the overall project duration. Answer B is incorrect because slack changes depend on how other activities are dependent on the crashed activity. Answer D is incorrect because in includes the incorrect Answers A and B.

Question 39

Answer B is correct. According to the PMBOK, “Quality assurance is the process of auditing the quality requirements and results from quality control measurements to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used.” Answer A is incorrect because it refers to quality management. Answer C is incorrect because quality control is the process in which control charts are used to monitor the results of quality activities. Answer D is incorrect because it includes the incorrect Answer A.

Question 40

Answer C is correct. Because the executing phase of the project is where the actual work is accomplished, this phase is expected to incur the most expense. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they each refer to phases that require less work and, in turn, fewer expenses.

Question 41

Answer C is correct. Administrative closure pertains to all the tasks involved in closing all the activities pertaining to a specific project. Other outputs of the close project process are contract closure procedure, final product, service, or result and organizational process assets (updates).

Question 42

Answer B is correct. Product validation pertains to all activities that ensure that the products and services delivered by the project meet the needs of the customer and stakeholders.

Question 43

Answer C is correct. Remember that for the PMP test, you must select the most appropriate answer. In this case, you can argue that all of the answers could be correct at one time or another; however, the intent of the lessons learned is to record all the course corrections that might have affected the project baseline and the reasoning behind the preventive or corrective actions.

Question 44

Answer A is correct. Schedule variance (SV) is defined as the difference between EV and PV. Answer B is incorrect because the cost variance (CV) is the difference between EV and actual cost (AC). Answer C is incorrect because the estimate at completion (EAC) is the expected total cost of a scheduled activity. Answer D is incorrect because the actual cost (AC) is the actual cost incurred to accomplish work.

Question 45

Answer B is correct. Confusion and perception of a lack of direction is a common source of frustration and conflict in any team environment. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent common causes of conflict in any environment.

Question 46

Answer C is correct. First, find out what the local practices and customs call for in regard to hiring family members before others. Answers A and D are incorrect because they do not consider the qualifications of the project team leader and the project team. In addition, they do not take into account local customs. Answer B is also incorrect. Although it does consider the qualifications of the project team, it does not consider the local customs.

Question 47

Answer B is correct. Conflict during early stages can help identify issues that truly need to be addressed to help the project proceed more smoothly. Notice that the question asks “When CAN conflict be beneficial?” That is not to say that all conflict is beneficial. Answer A is incorrect because conflict should never be injected as a simple diversion. Answers C and D are incorrect because conflict in these situations tends to decrease productivity.

Question 48

Answer C is correct. The close procurements process refers to all procurements initiated during the lifetime of the project. Due to their legal nature, contracts have to be evaluated and follow formal legal dissolution or fulfillment.

Question 49

Answer D is correct. Work performance data is one of the outputs described by PMI for the direct and manage project work process.

Question 50

Answer D is the best response. You have a responsibility to refrain from accepting inappropriate forms of compensation for personal gain. Answers A and C are incorrect for this reason. Answer B is a poor choice because the appearance of impropriety is present.

Question 51

Answer D is the best response. A statement of work (SOW) identifies the business need for the project, the project or product requirements, and the strategic plan for the organization. Answers A, B, and C are individually correct, but Answer D is the better response.

Question 52

Answer B is the best response. The project manager, along with the project management team, directs the performance of the planned project activities and manages the technical and organizational interfaces necessitated by the project and occurring continuously throughout the project life cycle.

Question 53

Answer D is the best response. Earned value technique (EVT) measures the performance of a project as it moves through the entire project life cycle, from initiating through closing.

Question 54

Answer C is correct. The work breakdown structure (WBS) is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed by a project team to accomplish project objectives and create the required deliverables.

Question 55

Answer C is correct. Receiving is the process of accepting, or assimilating, information. Answers A and D are incorrect because they each refer to processing received information. Answer B is incorrect because the term communication refers to the entire process of sending, receiving, and responding.

Question 56

Answer A is correct. Solving the problem reduces the likelihood that you will encounter the same issue on a recurring basis. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not actually solve the problem and likely result in having to revisit the problem in the future.

Question 57

Answer D is correct. Additional quality testing requires additional time and resources for the project. This is an example of integrated change control. Answer A is incorrect because scope creep is made up of small, undocumented changes to the project execution. Answer B is incorrect because change control falls within integrated change control. Answer C is incorrect because quality assurance is an organization-wide program.

Question 58

Answer C is correct. Decomposition is a planning technique that subdivides project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the project work and project deliverables are defined at the work package level.

Question 59

Answer A is correct. Creating a formal, documented change request is the best course of action for a change resulting from a law or regulation. Answer B is incorrect because the law or regulation likely overrides any existing project implementation. Answer C is incorrect because the project manager should first document the change through a change request. Answer D is incorrect because project work shouldn’t stop just because of a change request.

