Chapter 14
Practice Exam 1
Now it’s time to audition for the starring role in “Acing the Praxis Core.” It’s your chance to see how well you can perform on the practice exam in a mock test setting. Remember, Praxis makes perfect … I mean, “practice makes perfect.” When you take the following practice test, try your best to create a setting that’s similar to the one in which you’ll take the real Praxis. That means
- De-gadgetize! No cellphone, tablet, TV remote, and so on. However, you have access to an on-screen, four-function calculator when you take the Praxis Math, so you can keep a calculator handy when you reach the math practice test in this chapter.
- Find a quiet place to take the practice test — somewhere free from disruptions.
After you’ve created a testing environment, adjust your mind-set:
- Make sure you’re aware of the amount of time allowed for each section so you don’t spend too much time on one question.
- Focus on the concept that you’re being tested on and turn your radar on to identify key words that indicate the operation you need to solve the problem.
- Don’t leave any answers blank.
- Stay focused on your goal — to ace the Praxis Core. Have self-confidence because now is your opportunity to shine!
When you finish this audition, there shouldn’t be a need to call in an understudy. Make sure to go through the detailed explanations of the answers in Chapter 15. Pay close attention to the questions you missed. Go back and review the question, and then review the answer to make sure you understand it.
If you want to practice taking the test electronically, as you’ll do on test day, go to Dummies.com, follow the steps outlined in this book’s Introduction, and you can access this practice test online. This online practice is included with the book. There, you can answer the questions digitally, and the software records which questions you answered correctly and incorrectly. This summary provides you with a snapshot of which areas you excel in and which areas you may need additional review.
Answer Sheet for Practice Exam 1
Part 1: Reading
This is a study of ancient sport, not ancient sports, a sport history or a history of sport rather than a sports history or a history of sports. Traditional sports history tends to be event oriented, concentrating on individual sports and providing chronological narratives by leagues, teams, or players. Treating data (e.g., records and statistics) as facts, it favors anecdote above analysis. Instead, sport history pursues the phenomenon of sport over time, identifying and trying to explain its changes and continuity both causally and in context. It approaches ancient sport and spectacle not as isolated pastimes but as essential elements in social, civic, and religious life. Serious interdisciplinary sport history uses sport as a lens to examine human nature, societies, and cultures, not as an end in itself.
Kyle, D.G. Sport and Spectacle in the Ancient World. John Wiley & Sons, Inc., 2015. (p. 3).
1. The author suggests which of the following concerning the difference between the terms sport and sports?
(A) Sports is a modern term, while sport is a term that refers to historical examples of physical challenge.
(B) The modern use of the term sports focuses on traditional views solely focused on physical competition, while the author proposes that the study of sport can be a gauge to measure other aspects of particular cultures and time periods.
(C) The terms can be used interchangeably, but the author wants to refer to sports as those contests involving multiple competitors.
(D) Sport encompasses more than just physical challenges, while sports focuses on the pursuit of physical competition.
(E) Most studies of the subject will reveal only sports histories because only a few elevated examples can be considered sport, a phenomenon that transcends physical competition.
Assessing the value of Homer’s accounts of games as historical evidence involves tackling the “Homeric question.” Whether seen as one bard’s composition or several writers’ compilation, Homer’s profession, patrons, and medium as an epic poet mandated that he applaud the heroic deeds of a greater age of men.
Kyle, D.G. Sport and Spectacle in the Ancient World. John Wiley & Sons, Inc., 2015. (p. 55).
2. The passage suggests which of the following about Homer’s purpose in writing his works?
(A) In order to satisfy the public, Homer appealed with tales of epic heroic deeds.
(B) The Homeric question involves whether or not Homer the man wrote the vast volume attributed to him or whether such work was actually the work of many writers.
(C) In order to write so many works that appeal to so many people, it was necessary that a great many people must have written what has since been attributed solely to Homer.
(D) Qualities of a Homeric tale will involve a hero undertaking some struggle or fame in order to showcase the greatness of man.
(E) Homer’s works can best be viewed as heroic deeds involving both games and historical evidence that symbolize the overall greatness of man.
Until recently, we viewed Greek antiquity through a haze of romanticism. Works illustrated with scenes of bucolic Olympia, or serene Delphi on the heights of Mt. Parnassus, or the Parthenon on the Acropolis, presented Greek culture as natural, graceful, inspiring, and uplifting. The people who gave us democracy, philosophy, and the beauty of classical art and architecture held their games out of vitality and devotion, not out of boredom and lust.
Kyle, D.G. Sport and Spectacle in the Ancient World. John Wiley & Sons, Inc., 2015. (p. 15).
3. In the context of the first sentence, “romanticism” most nearly means
(A) idyllic.
(B) typical of a rural life.
(C) a movement that was a revolt against the view of neoclassicism.
(D) thinking that involves an emphasis on an appreciation of nature and the common man.
(E) something not clearly seen or evidenced.
