Assessment Test
1. The project sponsor has approached you with a dilemma. At the annual stockholders meeting, the CEO announced that the project you’re managing will be completed by the end of this year. The problem is that this is six months prior to the scheduled completion date. It’s too late to go back and correct her mistake, and now stockholders expect implementation by the announced date. You must speed up the delivery date of this project. Your primary constraint before this occurred was the budget. Choose the best action from the options listed to speed up the project.
A. Hire more resources to get the work completed faster.
B. Ask for more money so that you can contract out one of the phases you had planned to do with in-house resources.
C. Utilize negotiation and influencing skills to convince the project sponsor to speak with the CEO and make a correction to her announcement.
D. Examine the project management plan to see whether there are any phases that can be fast tracked, and then revise the project management plan to reflect the compression of the schedule.
2. These types of dependencies can create arbitrary total float values and limit your scheduling options.
A. Discretionary
B. External
C. Mandatory
D. Hard logic
3. Project managers spend what percentage of their time communicating?
A. 90
B. 85
C. 75
D. 50
4. Which of the following is not another term for inspections?
A. Reviews
B. Assessment
C. Walkthrough
D. Audits
5. The primary function of the Closing processes is to perform which of the following?
A. Formalize lessons learned and distribute this information to project participants.
B. Perform audits to verify the project results against the project requirements.
C. Assure that project records accurately reflect the final specifications of the product.
D. Perform post-implementation audits to document project successes and failures.
6. During your project meeting, a problem was discussed, and a resolution to the problem was reached. During the meeting, the participants started wondering why they thought the problem was such a big issue. Sometime after the meeting, you received an email from one of the meeting participants saying they’ve changed their mind about the solution reached in the meeting and need to resurface the problem. The solution reached during the initial project meeting is a result of which of the following conflict resolution techniques?
A. Collaborate
B. Force
C. Smooth
D. Storm
7. What are decision models?
A. Project selection criteria
B. Project selection methods
C. Project selection committees
D. Project resource and budget selection methods
8. You’ve been assigned as a project manager on a research and development project for a new dental procedure. You’re working in the Project Scope Management Knowledge Area. What is the purpose of the scope management plan?
A. The scope management plan describes and documents a scope baseline to help make future project decisions.
B. The scope management plan decomposes project deliverables into smaller units of work.
C. The scope management plan describes how project scope will be developed and how changes will be managed.
D. The scope management plan describes how cost and time estimates will be developed for project scope changes.
9. Which of the following statements regarding Ishikawa diagrams in the Identify Risks process is not true?
A. Ishikawa diagrams are also called cause-and-effect diagrams.
B. Ishikawa diagrams are also called fishbone diagrams.
C. Ishikawa diagrams are part of the diagramming tool and technique of this process.
D. Ishikawa diagrams show the steps needed to identify the risk.
10. All of the following are outputs of the Perform Integrated Change Control process except for which one?
A. Change log
B. Project management plan updates
C. Organizational process assets updates
D. Approved change requests
11. What is one of the most important skills a project manager can have?
A. Negotiation skills
B. Influencing skills
C. Communication skills
D. Problem-solving skills
12. All of the following are a type of project ending except for which one?
A. Extinction
B. Starvation
C. Desertion
D. Addition
13. You are the project manager for a construction company that is building a new city and county office building in your city. Your CCB recently approved a scope change. You know that scope change might come about as a result of all of the following except which one?
A. Schedule revisions
B. Product scope change
C. Changes to the agreed-on WBS
D. Changes to the project requirements
14. You are the project manager for Xylophone Phonics. It produces children’s software programs that teach basic reading and math skills. You’re performing cost estimates for your project and don’t have a lot of details yet. Which of the following techniques should you use?
A. Analogous estimating techniques, because this is a form of expert judgment that uses historical information from similar projects
B. Bottom-up estimating techniques, because this is a form of expert judgment that uses historical information from similar projects
C. Monte Carlo analysis, because this is a modeling technique that uses simulation to determine estimates
D. Parametric modeling, because this is a form of simulation used to determine estimates
15. Project managers have the highest level of authority and the most power in which type of organizational structure?
A. Projectized
B. Strong matrix
C. Functional
D. Balanced matrix
16. This process is concerned with determining the engagement levels of the stakeholders.
A. Plan Communications Management
B. Control Communications
C. Plan Stakeholder Management
D. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
17. All of the following statements are true regarding risk events except which one?
A. Project risks are uncertain events.
B. If risks occur, they can have a positive or negative effect on project objectives.
C. Unknown risks can be threats to the project objectives, and nothing can be done to plan for them.
D. Risks that have more perceived rewards to the organization than consequences should be accepted.
18. The Conduct Procurement process applies evaluation criteria to bids and proposals and selects a vendor. It also uses independent estimates to compare vendor prices. This is also known as which of the following?