Question 60

Answer D is correct. Applying sound project management techniques increases the likelihood that the project will be a success and all goals will be met but does not guarantee any outcome.

Question 61

Answer D is correct. The approved project scope statement is one component of the project scope baseline. Other components are the associated work breakdown structure (WBS) and the WBS dictionary. Answer A is incorrect because it is an unapproved preliminary, not detailed, project scope. Answer B is incorrect because even though it purports to be “approved,” it is a preliminary, not detailed, project scope. Answer C is incorrect because it is not an “approved” detailed project scope statement.

Question 62

Answer B is correct. A project is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result. A project by definition cannot be permanent nor ongoing. A project has a specific timeline and duration.

Question 63

Answer C is correct. A PMIS can assist a project manager the most during project execution. Answer A is incorrect because stakeholder analysis should have been completed during planning. Answer B is incorrect because change control boards can assist the project manager but not as much as the control and assistance offered through a PMIS. Answer D is incorrect because scope verification is proof of the project work, not an assistance to the project manager.

Question 64

Answer A is correct. Integrated change control requires detail for implementing the change. Without evidence of the need for a change, there is no reason to implement it. Answer B is incorrect because the project team’s approval is not necessary for changes. Answer C is incorrect because a subject matter expert is not always needed to determine the need for change. Answer D is also incorrect because some changes might be discarded for reasons other than risk.

Question 65

Answer A is correct. Configuration management is documentation of the project product, including its attributes and changes to the product. Answer B is incorrect because integrated change control describes how to incorporate all of the project changes across the knowledge areas. Answer C is incorrect because scope control describes how to manage changes to the project scope. Answer D is also incorrect because the change management plan does not describe the project product, its features, or changes to the product.

Question 66

Answer A is correct. The risk of project failure is highest at the start of a project. The certainty of project completion increases as the project continues through its life cycle.

Question 67

Answer A is correct. Project changes from scope creep or error correction have a more significant impact on project cost as a project continues through its life cycle.

Question 68

Answer C is correct. Project cost and project staffing levels are low at the start of a project, peak during the middle phases of the project life cycle, and then drop rapidly toward the conclusion of the project.

Question 69

Answer C is the best response. A strong matrix structure within an organization supports a full-time project manager with considerable project authority, including budgetary and resource allocation ability, as well as a full-time project management administrative staff. Answer A is incorrect because a functional structure within an organization provides a part-time project manager with little to no authority and part-time administrative support. Answer B is incorrect because a weak matrix structure within an organization supports a part-time project manager with limited authority and only part-time administrative staffing. Answer D is incorrect because a projectized structure within an organization provides a full-time project manager with almost absolute authority and a full-time project management administrative staff.

Question 70

Answer D is correct. Rolling wave planning is a form of progressive elaboration in which the work to be performed in the near term is planned in detail while work scheduled for further out is defined at only a high level in the work breakdown structure (WBS). Rolling wave planning is a tool for activity definition. Answer A is incorrect because activity sequencing entails documentation of logical relationships among scheduled activities and is actually the task following activity definition. Answers B and C are incorrect because the precedence diagramming method (PDM), also called activity-on-node (AON), is a tool for activity sequencing.

Question 71

Answer A is correct. Finish-to-start is the most common type of precedence relationship used in the precedence diagramming method (PDM). The initiation of the successor activity is dependent on the completion of the predecessor activity in finish-to-start dependencies.

Question 72

Answer C is correct. The organizational process assets should guide the project manager and the decisions he or she makes when dealing with vendors operating in foreign countries. Answers A and B are incorrect because these documents are essential but usually do not reference allowed business practices. Answer D is incorrect. While the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct contains useful guidelines, organizational process assets are most specific to the project work and requirements.

Question 73

Answer C is correct. Chronological dependencies are not a type of dependency used in sequencing activities.

Question 74

Answer A is correct. Bottom-up estimating is a technique for estimating a component of work through the activity’s decomposition. A bottom-up estimate is based on the requirements for each lower work package and then combined to estimate the entire component of work. Answer B is incorrect because there is no technique called decomposed estimating. Answer C is incorrect because should-cost estimating is an activity duration estimating technique. Answer D is incorrect because three-point estimating uses most likely, best-case, and worst-case estimates to generate a weighted estimate.

Question 75

Answer D is correct. It is the sponsor’s call as to whether a potential conflict of interest will interfere with your ability to make fair decisions. If the sponsor is informed and has no issues with the assignments, you should not take any further action. Answer A is incorrect because hiding real or perceived conflicts of interest is unethical. Answers B and C are incorrect because the decision to take action belongs to the project sponsor.

Question 76

Answer C is the best response. Cost control involves determining and evaluating both the cause of a variance and the magnitude of the variance. Answers A and B are both individually correct, but Answer C is the best answer. Answer D is incorrect.