The supposedly exceptionally negative case of Roman spectacles has suffered by comparison with the supposedly exceptionally positive case of Greek sport. Modern biases have entrenched the myth of an incompatible antithetical dichotomy between the wise world of Greek sport and the wild world of Roman spectacle. Greek sport elevated but Roman spectacles debased human nature.
Kyle, D.G. Sport and Spectacle in the Ancient World. John Wiley & Sons, Inc., 2015. (p. 15).
4. Which of the following conclusions is most consistent with the information in the passage?
(A) While modern viewpoints are more biased toward the Greeks as a positive cultural example, the Romans are more deserving of it.
(B) The modern viewpoint of Greeks as the positive cultural example and Romans as the negative example have been borne out by evidence.
(C) There are no inherent differences in Greek and Roman cultural evidence, but man has historically cast one in a more negative light.
(D) One myth of the cultural sports spectacle is that Greek sports have been wiser and better, while Roman sports have debased man’s nature.
(E) Romans have long labored under a cultural myth that has lately proven to be untrue and unfounded.
Despite Hollywood, we should clarify what a gladiator was and was not. The earliest gladiators may have been slaves or prisoners of war forced to fight to the death at funerals, but by the later second century a gladiator (from gladius, the Spanish sword used by Roman soldiers), while still a slave or captive, was a skilled, trained, and armored weapons fighter who performed in public combats against another gladiator.
Kyle, D.G. Sport and Spectacle in the Ancient World. John Wiley & Sons, Inc., 2015. (p. 257).
5. Which of the following statements can best be inferred from the passage?
(A) Hollywood has perpetrated a false image of gladiators that isn’t supported by historical evidence.
(B) Hollywood has supported the idea that gladiators have been Spanish slaves or prisoners of war.
(C) Most people don’t know that gladiators were skilled fighters instead of slaves or prisoners of war.
(D) Gladiators were actually very highly skilled fighters who chose to perform in combat rather than being forced to.
(E) Hollywood has supported the idea that gladiators have been skilled and trained fighters who performed for public acclaim and honor.
Bradshaw, M. Global Energy Dilemmas. Polity Press, 2014. (p. 6).
6. Based on the information listed in the graph, which fuel has seen the most steady use of energy consumption?
(A) coal
(B) crude oil
(C) hydro
(D) nuclear
(E) gas
The rate of population growth is another key factor in determining future energy demand. At a simple level, more people means more demand; but it is obviously more complicated than that, as the future standard of living of each new citizen is vitally important. Jared Diamond calculated that the estimated 1 billion people who live in the developed world (which includes most of you reading) have a relative per capita consumption rate of 32. By comparison, most of the other 5–6 billion people living in the developing world have a relative per capita consumption well below 32, with most being close to one. Put another way, the average American consumes 32 times more resources than the average Kenyan.
Bradshaw, M. Global Energy Dilemmas. Polity Press, 2014. (p. 45).
7. Given the information provided in the passage, which of the following forecasts would adequately describe per capita consumption rates?
(A) Per capita consumption rates cannot be adequately forecast due to wildly varying population growth rates.
(B) Where future generations are born determines their per capita consumption rates.
(C) Per capita consumption rates will be greater in America than in the developing nations because Americans consume more energy.
(D) Per capita consumption rates will be greater in developing nations because those nations have higher population growth rates.
(E) Per capita consumption rates are largely determined by the standard of living within an area. A better standard of living translates to higher consumption of energy.
Sexism negatively affects not only women and girls, but also men and boys. While the former manifestation of sexism is widely acknowledged, few people recognize or take seriously the fact that males are the primary victims of many and quite serious forms of sex discrimination.
Benatar, D. The Second Sexism. Polity Press, 2012. (p. x).
8. The evidence the author presents supports which of the following conclusions?
(A) Women and girls are negatively affected by sexism.
(B) Women and girls can be positively affected by sexism.
(C) Men and boys are negatively affected by sexism.
(D) Men and boys can be positively affected by sexism.
(E) Although one might expect sexism to negatively affect women and girls, men and boys can also be targets of this kind of discrimination.
Fathers might not be the only males to suffer disadvantage from postdivorce and other custodial arrangements, although the evidence on this is mixed. Many studies have found that sons fare less well than daughters following the separation of their parents. In one study, for example, divorced mothers showed their sons less affection than their daughters, “treated their sons more harshly and gave them more threatening commands – though they did not systematically enforce them.” “Even after two years … boys in … divorced families were … more aggressive, more impulsive and more disobedient with their mothers than either girls in divorced families or children in intact families.”
Benatar, D. The Second Sexism. John Wiley & Sons, Inc., 2012. (p. 51).
9. Which of the following statement would form the most logical conclusion of the passage?
(A) In short, these and other studies suggest that boys tend to suffer more than girls as a result of divorce and of living with a single parent.
(B) Surprisingly, the suffering of boys tends to last longer and be more detrimentally harmful than that of girls.
(C) Of course, the study doesn’t take into account the age of the boy. Likely, this would affect the studies.
(D) Thus, the suffering and despair of mothers and fathers has been alleviated by the results of the study.
(E) Sadly, the studies present no conclusions.