A. Independent comparisons
B. Analytical techniques
C. Should cost estimates
D. Expert judgment
19. You are the project manager for Xylophone Phonics. This company produces children’s software programs that teach basic reading and math skills. You are ready to assign project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships. On which project Planning process are you working?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Plan Human Resource Management
C. Acquire Project Team
D. Plan Organizational Resources
20. You know that PV = 470, AC = 430, EV = 460, EAC = 500, and BAC = 525. What is VAC?
A. 65
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30
21. You are a project manager who has recently held a project team kickoff meeting where all the team members were formally introduced to each other. Some of the team members know each other from other projects and have been working with you for the past three weeks. Which of the following statements is not true?
A. Team building improves the knowledge and skills of team members.
B. Team building builds feelings of trust and agreement among team members, which can improve morale.
C. Team building can create a dynamic environment and cohesive culture to improve productivity of both the team and the project.
D. Team building occurs throughout the life of the project and can establish clear expectations and behaviors for project team members, leading to increased productivity.
22. You are a project manager for the Swirling Seas Cruises food division. You’re considering two different projects regarding food services on the cruise lines. The initial cost of Project Fish’n for Chips will be $800,000, with expected cash inflows of $300,000 per quarter. Project Picnic’s payback period is six months. Which project should you recommend?
A. Project Fish’n for Chips, because its payback period is two months shorter than Project Picnic’s
B. Project Fish’n for Chips, because the costs on Project Picnic are unknown
C. Project Picnic, because Project Fish’n for Chips’s payback period is four months longer than Project Picnic’s
D. Project Picnic, because Project Fish’n for Chips’s payback period is two months longer than Project Picnic’s
23. Which of the following schedule compression techniques increases risk?
A. Crashing
B. Resource leveling
C. Fast tracking
D. Lead and lag
24. Name the ethical code you’ll be required to adhere to as a PMP® credential holder.
A. Project Management Policy and Ethics Code
B. PMI® Standards and Ethics Code of Conduct
C. Project Management Code of Professional Ethics
D. PMI® Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct
25. You have been assigned to a project that will allow job seekers to fill out applications and submit them via the company website. You report to the VP of human resources. You are also responsible for screening applications for the information technology division and setting up interviews. The project coordinator has asked for the latest version of your changes to the online application page for his review. Which organizational structure do you work in?
A. Functional organization
B. Weak matrix organization
C. Projectized organization
D. Balanced matrix organization
26. You are the project manager for Lucky Stars Candies. You’ve identified the requirements for the project and documented them where?
A. In the requirements document, which will be used as an input to the Create WBS process
B. In the project scope statement, which is used as an input to the Create WBS process
C. In the product requirements document, which is an output of the Define Scope process
D. In the project specifications document, which is an output of the Define Scope process
27. What is the purpose of the project charter?
A. To recognize and acknowledge the project sponsor
B. To recognize and acknowledge the existence of the project and commit organizational resources to the project
C. To acknowledge the existence of the project team, project manager, and project sponsor
D. To describe the selection methods used to choose this project over its competitors
28. Which of the following are tools and techniques of the Identify Stakeholders process?
A. Stakeholder analysis, expert judgment, and meetings
B. Stakeholder analysis, expert judgment, and stakeholder register
C. Stakeholder analysis and expert judgment
D. Stakeholder analysis, stakeholder management strategy, and expert judgment
29. You are a project manager working on a software development project. You’ve developed the risk management plan, identified risks, and determined risk responses for the risks. A risk event occurs, and you implement the response. Then, another risk event occurs as a result of the response you implemented. What type of risk is this?
A. Trigger risk
B. Residual risk
C. Secondary risk
D. Mitigated risk
30. You are working on a project that will upgrade the phone system in your customer service center. You have considered using analogous estimating, parametric estimating, bottom-up estimating, and three-point estimating to determine activity costs. Which process does this describe?