Question 77

Answer C is correct. No project should allow automatic change approvals. Also, Answer C is not a part of configuration management. Answers A, B, and D all describe the attributes of configuration management.

Question 78

Answer D is correct. The best choice is to appeal to the project sponsor to use his or her authority to address the conflicting opinions. Answer A is incorrect because it ignores the directive of an internal authority figure. Answers B and C are incorrect because they each allow the scope of the project to be changed without a change approval process.

Question 79

Answer C is correct. General management skills, status review meetings, and work authorization systems are the best tools described here that serve as part of the project plan execution. Answer A is incorrect because EVM and the WBS are not part of the tools used in the project plan execution. Answer B is incorrect because it includes EVM. Answer D is incorrect because it also includes EVM.

Question 80

Answer A is the correct response. Planned value (PV), in the earned value technique (EVT), is the budgeted cost for work scheduled to be completed on an activity up to a specific time. Answer B is incorrect because the budgeted cost for the work actually completed on the scheduled activity during a specific time period refers to earned value (EV). Answer C is incorrect because the total cost for work on the scheduled activity during a specific time period defines actual cost (AC). Answer D is incorrect.

Question 81

Answer A is correct. A cost performance index (CPI) value less than 1.0 indicates that a project has an overrun of the cost estimates. Answer B is incorrect because a cost underrun of the cost estimates is indicated by a CPI greater than 1.0. Answers C and D are incorrect.

Question 82

Answer C is correct. A statement of end users’ needs is a basis of a project’s functional requirements. The other answers are incorrect because they each reference documents that do not directly require definition of end users’ needs.

Question 83

Answer B is correct. Schedule variance (SV) is calculated by subtracting the planned value (PV) from the earned value (EV). SV = EV – PV. In the example given, the PV is $200,000 and the EV is $100,000. Therefore, $100,000 – $200,000 = –$100,000. Answer A is incorrect, as is Answer C. Answer D is the cost variance (CV), not the SV, so it is incorrect.

Question 84

Answer D is correct. EVM, earned value management, is used throughout the project processes. It is a planning and control tool used to measure performance. Answers A, B, and C are correct in that EVM is used during these processes, but it is not as good an answer as D.

Question 85

Answer B is correct. If enough team members voluntarily offer to work overtime, you will be able to meet the schedule, although paying a higher overtime rate can affect the project budget. Answer A is incorrect because your responsibility is to ensure that the project stays on schedule, on budget, and produces a quality result. Answers C and D are incorrect because both actions exceed the authority of the project manager.

Question 86

Answer A is correct. TQM, total quality management, is a business philosophy to find methods to continuously improve. Answer B, ASQ (American Society of Quality), is not a business philosophy. Answers C and D are attributes of TQM but are not correct answers for this question.

Question 87

Answer A is correct. The cost performance index (CPI) is calculated by dividing the actual cost (AC) into the earned value (EV). CPI = EV ÷ AC. In the example given, the AC is $150,000 and the EV is $100,000. $100,000 ÷ $150,000 = .06667. A CPI value less than 1.0 indicates a cost overrun of the project budget. Answer B is incorrect because, if the project were under budget, the CPI value would be greater than 1.0. Answer C is incorrect because the CPI would be 0. Answer D is incorrect.

Question 88

Answer A is correct. The schedule performance index (SPI) is calculated by dividing the planned cost (PC) into the earned value (EV): SPI = EV ÷ PC. In the example given, the PC is $200,000 and the EV is $100,000. Therefore, $100,000 ÷ $200,000 = 0.05. An SPI value in conjunction with the schedule status allows you to predict the completion date for a project. Given the math done to arrive at Answer A, Answers B, C, and D are incorrect.

Question 89

Answer C is the best response. Monitoring project activities and results to evaluate whether the findings comply with applicable quality standards as well as identifying mitigation strategies are quality control activities. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect.

Question 90

Answer C is correct. When project work results are faulty and must be done over, it is attributed to the cost of nonconformance to quality. Answers A, B, and D are all incorrect because these terms do not describe faulty work or the cost of nonconformance.

Question 91

Answer A is correct. Confronting is the best problem-solving technique because it meets a problem directly. Answer B is incorrect because compromising requires both sides on an argument to give up something. Answer C is incorrect because forcing requires the project manager to force a decision based on external inputs, such as seniority or experience. Answer D is also incorrect because avoidance ignores the problem and does not solve it.

Question 92

Answer D is the best response. Answer A is correct because Ishikawa diagrams are also known as cause-and-effect diagrams and Answer C is correct because Ishikawa diagrams are also known as fishbone diagrams. Because both A and C are correct answers, Answer D, which includes both A and C, is the best response. Answer B is incorrect. Scatter diagrams show the pattern of relationship between two variables, while Ishikawa diagrams show how various factors (causes) may link to potential problems (effects).

Question 93

Answer C is correct. A Pareto diagram is a specific type of histogram, ordered by frequency of occurrence and showing how many defects were generated to show nonconformity. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect.