Definitions of what is good and bad throughout history have often been drawn from religion and faith. This is a delicate matter for historians. Today’s scholars uphold a position of skepticism about things like divine intervention, miracles, the supernatural, or the paranormal. No good evidence exists that any of these things actually has changed history, except insofar as people have taken action on the basis of their personal or communal beliefs in them. Most notoriously, the witch hunts clearly happened because people believed that witches conspired with the Devil to overthrow Christian society, even though there was never any proof of a diabolic conspiracy, much less of the efficacy of curses and spells.
Pavlac, B. A. Game of Thrones Versus History. John Wiley & Sons, Inc., 2017. (p. 5).
10. The last sentence of the passage serves to
(A) differentiate knowledge from faith and knowledge using religion.
(B) explain why faith and religion were so often used as evidence of scientific truth.
(C) emphasize the danger of differentiating what is considered worthy, from a scholar’s perspective, from an attitude of popular perspective.
(D) clarify the understanding that teaching “bad” definitions of history has disastrous effects.
(E) observe that man often doesn’t know what is “good” or “bad” to teach about history.
We are still learning how gender designations are generated and embodied; how they operate in the early modern period and our own; how sexual identities become attached to or disconnected from gender; and how gender intersects with all other aspects of culture and society. The operations of gender remain so naturalized that they are difficult to see, and even when made visible, they can all too soon again vanish from sight. Furthermore, some patriarchal ideas have a very long shelf life indeed. To give but one example, in her brilliant study Marriage and Violence: The Early Modern Legacy, Frances E. Dolan details the ways in which some of the most egregious notions about conjugal intimacy, specifically ones which physically endanger women, remain alive and well in the twenty-first century.
Callaghan, D. A Feminist Companion to Shakespeare. John Wiley & Sons, Ltd., 2016. (p. xvii).
11. Which of the following best describes the way in which the information in the passage is conveyed?
(A) A metaphor is used in an explanation, and then an example is provided.
(B) An objection is made to a claim, and a counterexample is given.
(C) A dry point is enlivened by a comparison and contrast.
(D) An image is made to illustrate a suspected claim.
(E) A generalization is made followed by a specific example.
If woman-centered readings are often made to function as the scapegoat for the tendency to read Shakespeare’s plays as political commentaries on present moments, that is in part because the articulation of women’s concerns is only too readily understood as the special pleading of a “minority” interest. But it is also because women have themselves been prepared to frankly disavow attempts to produce generally valid readings of the plays. Mary Cowden Clarke understood her notorious book The Girlhood of Shakespeare’s Heroines in a Series of Fifteen Tales (1850), as few have understood it since, as a work of fiction. “It was believed that such a design would combine much matter of interesting speculation, afford scope for pleasant fancy, and be productive of entertainment.”
Callaghan, D. A Feminist Companion to Shakespeare. John Wiley & Sons, Ltd., 2016. (p. 27).
12. Which of the following inferences about feminist readers of Shakespeare can be made based on the passage?
(A) Their viewpoints are welcomed and considered valid.
(B) Their viewpoints have been treated scornfully in the past, with merit.
(C) Critical readings and writings by this group have not been treated with serious academic respect.
(D) Their ideas bring a new perspective to the subject that has opened up avenues of fresh study.
(E) Such notions have been dismissed as no serious female academic Shakespeare expert has held up to the intense scrutiny required for the subject.
The Greeks had an equivalent to the lion-headed Sekhmet: Athena. In Classical Greece female warriors were limited to the realms of mythology. There was no Greek equivalent to the office held by Egyptian royal women. However, in Macedonia at the time of Alexander we see a very different type of woman emerging. As in Egypt women were used to cement political allegiances. Philip II of Macedon, Alexander’s father, took a total of seven wives but divorced none. Philip’s wives and his daughters were warriors who went into battle, arranged their own daughters’ marriages and promoted their sons.
Ashton, S.A. Cleopatra and Egypt. Blackwell Publishing, 2008. (p. 10).
13. The author most probably uses the word “cement” to mean
(A) harden.
(B) enervate.
(C) liberate.
(D) strengthen.
(E) vitalize.
Julius Caesar wrote an account of his meeting with Cleopatra in the more general sense of a narrative of his campaign. Nowhere in his accounts are there any personal references to the queen or his relationship with her. Caesar was a notorious womanizer. In Cleopatra he had found a woman who had power beyond even the imagination of Roman women at this time. We are entirely dependent upon largely later historical sources for descriptions of Caesar’s relationship with Cleopatra and there are far fewer references on the subject than on Antony and Cleopatra. This is largely because of Octavian’s campaign against the latter pair. Criticizing Julius Caesar, Octavian’s adopted “father,” was less likely to obtain imperial support.
Ashton, S.A. Cleopatra and Egypt. Blackwell Publishing, 2008. (p. 54).
14. The author mentions Julius Caesar’s philandering most likely in order to
(A) note an exception from Caesar’s normal moral code of character.
(B) suggest Caesar had finally met his match in Cleopatra.
(C) provide a contrast with the accepted view of Caesar’s historical reputation.