A. Estimating Activity Resources
B. Estimate Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Estimating Activity Costs
31. Failure costs are also known as which of the following?
A. Internal costs
B. Cost of poor quality
C. Cost of keeping defects out of the hands of customers
D. Prevention costs
32. Feeding buffers and the project buffer are part of which of the following Develop Schedule tools and techniques?
A. Critical path method
B. Schedule network analysis
C. Applying leads and lags
D. Critical chain method
33. You are working on a project that will upgrade the phone system in your customer service center. You have used bottom-up estimating techniques to assign costs to the project activities and have determined the cost baseline. Which of the following statements is true?
A. You have completed the Estimate Cost process and now need to complete the Determine Budget process to develop the project’s cost baseline.
B. You have completed the Estimate Cost process and established a cost baseline to measure future projects against.
C. You have completed the Determine Budget process and now need to complete the Schedule Development process to establish a project baseline to measure future project performance against.
D. You have completed the Determine Budget process, and the cost baseline will be used to measure future project performance.
34. Each of the following options describes an element of the Develop Project Management Plan process except for which one?
A. Project charter
B. Outputs from other planning processes
C. Configuration management system
D. Organizational process assets
35. There are likely to be team loyalty issues in a matrixed environment. All of the following are true regarding this situation as it pertains to the Manage Project Team process except for which one?
A. Two of the tools and techniques you might use to manage these relationships effectively are communications methods and conflict management.
B. In this type of structure, team members report to both a functional manager and a project manager. Both managers should have input to the project performance appraisal for all team members, which is a tool and technique of this process.
C. The project manager is generally responsible for managing team members’ relationships.
D. The effective management of these reporting relationships is often a critical success factor for the project.
36. Monte Carlo analysis can help predict the impact of risks on project deliverables. This is an element of one of the tools and techniques of which of the following processes?
A. Plan Risk Responses
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Identify Risks
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
37. Which of the following statements regarding configuration management is not true?
A. Configuration management involves managing changes to the project baselines.
B. Change control systems are a subset of the configuration management system.
C. Configuration management focuses on the specifications of the deliverables of the project.
D. Configuration management validates and improves the project by evaluating the impact of each change.
38. Which performance measurement tells you what the projected total cost of the project will be at completion?
A. ETC
B. EV
C. AC
D. EAC
39. Which of the following contracts should you use for projects that have a degree of uncertainty and require a large investment early in the project life cycle?
A. Fixed price
B. Cost reimbursable
C. Lump sum
D. T&M
40. According to the PMBOK® Guide, the project manager is identified and assigned during which process?
A. During the Develop Project Charter process
B. At the conclusion of the Develop Project Charter process
C. Prior to beginning the Planning processes
D. Prior to beginning the Define Scope process
41. All of the following are tools and techniques of the Close Procurements process except for which one?
A. Expert judgment
B. Procurement audits
C. Procurement negotiations
D. Records management system
42. The inputs of the Control Communications process include all of the following except for which one?
A. Work performance data
B. Issue log
C. Project communications
D. Work performance information
43. All of the following statements are true regarding risks except for which one?
A. Risks might be threats to the objectives of the project.
B. Risks are certain events that may be threats or opportunities to the objectives of the project.
C. Risks might be opportunities to the objectives of the project.
D. Risks have causes and consequences.
44. Which performance measurement tells you the cost of the work that has been authorized and budgeted for a WBS component?
A. PV
B. EV
C. AC
D. BCWP
45. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Project Management Knowledge Areas?
A. They include Initiation, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing.
B. They consist of 10 areas that bring together processes that have things in common.
C. They consist of five processes that bring together phases of projects that have things in common.
D. They include Planning, Executing, and Monitoring and Controlling processes because these three processes are commonly interlinked.
46. You have just prepared an RFP for release. Your project involves a substantial amount of contract work detailed in the RFP. Your favorite vendor drops by and offers to give you and your spouse the use of their company condo for your upcoming vacation. It’s located in a beautiful resort community that happens to be one of your favorite places to go for a getaway. What is the most appropriate response?
A. Thank the vendor, but decline the offer because you know this could be considered a conflict of interest.
B. Thank the vendor, and accept. This vendor is always offering you incentives like this, so this offer does not likely have anything to do with the recent RFP release.