Question 94

Answer D is the best response. Project communication planning includes all these tasks: determining and limiting who communicates with whom and who receives what information, combining the type and format of information needed with an analysis of the value of the information for communication, and understanding how communication affects a project as a whole.

Question 95

Answer D is correct. The components in the question describe a seller’s performance evaluation. Answers A, B, and C refer to analyses that do not specifically focus on a seller’s performance.

Question 96

Answer D is correct. Procurement closing ensures that all contracts are properly terminated. Answer A is incorrect because there might still be money in the budget that was not used. Answer B is incorrect because some budget categories might have exceeded their limits. Answer C is incorrect because a client might be associated with multiple projects.

Question 97

Answer B is correct. Coercive power is power a project manager wields over the project team. Coercive power is the formal authority a project manager has over the project team. Answer A is incorrect because only referent power may come through lunch meetings. Answer C is incorrect because experience is expert power. Answer D is incorrect because interpersonal relationships are examples of referent power.

Question 98

Answer C is correct. When both parties give up something, it is a compromise. A compromise is an example of a lose–lose solution. Answer A is incorrect because win–win is accomplished through confrontation. Answer B is incorrect because win–lose allows only one party to get what they want from the scenario. Answer D is incorrect because a leave–lose solution is when one party walks away from the problem.

Question 99

Answer C is correct. Forcing happens when a project manager makes a decision based on factors not relevant to the problem. Just because a team member has more seniority does not mean this individual is correct. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect choices. Problem solving is not described in the scenario. Answer B, compromising, happens when both parties agree to give up something. Answer D, withdrawal, happens when a party leaves the argument.

Question 100

Answer D is correct. While Answers A, B, and C are all important decisions, it is crucial to know when a project should be cancelled to avoid further losses.

Question 101

Answer A is correct. Historical records give future project managers information to assess trends of past successes and difficulties. While Answers B, C, and D are each partially correct, the value in having access to historical records from multiple projects lies in the ability to generate trending reports.

Question 102

Answer C is correct. Small organizations have smaller staffs, and the project manager is sometimes the same person as the functional manager. Because all organizations are different, it is not accurate to say that project managers are “never” or “generally” the same person. Likewise, it is not a requirement that the project initiator be superior to the project and functional managers.

Question 103

Answer A is correct. Qualitative risk analysis occurs prior to quantitative risk analysis and is a method for prioritizing identified risks for quantitative risk analysis. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect.

Question 104

Answer D is correct. The project charter formally authorizes the project, assigns the project manager, and gives a high-level definition of the project and its deliverables; none of the other answers apply to the project charter definition.

Question 105

Answer B is correct as projects are seeded from the recognition of a regulatory or business needs. However, when it comes to measuring the actual organizational benefit, your client or company needs to make arrangements to secure the capital and reserve assignments. For this type of allocation, the aforementioned models are just a few of the tools at your disposal to find a measure of the enterprise benefit and the cost justification. Answer A is partially correct, but it does not express complete reasoning and consideration when selecting, justifying, and launching a project.

Question 106

Answer C is correct. Project control ensures that a project is executing according to the plan. Answers A and D are incorrect because planning of any type occurs in the planning process group. Answer B is incorrect because status reports are only one part of monitoring and controlling, not the primary purpose.

Question 107

Answer D is correct. With the information provided, it is not possible to determine the cause of the increased cost. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because the question does not provide enough information to determine the specific cause of the increased cost.

Question 108

Answer D is correct. The project scope is a live document. Why? A project is a temporary endeavor, with a specific product, but external factors such as your business strategy can have a material impact on determining where the project might or might not go in the future. You might have thought of selecting Answer C, but the project charter is the document that formally launches the project and defines at a high level what are the project deliverables, who is the project sponsor, and who is the project manager.

Question 109

Answer C is correct. Collaborating is the ideal method when negotiating. The goal of negotiations is to work together for the good of the project. Answer A is incorrect because yielding is not working for the good of the project. Answer B, forcing, exerts power over one party without properly negotiating. Answer D, compromising, calls for both parties to give up something without necessarily working together for the good of the project.

Question 110

Answer D is correct. In the answers list, change requests is the only output for the control communications process. Answer A is incorrect because trend analysis is the study of project performance results to determine whether a project is improving or failing. It is a tool used as part of the control risks process, but it is not an output of the control communications process. Answers B and C are also tools used in processes, but they are not outputs of the control communications process.

Question 111

Answer C is correct. Rarely do you get to have a project for the sake of spending money. And, because a project is a temporary endeavor, the authority of the project manager is highly dependent on the support of senior management. Answer D is not correct because the job of the project sponsor is to represent management interest in the project and not to lead the execution of the project.

Question 112

Answer D is correct. Concessions are always determined during closure.