(D) lend credence to the idea that Caesar cared more about Cleopatra’s power than the idea of love.
(E) indicate that past understandings about this famous love story are a false historical understanding.
The combination of record imports and record prices has created a trade deficit in energy greater than the much-ballyhooed one with China, and has poured vast sums of money into the oil-exporting countries. The amount of money involved is stunning: the United States is currently spending a billion dollars a day on imported fuel.
The United States cannot ignore the consequences of where the money to pay for its oil is going. The growing political clout of countries like Iran, Russia, and Venezuela rests on the explosion of world oil prices in recent years. If they take actions we disapprove of or money going to the Persian Gulf ends up in the hands of terrorists, we, as the world’s greatest consumer of oil, pay (at least indirectly) for it.
Hakes, J. A Declaration of Energy Independence. John Wiley & Sons, Inc.,2015. (p. 4).
15. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
(A) An unresolved question is pointed out, and then a possible answer to the question is put forth.
(B) A movement is defined, and then illustrations to enhance that definition are presented.
(C) A period in history is described, and then some pivotal events that occurred during the period are discussed.
(D) A political movement is summarized, and then its major contributors are discussed in detail.
(E) A controversial claim is presented, and then evidence and reasons are given to support one side of the controversy.
Annotation has outgrown footnote status so that “Long Notes” now appear at the end of volumes. The extent of, and detail in, annotation obviously depends on the intended audience. Any editor begins not by thinking about the text but about its audience. When an edition is to form part of a series, this audience has already been considered by the general editor and the editorial board. Most commercial editions are aimed at the high school and undergraduate markets — an impressionable audience by any standards, and often an enthusiastic one, eager to think about social values, critical methodology, and literary relevance; the editor has the opportunity therefore to function as teacher and social worker, both proselytizer and poser of provocative questions.
Callaghan, D. A Feminist Companion to Shakespeare. John Wiley & Sons, Ltd., 2016. (p. 82).
16. According to the passage, the growth of annotation is based on which of the following?
(A) an outgrowth of footnote status in order to serialize volumes for broader commercial appeal
(B) the advent of editions and subsequent series in a volume of work
(C) the cultivation of critical methodology
(D) a desire to sell works to a specific audience
(E) the transformation of the publishing industry
Ptolemy XII was a prolific builder, a characteristic that ironically seems often to reveal a weak or threatened ruler. In Upper Egypt a gateway was added to the Ptah temple at Karnak. This small temple had received previous gateways from earlier rulers since its foundation. Its importance is probably due to its position — it is just south of the main temple enclosure wall, which dates to Thirtieth Dynasty or the early Ptolemaic period. The Ptah temple is placed on the main northwest dromos leading from the main temple of Amun, past a series of chapels and towards the gateway that led through to the Montu enclosure. The gateway is small and would not have cost a great deal of money to build.
Ashton, S.A. Cleopatra and Egypt. Blackwell Publishing, 2008. (p. 34–5).
17. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) suggest that Ptolemy should be remembered as a powerful king because of his prolific building of temples.
(B) explain that evidence bears out the understood assumption that Ptolemy was a weak ruler.
(C) contrast accepted knowledge with revealing archeological evidence.
(D) describe the changes that have occurred in understandings about Ptolemy because of recent archeological evidence.
(E) compare Ptolemy’s accepted building projects with new evidence that can also be attributed to his reign.
The combination of record imports and record prices has created a trade deficit in energy greater than the much-ballyhooed one with China, and has poured vast sums of money into the oil-exporting countries. The amount of money involved is stunning: the United States is currently spending a billion dollars a day on imported fuel.
Hakes, J. A Declaration of Energy Independence. John Wiley & Sons, Inc., 2008. (p. 4).
18. The author most probably uses the word “ballyhooed” to mean
(A) excited commotion.
(B) attention-getting, but insubstantial.
(C) sensationally touted.
(D) disturbance.
(E) unrest.
There was one silver lining in the dark cloud of the gasoline shortage. In the first week of February, the National Safety Council reported that about 1,000 fewer people were killed in traffic accidents in the United States in 1973 than in 1972, the greatest reductions coming in December, when the energy shortage hit and many speed limits had been lowered. Several weeks later, the National Highway Safety Administration announced fatalities for the month of January were 853 (23 percent) below January of the previous year. The embargo was irritating motorists and dragging down the economy, but it was also saving lives.
Hakes, J. A Declaration of Energy Independence. John Wiley & Sons, Inc., 2008. (p. 34).
19. The author draws a direct correlation between the nationwide gasoline shortage of 1972–73 and
(A) fewer traffic accidents.
(B) lowering of speed limits.
(C) an overall energy shortage.
(D) a decrease in traffic-related fatalities.
(E) a fuel embargo.
[President Jimmy] Carter signaled in the early days of his presidency his intent to move quickly on “a comprehensive, long-range energy policy.” His first fireside chat (wearing a camel-colored cardigan sweater now on display at the Carter Presidential Library in Atlanta) just two weeks after his inauguration emphasized the energy problem.