C. Thank the vendor, accept the offer, and immediately tell your project sponsor so they’re aware of what you’re doing.
D. Thank the vendor, but decline the offer because you’ve already made another arrangement for this vacation. Ask them whether you can take a rain check and arrange another time to use the condo.
47. What are the Define Scope process tools and techniques?
A. Cost-benefit analysis, scope baseline, expert judgment, and facilitated workshops
B. Product analysis, alternatives generation, and expert judgment
C. Product analysis, alternatives generation, expert judgment, and facilitated workshops
D. Alternatives generation, stakeholder analysis, and expert judgment
48. You are the project manager for Heartthrobs by the Numbers Dating Services. You’re working on an updated Internet site that will display pictures as well as short bios of prospective heartbreakers. You have your activity list and resource requirements in hand and are planning to use parametric estimates and reserve analysis to determine activity durations. Which of the following statements is true?
A. You are using inputs from the Estimate Activity Duration process.
B. You are using tools and techniques of the Estimate Cost process.
C. You are using tools and techniques of the Estimate Activity Durations process.
D. You are using inputs of the Estimate Costs process.
49. Your team is developing the risk management plan. Which tool and technique of this process is used to develop risk cost elements and schedule activities that will be included in the project budget and schedule?
A. Meetings
B. Strategies for both threats and opportunities
C. Information gathering techniques
D. Risk data quality assessment
50. What type of organization experiences the least amount of stress during project closeout?
A. Projectized
B. Functional
C. Weak matrix
D. Strong matrix
51. You are the project manager for Xylophone Phonics. It produces children’s software programs that teach basic reading and math skills. You are performing the Plan Quality Management process and are identifying nonproductive activities. Part of this involves capturing information such as process boundaries, process configurations, and process metrics. Which of the following does this describe?
A. The process improvement plan
B. The quality management plan
C. The quality metrics
D. The cost of quality
52. You need to convey some very complex, detailed information to the project stakeholders. What is the best method for communicating this kind of information?
A. Verbal
B. Vertical
C. Horizontal
D. Written
53. You are the project manager for Heartthrobs by the Numbers Dating Services. You’re working on an updated Internet site that will display pictures as well as short bios of prospective heartbreakers. You’ve just completed your project staff assignments and published the project team directory. Which process are you in?
A. Plan Human Resource Management
B. Manage Project Team
C. Develop Project Team
D. Acquire Project Team
54. You are a project manager for Waterways Houseboats, Inc. You’ve been asked to perform a cost-benefit analysis for two proposed projects. Project A costs $2.4 million, with potential benefits of $12 million and future operating costs of $3 million. Project B costs $2.8 million, with potential benefits of $14 million and future operating costs of $2 million. Which project should you recommend?
A. Project A, because the cost to implement it is cheaper than with Project B
B. Project A, because the potential benefits plus the future operating costs are less in value than the same calculation for Project B
C. Project B, because the potential benefits minus the implementation and future operating costs are greater in value than the same calculation for Project A
D. Project B, because the potential benefits minus the costs to implement are greater in value than the same calculation for Project A
55. These diagrams rank-order factors for corrective action by frequency of occurrence. They are also a type of histogram.
A. Control charts
B. Process flowcharts
C. Scatter diagrams
D. Pareto diagrams
56. You are a project manager working in a foreign country. You observe that some of your project team members are having a difficult time adjusting to the new culture. You provided them with training on cultural differences and the customs of this country before they arrived, but they still seem uncomfortable and disoriented. Which of the following statements is true?
A. This is the result of working with teams of people from two different countries.
B. This condition is known as culture shock.
C. This is the result of jet lag and travel fatigue.
D. This condition is known as global culturalism.
57. Your project involves the research and development of a new food additive. You’re ready to release the product to your customer when you discover that a minor reaction might occur in people with certain conditions. The reactions to date have been very minor, and no known long-lasting side effects have been noted. As project manager, what should you do?
A. Do nothing because the reactions are so minor that very few people will be affected.
B. Inform the customer that you’ve discovered this condition and tell them you’ll research it further to determine its impacts.
C. Inform your customer that there is no problem with the additive except for an extremely small percentage of the population and release the product to them.
D. Tell the customer you’ll correct the reaction problems in the next batch, but you’ll release the first batch of product to them now to begin using.