Question 113

Answer C is correct. Validate scope and control communications both occur in the monitoring and controlling process group, so Answers A, B, and D are incorrect.

Question 114

Answer D is correct. The project management plan is the entire framework and processes that are used to control the entire project effort. Answer A refers more to the mistaken interpretation that the project plan is the Gantt chart that people might prepare using products such Visio, Excel, or Project.

Question 115

Answer C is correct. Source selection happens during the executing process group. Answers A, B, and D are all incorrect because these process groups do not include source selection.

Question 116

Answer B is correct. Source selection criteria is an output to plan procurement management and an input to conduct procurements. Answers A, C, and D are inputs to control procurements.

Question 117

Answer D is correct. The primary function of the project manager is to integrate the project team and all activities that pertain to the project throughout the project life cycle. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they reference only part of the project manager’s function, not the overall focus of the job.

Question 118

Answer A is correct. Fast tracking is attempting to shorten the schedule by performing activities in parallel, when appropriate. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not provide valid definitions for fast tracking.

Question 119

Answer D is correct. To have an effective work breakdown structure, you must take time to understand the project objectives and the risk involved. When this is accomplished, the next task is to compartmentalize the project into manageable pieces—but not to the extreme. Good examples are to stop at a point where a task is down to five days in duration or resource utilization can be measured. If you chose Answer A, you might have been thinking of a meeting agenda instead of the WBS. If you opted for Answer B, keep in mind that the project charter does not include or make reference to the WBS; remember that the intent of the project charter is to launch the project, announce the project manager, and present a general overview of the project deliverables.

Question 120

Answer D is correct. The closing project or phase is in the project integration management knowledge area, and closing procurements is in the project procurement management knowledge area.

Question 121

Answer B is correct. The PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct disallows any use of confidential information other than its intended use in the context of the project. All other answers are allowable actions within the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct.

Question 122

Answer B is correct. Administrative closure should take place at the completion of each phase. Answer A is incorrect because administrative closure occurs more than just when a project is cancelled. Answer C is also incorrect because administrative closure does not take place only at project completion and cancellation; it can happen at the end of each project phase. Answer D is not a valid choice.

Question 123

Answer C is correct. The harsh reality of project management is that no matter how much time you invest in analysis during the execution of the project, critical elements may be missing, external forces can influence your project, and organizational changes can force a course correction. A project baseline helps you to account for all the course corrections you implement during the execution of a project. You might have been tempted to select Answer A, but the project baseline does not stay fixed; it changes as changes are implemented.

Question 124

Answer C is correct. Activity H should start in the first day of week 4 because it can’t start executing until C (2) and E (1) are complete.

Question 125

Answer A is correct. In general, the critical path is composed of the activities that form the longest-duration path on a project. Answer A = 17-week duration, Answer B = 13-week duration, and Answer C = 4-week duration. Therefore, Answer A represents the longest-duration path on the project.

Question 126

Answer A is correct. The network diagram gives only three paths of execution: Start–A–D–G–Finish; Start–B–F–Finish; and Start–C–E–H–Finish. Answer A is the only one that shows the predecessors in the correct order.

Question 127

Answer C is correct. Earned value analysis is used during the execution of a project to determine resource consumption versus planned. On the other hand, the WBS, time estimates, and schedules are excellent sources for estimating the rate of consumption, timelines, and overall project resource needs.

Question 128

Answer B is correct. The project manager can request staff for a project but generally does not have direct authority to assign staff to the project. All the other answers list actions within the project manager’s authority.

Question 129

Answer C is correct. Cost aggregation builds cost estimates by adding the tasks outlined in the work breakdown structures, and parametric estimates use historical data and project-specific characteristics. Cost cancellation techniques, reserve analysis, and funding limit reconciliation are not considered budgeting tools.

Question 130

Answer C is correct. Estimating is not an element of procurement management. All the other answers are part of procurement management.

Question 131

Answer D is correct. A Pareto diagram helps identify the cause of quality problems in a particular process. Answer A is incorrect because a cause-and-effect, or fishbone, diagram relates causes to effects of problems. Answers B and C are other graphic depictions of process flow and results.

Question 132

Answer B is correct. In the realm of project management, the project manager has the ultimate responsibility. You might have thought of the quality assurance manager, but quality goes beyond the project and is housed in the organization. The project team and the validation engineer are elements that support both the company quality policies and the processes required during the execution of the project.

Question 133

Answer D is correct. The plan human resource management process is where the core project team and the project manager plan for the request of resources from the functional manager and coordinate how to best approach the project demands versus the normal work duties of the resource.

Question 134

Answer D is correct. The number of communication channels can be determined using the formula n (n – 1) / 2, where n is the number of people participating in a project. The formula in this case will be 30 * (30 – 1) / 2; that is, 30 * (29) / 2 = 870 / 2 = 435, which is Answer D.