Following the reasoning of the 1974 Project Independence report derided by Ford’s advisors, Carter proclaimed, “Our program will emphasize conservation. The amount of energy being wasted which could be saved is greater than the total energy that we are importing from other countries.”
Hakes, J. A Declaration of Energy Independence. John Wiley & Sons, Inc., 2008. (p. 45).
20. According to evidence from the passage, why has President Carter’s camel-colored cardigan sweater been preserved?
(A) It symbolized the conservatism of his presidency.
(B) It symbolized the stark contrast between Ford’s wasteful practices in his presidency and Carter’s more conservative one.
(C) It was worn during his first fireside chat.
(D) It was the first thing people saw him wearing after his inauguration two weeks prior.
(E) It came to symbolize the nation’s energy problem and its reliance on Middle Eastern fuel.
The cost of the U.S. military presence in the Persian Gulf can be calculated in many ways. The heaviest toll comes, of course, from the loss of life. Early in 2008, U.S. military fatalities in the Iraq War surpassed 4,000. To this must be added the deaths of other coalition forces, contractors, journalists, and innocent Iraqis. There is also an immense burden placed on many survivors of the war, ranging from life-altering injuries to immense pressures on young families.
The cost can also be measured in dollars. Through the end of the 2007 budget year, Congress appropriated $602 billion for military operations in Iraq and Afghanistan, and other activities associated with the war on terrorism.
Hakes, J. A Declaration of Energy Independence. John Wiley & Sons, Inc., 2008. (p. 101).
21. Which of the following best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) When assessing how much it costs to fight terrorism in the Persian Gulf, consideration has to be made for multifaceted effects.
(B) More research needs to be done in order to understand fully the effects of the war in the Persian Gulf.
(C) More people were killed who were outside the military than those who were actively serving.
(D) While the Persian Gulf War was a huge national sacrifice, the attributive effects have proved the benefit of military action.
(E) Military presence in the Persian Gulf has benefited the area and the money spent has lessened terrorist activities.
Questions 22 and 23 refer to the following passage.
However propagandistic, Leni Riefenstahl’s film Olympia (1938) about the 1936 Olympics was a triumph of cinematography and an inspiration for later sport documentaries and photography. With striking camera angles, iconic forms, and ageless symbols, the film turned athletic intensity into aesthetic delight. With scenes of misty mythological times, an athletic statue coming to life and hurling a discus, robust maidens dancing outdoors, and ancient ruins of Athens and Olympia, the film evokes ancient glory. A torch relay of handsome youths brings the talismanic fire of Classical Greece across miles and millennia to sanction the “Nazi” Olympics. Almost seamlessly, the film transports the viewer from the supposedly serene pure sport of Ancient Greece to the spectacle of the Berlin Olympics with its colossal stadium, masses of excited spectators, Roman symbols (e.g., eagles and military standards) of the Third Reich, and, of course, the emperor Hitler as the attentive patron, beaming as athletic envoys of nation after nation parade through and salute him.
Kyle, D.G. Sport and Spectacle in the Ancient World. John Wiley & Sons, Inc., 2015. (p. 1).
22. This passage is primarily concerned with
(A) warning people that propagandistic films can have dire, adverse consequences.
(B) lamenting that the film classic Olympia has been inadvertently historically linked with Hitler.
(C) pointing out that the film Olympia gave credence to the Berlin Olympics through the propagandistic use of symbols featuring honor and glory.
(D) explaining that any connection between the film classic Olympia and Hitler’s Berlin Olympics is only one of historical timing, not purposeful intent.
(E) encouraging readers to view the film classic Olympia in the same negative light as that of any other Nazi propagandization technique.
23. According to the passage,
(A) Hitler purposely designed the film to showcase German athletes in a light as directly compared to the ideals of physical perfection, as thought of earlier Olympic trials.
(B) while the film may have been made for nefarious reasons, Olympia has nevertheless changed cinematic history and inspired future sports films.
(C) the film Olympia was a shining example of how sports films should be made — with the view that athletic films should inspire feelings of glory that bring to mind feats of honor from times past.
(D) the film Olympia would likely not be remembered today if not for the connection to the infamous Berlin Olympics.
(E) the Berlin Olympics was the perfect place to unveil the film Olympia because it was a patriotic spectacle with masses of spectators and Hitler receiving the participants as a king receives his subjects.
Questions 24 and 25 refer to the following passage.
From schoolchildren to weekend quarterbacks, from doctors to lawyers, from entrepreneurs to politicians, from the YMCA to the World Cup, sport permeates modern society. Sport is encouraged as a good thing, but it is fraught with problems. Violence in modern sport ranges from brutality on the field to riots in the stands and the streets. Sport is big business for the media and the stars, and franchises and stadiums affect the political and economic life of cities. Our modern vocabulary is rich in sporting imagery: home run, strike out, knockout, air ball, fumble, hat trick, Hail Mary, and more. The annual calendar of the United States is marked by sporting seasons, by opening day and the playoffs, with the championships of major sports as high holy days. In an age of high-definition big screen televisions and satellite broadcasts, we still talk of traditions, legends of the game, and the good old days.