58. The project manager has the greatest influence over quality during which process?
A. Plan Quality Management
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Control Quality
D. Monitor Quality
59. You are the project manager for a construction company that is building a new city and county office building in your city. You recently looked over the construction site to determine whether the work to date conformed to the requirements and quality standards. Which tool and technique of the Control Quality process were you using?
A. Defect repair review
B. Inspection
C. Sampling
D. Quality audit
60. All of the following statements are true of the project Closing processes except for which one?
A. Probability for success is greatest in the project Closing processes.
B. The project manager’s influence is greatest in the project Closing processes.
C. The stakeholders’ influence is least in the project Closing processes.
D. Risk occurrence is greatest in the project Closing processes.
61. You are refining the product description for your company’s new line of ski boots. Which of the following statements is true?
A. You are in the Initiating processes of your project and know that the product description will contain more detail in this stage and that a decreasing amount of detail will be added to it as the project progresses.
B. You are in the Planning processes of your project and know that the product description will contain less detail in this stage and greater detail as the project progresses.
C. You are in the Planning processes of your project and know that the product description should contain the most detail possible at this stage because this is critical information for the Planning process.
D. You are in the Initiating processes of your project and know that the product description will contain less detail in this stage and greater detail as the project progresses.
62. Every status meeting should have time allotted for reviewing risks. Which of the following sentences is not true?
A. Risk identification and monitoring should occur throughout the life of the project.
B. Risk audits should occur toward the later phases of the project.
C. Risks should be monitored for their status and to determine whether the impacts to the objectives have changed.
D. Technical performance measurement variances may indicate that a risk is looming and should be reviewed at status meetings.
63. The business need, product scope description, and strategic plan together describe elements of which of the following?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Tools and techniques of the Initiating processes
C. The project statement of work
D. The project charter
64. Which of the following statements is true regarding constraints and assumptions?
A. Constraints restrict the actions of the project team, and assumptions are considered true for planning purposes.
B. Constraints are considered true for planning purposes, and assumptions limit the options of the project team.
C. Constraints consider vendor availability and resource availability to be true for planning purposes. Assumptions limit the project team to work within predefined budgets or timelines.
D. Constraints and assumptions are inputs to the Initiation process. They should be documented because they will be used throughout the project Planning process.
65. People are motivated by the need for achievement, power, or affiliation according to which theory?
A. Expectancy Theory
B. Achievement Theory
C. Contingency Theory
D. Theory X
66. As a result of a face-to-face meeting you recently had to discuss the items in your issue log, you have resolved issues and come away with an approved corrective action and an update to the project management plan. Which process does this describe?
A. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
B. Control Communications
C. Manage Project Communications
D. Manage Project Team
67. You’ve just completed the WBS. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The WBS breaks the project deliverables down to a level where alternatives identification can be used to determine how level-two assignments should be made.
B. The WBS breaks the project deliverables down to a level where project constraints and assumptions can be identified easily.
C. The WBS breaks the project deliverables down to the work package level, where product analysis can be documented.
D. The WBS breaks the project deliverables down to the work package level, where cost and time estimates can be easily determined.
68. As a PMP® credential holder, one of your responsibilities is to ensure integrity on the project. When your personal interests are put above the interests of the project or when you use your influence to cause others to make decisions in your favor without regard for the project outcome, this is considered which of the following?
A. Conflict of interest
B. Using professional knowledge inappropriately
C. Culturally unacceptable
D. Personal conflict issue
69. Which of the following describes the Executing process group?
A. Project plans are put into action.
B. Project performance measurements are taken and analyzed.
C. Project plans are developed.
D. Project plans are published.
70. Which of the following statements regarding the ADM method is not true?
A. The ADM method is a tool and technique of Sequence Activities.
B. The ADM method uses one time estimate to determine durations.
C. The ADM method is also called AOA.
D. The ADM method is rarely used today.
71. You are a project manager working on gathering requirements and establishing estimates for the project. Which process group are you in?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Initiating
D. Monitoring and Controlling
72. According to the PMBOK® Guide, which of the following names all the components of a communication model?
A. Encode, transmit, decode
B. Encode, transmit, decode, acknowledge, feedback and/or response
C. Encode, transmit, decode, feedback and/or response
D. Encode, transmit, acknowledge, decode