Question 135

Answer C is correct. Administrative closure is the process of generating, gathering, and disseminating project information. Answers A and B are incorrect because close project or phase involves more than just generating, gathering, and disseminating project information. Answer D, operational transfer, is the process of moving project deliverables into operations.

Question 136

Answer C is correct. The total contract cost is $442,000. Here’s how the answer is calculated: Target cost is $400,000. The 8% profit is $32,000. The finished cost is $360,000, a difference of $40,000 between the target and the actual. The contract calls for a 75/25 split if the contract comes in under budget. The formula reads finished costs ($400,000) + profit margin ($32,000) + (.25 * under budget amount) ($10,000). Answers A, B, and D are all incorrect because these choices do not reflect the amount of the contract.

Question 137

Answer B is correct. For a message to be clearly understood, two things need to happen: The sender has to make sure that the receiver acknowledges the receipt and reading of the message, and the receiver needs to ensure that the sender has received the acknowledgement. None of the other options pertains to the message communication process.

Question 138

Answer C is correct. Sound project objectives should be realistic and attainable. Answer A is incorrect because sound project objectives cannot be general. Answer B is incorrect because resource bounds must be considered when stating project objectives. Answer D is incorrect because project objectives must be tangible.

Question 139

Answer D is correct. Risk can be catalogued in qualitative and quantitative terms. The project risk management knowledge area serves as a roadmap to reduce the effect of risk on the project. None of the other answers clearly articulate the scope and importance of the PMI risk management processes.

Question 140

Answer C is correct. Quality control is the process of monitoring and recording results of executing the quality activities and is normally performed by operations personnel. Answer A is incorrect because QA personnel normally carry out quality assurance activities (auditing quality control results), not quality control. Answers B and D are incorrect because they fail to specify quality personnel at all.

Question 141

Answer C is correct. The schedule variance (SV) is calculated using the following formula: SV = EV – PV. In the question, EV is 850, and PV is 1000, so SV = 850 – 1000, or –150. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not correspond to the correct formula.

Question 142

Answer D is correct. Share is a typical way to deal with positive risk. The other answers are examples of how a project manager might deal with a risk that might have a negative impact on the outcome of the project.

Question 143

Answer D is correct. All of these are examples of contract types that vary depending on the risk that the buyer and the seller are willing to assume.

Question 144

Answer C is correct. The risk management plan identifies how risk is managed throughout a project. Answers A, B, and D are examples of project plan elements that are used to define the work to be done and the deliverables expected out of the project.

Question 145

Answer C is correct. The project manager is ultimately responsible for the success of the project. Therefore, she should execute due diligence with regard to analyzing a change request before taking any action. Answers A and B might be actions you will take in the process; however, the number-one priority is to evaluate what impact a change will have on the outcome of the project.

Question 146

Answer B is correct. Fitness for use is not part of the definition of quality. Answers A, C, and D are all part of the definition of quality.

Question 147

Answer B is correct. Resource leveling often impacts the schedule by increasing the duration of one or more activities. This causes the schedule to be longer after leveling. Answer A is incorrect because resource leveling does not shorten the schedule. Answer C is incorrect because resource leveling either has no effect on responsiveness or reduces responsiveness to customer needs. Answer D is incorrect because Answers A and C are both incorrect.

Question 148

Answer B is correct. S curves are graphical displays of accumulated cost and labor hours, plotted as a function of time. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because they each refer to a report that does not present a graphical display, as stated in the question.

Question 149

Answer D is correct. Scope planning is the process of deciding on the best approach to meeting project objectives. Answers A and C are incorrect because the scope baseline and the WBS are outputs of the create WBS process, not a process itself. Answer B is incorrect because the scope authorization is an approval of the scope baseline, not a process.

Question 150

Answer D is correct. The cost performance index (CPI) is the most encompassing answer as it divides the earned value by the actual cost of the project. A CPI value greater than 1 signifies that a project is running under budget.

Question 151

Answer D is correct. Quality assurance refers to the process of applying and measuring performance against enterprise quality policies. Six Sigma and Pareto diagrams are used to represent the execution trending of a process, and organizational quality practices refers to how quality is managed and considered in the enterprise.

Question 152

Answer C is correct. It is the responsibility of management to ensure quality. Answer D is incorrect because the responsibility for quality does not belong to the workers. Answers A and B are incorrect detractors.

Question 153

Answer A is correct. Cost of quality is the total cost of efforts related to quality. In other words, it is the cost of avoiding nonconformance to specifications. Answers B, C, and D are all incorrect statements with respect to the cost of quality.

Question 154

Answer B is correct. Configuration management provides the structure to control all changes throughout a project. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because configuration management addresses many more areas than just the specific areas or phases mentioned in the answer.

Question 155

Answer A is correct. Quality is directly related to productivity. An increase in one results in an increase in the other. Answers B, C, and D present incorrect aspects of projects that are not directly related to quality.