Kyle, D.G. Sport and Spectacle in the Ancient World. John Wiley & Sons, Inc., 2015. (p. 31).
24. This passage is primarily concerned with
(A) proposing that sports should not be viewed from only a positive perspective.
(B) refuting an argument that sports should only be viewed from a positive perspective.
(C) explaining that sport permeates modern society and, while that is primarily viewed in a positive light, there are also many negative effects.
(D) summarizing how sport is seen in modern society.
(E) anticipating an argument against the viewpoint that the positives of sport outweigh the negative.
25. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?
(A) Sport has no discernible effect on the development of modern culture.
(B) While sport is seen in mostly a positive light, the negative side of the argument encompasses both violence and commercialization.
(C) The negative aspects of sports should be overlooked for the traditions and legendary aspects that make people feel good about past accomplishments.
(D) Modern culture disagrees considerably about whether sport influences society in a positive way.
(E) How sport is viewed is left to the individual and no real effect is seen on most of modern culture.
Questions 26–29 refer to the following passage.
Given what has been said about the relationship between energy consumption and economic development, it follows that the energy intensity of countries varies in large part in relation to the level of economic development (measured as GDP) or the UNDP’s Human Development Index (HDI). Just as there are huge variations in the level of wealth and income across the globe, so there are variations in the level of energy consumption. According to Gaye, “on average, the poorest 2.5 billion people in the world use only 0.2 toe per capita annually, while the billion richest people use 5 toe per capita a year, which is 25 times more.” At present, about 2.5 billion people, mostly in developing countries, still rely on traditional biomass fuels for cooking and 1.6 billion people lack access to electricity. Thus, the lack of access to energy services — energy poverty — is seen as a key aspect of the development challenge and it highlights the fact that the relationship between energy and development is very different across the countries and regions that comprise the global energy system.
Bradshaw, M. Global Energy Dilemmas. Polity Press, 2014. (p. 12).
26. Which of the following conclusions is best supported by the passage?
(A) Scientists and economics still disagree about the connection between energy consumption and economic development.
(B) The energy consumption of countries can be directly related to the wealth and income of the people who reside there.
(C) The variations between the GDP and the HDI are too great for any real correlations to be found.
(D) The people who live in the poorest areas of the world do not have access to proper energy systems.
(E) The richest people in the world extravagantly use the best forms of energy development while the poorest people across the globe suffer from energy poverty.
27. According to the passage, people in developing countries
(A) often lack access to electricity and have to rely on biomass fuel options.
(B) are energy poor because they do not spend money on proper energy development options.
(C) rely on the largesse of wealthier inhabitants of their country to provide for energy needs.
(D) will always be kept in energy poverty because the richest people have a monopoly on better energy options.
(E) rely on traditional energy methods more in line with cultural norms rather than embracing new options of energy development.
28. “Energy poverty” refers to
(A) a lack of interest in the development of alternate energy sources.
(B) a lack of resources for proper energy development.
(C) a lack of access to money that can bring about development of energy options.
(D) a lack of access to money that can purchase better energy options.
(E) a lack of access to energy.
29. The author talks about the energy intensity variations among countries in order to
(A) explain why so many of the world’s poorest people have a lack of energy development.
(B) reinforce the idea that energy development will cost huge amounts of money.
(C) challenge the assumption that richer people have better lives.
(D) compare the huge discrepancies of energy consumption between the richest and poorest people in the world.
(E) dispel the notion that some parts of the world provide a better condition of living than others.
Questions 30–32 refer to the following passage.
In those times and places where the pressures on men to join the military have been social rather than legal, the costs of not enlisting have been either shame or ostracism. It may be hard for people in contemporary western societies to understand how powerful those forces have been in other contexts. However, young men, and even boys, have felt, and been made to feel, that their manhood is impugned if they fail to enlist. In other words, they would be cowards if they failed to respond to the call to arms. Women, oblivious to their own privilege in being exempt from such pressures and expectations, have sometimes taken a lead in shaming men who they thought should already have volunteered.
Benatar, D. The Second Sexism. John Wiley & Sons, Inc., 2012. (p. 27).
30. The passage provides information for answering most fully which of the following questions?
(A) At what times and places in history has there been the most pressure on men to join the military?
(B) Why is it so hard for people in contemporary western societies to understand a reluctance to serve in the military?
(C) What kinds of men are reluctant to join the military and why do others seem to relish the experience?
(D) How does not joining the military on a volunteer basis affect men?
(E) Why are women exempt from the same pressures put on men to join the military?
31. Which of the following best summarizes the main idea of the passage?
(A) If men or boys choose not to join the military, there are clear effects from a societal and personal perspective.
(B) Being a woman is a privilege because women don’t have to be held accountable to the same standard as men in regard to military service.
(C) Contemporary western society places great pressure on men and boys to join the military.
(D) Men or boys who do not join the military will have a loss of self-esteem directly connected to their sense of “manhood.”