Question 156

Answer A is correct. In the PMI realm, acquisition refers to the action of securing external resources. Pre-assignment, negotiation, and contract management are activities that a project manager might engage in during the process of securing the resources, but they are subprocesses when securing external resources.

Question 157

Answer C is correct. Answers A, B, and D are known ways to resolve conflict. From most long-lasting effects to least, they can be ranked problem solving, compromising, and forcing. Withdrawal and smoothing are part of this group, but they do not address the problem.

Question 158

Answer C is correct. A quality conformance inspection ensures that an inspected product meets or exceeds defined quality requirements. Answers A, B, and D are inspection terms that do not directly relate to quality.

Question 159

Answer D is correct. The project manager is the focal point for information for senior management, stakeholders, and the project team. As such, the project manager spends much of her or his time making sure that communication occurs and is effective at all levels affected by the product of the project.

Question 160

Answer C is correct. If you stand back and think of what it takes for successful communication, you think of an idea or a concept that needs to be communicated. You must build the entire message (words, syntax, and morphology); then talk to, write, or call the recipient to deliver the message; and wait for confirmation that your message was understood. On the other hand, the individual being communicated with has to do the same process but in reverse. He needs to receive the message, check if it is in a language or in a frame of reference familiar to him, and then proceed to decipher its meaning. Analog line is a technical term associated with old telephone lines over which modems modulated and demodulated messages.

Question 161

Answer B is correct. After you have defined your procurement plan, the equipment or service to be purchased, and how you are going to evaluate any responses, you are ready to conduct procurements.

Question 162

Answer C is correct. From time to time, external events, such as business strategy change or regulatory compliance, have a direct effect on the day-to-day execution of a project. Approved corrective actions are recognized changes throughout the entire organization of the project plan and are ultimately approved and authorized by the project sponsor and the project manager.

Question 163

Answer D is correct. Parametric estimating uses statistical relationships between historical data and other variables to calculate estimates. Answers A, B, and C refer to other types of estimating methods.

Question 164

Answer C is correct. Only a quality control program that includes worker and management input will produce long-term quality improvements. All other answers will generate, at best, temporary quality improvements.

Question 165

Answer C is correct. A work breakdown structure (WBS) is a task-oriented tree diagram of activities. Answer A is incorrect because a detailed plan is not necessarily task oriented and organized into a tree. Answers B and D are incorrect because neither option is a task-oriented list.

Question 166

Answer C is correct. The fishbone (also called the cause-and-effect) diagram, as shown in the following figure, was first developed by Kaoru Ishikawa in 1969. It is used to identify the root cause of a process going out of control. Brainstorming, Answer B, is an activity with the express purpose of collecting ideas, and Answer A refers to how costs might be managed through the life of a project.

Question 167

Answer C is correct. The quality plan requires tools that enable the successful implementation of control programs that provide quality assurance, quality processes, and metrics that are used in support of the quality control activities.

Question 168

Answer C is correct. Budget at completion (BAC) equates to the original cost estimate of the project.

Question 169

Answer D is correct. Planned value (PV), or budget cost of work scheduled (BCWS), equates to the percentage of work that should have been completed according to the plan. In this case, you divide the 16 weeks by the 24 in the original plan; this equals 67%. You then multiply $675,000 (the budget at completion) by 67% and get $452,250.

Question 170

Answer B is correct. Earned value (EV), or budgeted cost of work performed (BCWP), equals the actual percentage of work performed times the budget at completion (BAC). In this case, EV = 0.25 * $675,000 = $168,750.

Question 171

Answer D is correct. Cost variance equals earned value minus actual cost. In this case, $168,750 – $300,000 = –$131,250.

Question 172

Answer C is correct. Schedule variance equals earned value minus planned value. In this case, $168,750 – $452,250 = –$283,500.

Question 173

Answer A is correct. Estimated at completion equals budget at completion divided into cost performance index (EV/AC). In this case, $675,000 ÷ (168750 ÷ 300000) = $675000 ÷ 0.5625 = $1,200,000.

Question 174

Answer C is correct. A CPI less than 1.0 suggests a cost overrun for work completed.

Question 175

Answer C is correct. Uncertainty means that neither the outcomes nor the likelihood of occurrence is known. Answers A and B are incorrect because in these answers, one of the variables is known. Answer D is an incorrect definition for uncertainty.

Question 176

Answer C is correct. Deming’s definition of quality centers around continuous improvement. All other answers omit Deming’s core focus and are incorrect.

Question 177

Answer D is correct. As project manager, you need to be aware of what makes employees and team members happy. One way to do this is to apply Dr. Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy of needs. This theory postulates that the performance of an individual depends on how well his personal needs are satisfied. These range from basic needs (physiological), such as a roof over his head and food on his table, to self-actualization needs, such as finding self-fulfillment. You must recognize these as cyclical in the sense that self-actualization is only the destination; most individuals tend to treasure the journey as well.

Question 178

Answer A is correct. Performance specifications dictate parameters against which actual products can be measured for quality. Answers B, C, and D all refer to specifications that describe products in general, not necessarily with respect to quality.

Question 179

Answer B is correct. McGregor’s Theory X postulates that people must be constantly watched and that they are incapable, avoid responsibility, and avoid work.

Question 180

Answer A is correct. Business risk is most similar to profit and loss. Answers B and C are incorrect because they each are common occurrences in a business environment. Answer D is incorrect because liability insurance is a response to risk (which is an example of risk transfer).

Question 181

Answer B is correct. A cost-reimbursable contract is the same as a cost-plus contract. Answers A and C are incorrect because they refer to other types of contracts, both based on fixed prices. Answer D is incorrect because it doesn’t refer to a contract type at all.

Question 182

Answer C is correct. Adding additional resources or overtime to the critical path activities with the longest time duration has the greatest effect on the overall project by decreasing the overall project duration. Answers A, B, and D are all incorrect because adding resources to activities that are not on the critical path does not directly affect the overall project duration.

Question 183

Answer B is correct. Pareto’s law states that because most defects are caused by a small percentage of problems, focusing remediation efforts on those problems has the biggest effect on quality. Answers A and C are incorrect because they arbitrarily waste money on problems that do not cause many defects. Answer D is an incorrect statement.

Question 184

Answer D is correct. The forcing conflict resolution technique forces a project manager’s opinion(s) on the project team. This can solve the short-term need to make a decision but tends to create discord.

Question 185

Answer C is correct. Within the context of project communication management, these reports can assist in presenting a project’s performance and resource utilization.

Question 186

Answer C is correct. As the name suggests, procurement closure addresses all the processes pertaining to procurement closures, and administrative deals with the processes internal to the organization.

Question 187

Answer C is correct. In accordance with the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct, you should always avoid any act that might be construed as a conflict of interest or unethical.

Question 188

Answer C is correct. Increased responsibility feeds the need for esteem. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they refer to needs that increased responsibility would not address.

Question 189

Answer D is correct. Management reserves are budgets reserved for unplanned changes. Answer A is incorrect because unbudgeted scope is scope creep and should be handled via change requests. Answer B is incorrect because inaccurate estimates should be handled via change requests as well. Answer C is incorrect because major catastrophes are addressed in the risk management plan.

Question 190

Answer A is correct. The PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct clearly states that it is your responsibility to provide, maintain, and satisfy the scope and objectives of professional services unless otherwise directed by the customer.

Question 191

Answer B is correct. A request for quotation is a formal invitation to submit a price for specified goods or services. Although similar, Answer A is incorrect because a request for proposal is generally more generic and allows for more latitude with respect to the goods and services in the proposal. Remember, a request for quotation is for specific goods and services. Answers C and D are incorrect detractors.

Question 192

Answer C is correct. Quality metrics are an output of the plan quality management process. All other answers are inputs to the plan quality management process.

Question 193

Answer D is correct. As a PMP, you are expected to help in the advancement of the project management discipline and should do so whenever it does not detract from your primary responsibilities. Answers A and B are clearly inappropriate in that neither approach helps advance the discipline. Answer C is not the best answer because it ignores any potential conflict of interest issues.

Question 194

Answer C is correct. The S curve is a graphical display of cumulative costs and labor hours plotted against time. Answer A is incorrect because a trend line is a line superimposed on a graph depicting a trend in the common data points. Answer B is incorrect because trend analysis models future behavior based on historical data. Answer D is incorrect because it is a report on the status of completed work.

Question 195

Answer B is correct. If an activity is not on the critical path, completing it early increases the slack for that activity. Answer A is incorrect because finishing early with an activity that is not on the critical path does not affect the critical path. Answer C is incorrect because finishing an activity early does not always equate to lower cost. Answer D is incorrect because finishing an activity early does not always result in resource reassignment.

Question 196

Answer C is correct. You are the project manager and need to move away from making decisions solely based on the corporate environment. Probably the main reason for this international virtual team is to leverage the expertise of internal resources available to your client or employer within the corporate environment.

Question 197

Answer A is correct. You are ultimately responsible to your project sponsor and the rest of the executives affected by this delay. You need to have a meeting with management to apprise them of the new delivery date and offer crashing the schedule as an option.

Question 198

Answer C is correct. Only good listeners are capable of keeping long-term active communication with all the members of the project team up and down the chain.

Question 199

Answer B is correct. Materials management provides the facilities to ensure that all non-personnel resources are available when and where they are required. Answer A is incorrect because inventory control manages inventory after it has been acquired. Answer C is incorrect because procurement is the process of purchasing or producing resources but does not address the oversight of the resources after they are available.

Question 200

Answer A is correct. The effect is depicted at the right-hand end of a spine on a fishbone diagram. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they all refer to invalid locations for the effect on a fishbone diagram.