(E) Contemporary western military suffers because of a general reluctance of modern men and boys to voluntarily join the service.
32. Why does the author mention the treatment of women who choose not to join the military?
(A) to provide further examples of bias against those who choose not to voluntarily enlist in the military
(B) to suggest that women are held in a higher esteem than men
(C) to identify reasons as to why men are held more accountable for voluntary military service
(D) to explain why modern society places such a high value on heroism and military service
(E) to illustrate key differences in the treatment of women and men in regard to voluntary military service
Questions 33 and 34 refer to the following passage.
The bodily privacy of females is valued more than the bodily privacy of males. In many places and times this imposes a disadvantage on females who are required to cover their bodies more extensively than men are. For example, in some places women are required to cover themselves from head to toe in a burqa, while no comparable restriction is placed on males. However, the greater value placed on the shielding of the female body from view has some significant disadvantages for males, who are more likely to be subjected by society to unwanted invasions of their bodily privacy. In other words, whereas females are sometimes forced to cover up their bodies, men are sometimes forced to uncover their bodies. Consider, for example, the differential treatment of male and female prisoners, most especially in the context of cross-gender supervision. Many countries require that prison guards are the same sex as the prisoners they are guarding. There are exceptions to this trend, and the United States is one notable case. Male guards are found in female prisons and female guards are found in male prisons. In some cases, guards who are not of the same sex as the prisoners are restricted from some functions within the prison in order to protect the prisoners from undue invasion of their bodily privacy by guards of the opposite sex. Often these measures do not grant complete protection.
Benatar, D. The Second Sexism. John Wiley & Sons, Inc., 2012. (p. 54).
33. This passage is primarily concerned with
(A) equally valuing men’s and women’s right to privacy where the personal body is concerned.
(B) exposing unfair treatment received by males at prisons.
(C) detailing ways in which men are more disadvantaged when it comes to a lack of respect of bodily privacy.
(D) explaining why women are often treated better in prisons than men are.
(E) debasing women who do not value the higher respect they are given in society in regard to their personal body privacy.
34. The author mentions “burqas” in order to emphasize an area in which
(A) males are more disadvantaged than females when it comes to bodily privacy in certain situations.
(B) females are more disadvantaged than males when it comes to bodily privacy in certain situations.
(C) males and females are equally disadvantaged when it comes to bodily privacy.
(D) some segments of society are more negatively discriminated against when it comes to bodily privacy due to cultural biases.
(E) religion places undue rigors on females in order to level the playing field for male discrimination.
Questions 35–39 refer to the following passage.
People have surely been enjoying stories based on history since the first tales were told around fires in the night. Sometimes the stories are true, or at least as true as people can make them. Sometimes they are improved through creativity, adding elements that did not happen, or even could not happen. In our cultures, the oldest surviving stories were written down with huge doses of imagination. The first such story to survive was The Epic of Gilgamesh, which told of the founding king of Uruk in ancient Mesopotamia. King Gilgamesh not only interacted with gods and goddesses but, being partly divine, had superhuman strength himself. The Iliad and The Odyssey, the two ancient Greek epic poems traditionally attributed to Homer, centered around what was believed to have been a historical conflict in a very distant past: the Trojan War. The heroes of these epics, Achilles and Odysseus (or Ulysses, by his Latinized name), possessed respectively strength and intelligence within human capacity, although the narratives also included divine beings and dangerous monsters who wielded powers far greater than mere mortals. Today we call such stories “myths,” even if they refer to events that may have happened and the characters in them might once have been living people. But for the listeners entertained by these stories, the tales held truth.
Pavlac, B. A. Game of Thrones Versus History. John Wiley & Sons, Inc., 2017. (p. 1).
35. The passage suggests which of the following?
(A) Myths are based solely on imagination and contain no truth.
(B) Myths are retellings of famous events from history.
(C) Myths are likely true, but have changed so much over time that no hint of truth actually remain in the stories.
(D) The only myths that can be categorized as containing some elements of truth are those from reputable sources, such as Odysseus or Achilles.
(E) Myths likely started as true stories or stories with some truth, but creativity has changed the tales over time so that no one really knows what is truth and what is imagination.
36. According to the passage, people are entertained by myths because
(A) they are a traditional form of storytelling.
(B) the stories make man look larger than life and the events take on a more heroic perspective.
(C) they are good to tell around a campfire because they have elements of excitement.
(D) they glorify man’s achievement.
(E) they keep alive stories about our most famous heroes.
37. According to the passage, The Epic of Gilgamesh differs from The Iliad and The Odyssey in that The Epic of Gilgamesh was
(A) written earlier, and was therefore a purer form of myth.
(B) more historically accurate.
(C) followed the traditional mythical genre more closely.
(D) not meant to be read as truth.
(E) contained more imaginative aspects with less reliance on historical accuracy.
38. The passage is primarily concerned with
(A) questioning the accuracy of new information when combined with old understandings about myths.
(B) providing an assessment of the veracity of certain myths.
(C) discussing the classification of mythical genres.
(D) evaluating the process modern literature enthusiasts use to distinguish myths from historical fiction.
(E) illustrating the difficulties faced when attempting to differentiate what is truth and what is fiction in ancient myths.
39. The author’s allusion to “epic poems” references
(A) poems that were longer than other stories and, thus, were more likely to be true.
(B) works that are more impressive than those of any other ancient writer of that time period.
(C) stories that were written in a specific format of poetry.
(D) poems that are not known to have been definitively written by Homer, but are attributed to him.
(E) works that were much more outstanding in their literary scope than other works during that time, such as the tale of Gilgamesh.
Questions 40–42 refer to the following diagram.
Bradshaw, M. Global Energy Dilemmas. Polity Press, 2014. (p. 7).
40. The diagram supports which of the following statements? Select all that apply.
(A) Biomass has remained at a relatively stable usage throughout the years.
(B) The usage of biomass varies according to the usage of other fuel forms.
(C) When other fuels forms were invented or came into more usage, biomass usage decreased.
41. The diagram supports which of the following statements? Select all that apply.
(A) The introduction of alternative fuel sources has increased dramatically during recent times.
(B) The sale and usage of fossil fuels, such as coal and crude oil, have been negatively impacted by alternative fuel sources.
(C) Except for biomass, usage of all fuel types has increased more during the last 40–50 years than in the previous century.
42. During which time period did nuclear energy see the greatest usage? Write your answer in the space provided.
Questions 43–48 refer to the following passages.
Passage 1
Decades of war in medieval Europe created a multitude of widows and many found themselves remarried, with or without their consent. Elizabeth Woodville, for instance, was the widow of a Lancastrian knight before becoming the wife of the Yorkist king, Edward IV. Roughly a decade later, Edward’s brother Richard married Lady Anne Neville (1456–1485), who was previously married to the son of the Lancastrian king, Henry VI (r. 1422–1461; 1471). Unlike Elizabeth, Anne was from a prominent noble family, with a massive dowry and substantial landholdings in the north of England. Some chroniclers even hinted that Anne’s money and family influence made it possible for Richard to claim the throne later.
Pavlac, B. A. Game of Thrones Versus History. John Wiley & Sons, Inc., 2017. (p. 21).
Passage 2
A queen’s position, while potentially powerful, was by no means invulnerable. Many kings found excuses to rid themselves of unwanted wives. Most infamous is Henry VIII of England (r. 1509–1547) with his six wives; but he was far from being the first. In 1483, just before he inherited the throne, Charles VIII of France (r. 1483–1498) was betrothed to Margaret of Austria (1480–1530), who was only three years old at the time. She came to the French court as a child and grew up there. In the autumn of 1491, however, Charles repudiated the betrothal and married instead Duchess Anne of Brittany (1477–1514), for blatantly political reasons.
Pavlac, B. A. Game of Thrones Versus History. John Wiley & Sons, Inc., 2017. (p. 26).
43. Which best describes the relationship between the two passages?
(A) Passage 2 qualifies the main argument in Passage 1.
(B) Passage 2 provides a counterargument to the claims made in Passage 1.
(C) Passages 2 offers an application of the theory that is presented in Passage 1.
(D) Passage 2 provides a solution to a problem described in Passage 1.
(E) Passage 2 emphasizes further the claim made in Passage 1 by providing additional examples.
44. Both passages are primarily concerned with
(A) methods of acquiring wealth and power used by medieval European women.
(B) objectives of medieval European women in acquiring wealthy and powerful husbands.
(C) the value placed on wealth and power during times of war.
(D) the effectiveness of the social structures in regards to wealth and position.
(E) the role of wealth in determining women’s social status for medieval European women.
45. Passage 1 and Passage 2 agree that
(A) male attitudes about wealth were directly influenced by powerful women.
(B) female attitudes about marriage were directly influenced by the wealth of a potential mate.
(C) women’s life situations were a consequence of male attitudes.
(D) men’s life situations were a consequence of female attitudes.
(E) decision making in marriage during medieval times was greatly influenced by wealth and power.
46. The author of Passage 1 presents the claim that
(A) wealthy and powerful women could dictate their future courses, in regard to marriage.
(B) men only married to gain wealth or power.
(C) only when women achieved a high-ranking status, such as queen, could she be sure of directing her future course.
(D) even powerful women, such as queens, had little say over their own future courses.
(E) women had little to no say about their future courses, in regard to marriage.
A queen’s position, while potentially powerful, was by no means invulnerable. Many kings found excuses to rid themselves of unwanted wives. Most infamous is Henry VIII of England (r. 1509–1547) with his six wives; but he was far from being the first. In 1483, just before he inherited the throne, Charles VIII of France (r. 1483–1498) was betrothed to Margaret of Austria (1480–1530), who was only three years old at the time. She came to the French court as a child and grew up there. In the autumn of 1491, however, Charles repudiated the betrothal and married instead Duchess Anne of Brittany (1477–1514), for blatantly political reasons.
47. In the underlined sentence of the preceding paragraph, the author does which of the following?
(A) introduces a new concept
(B) makes a concession
(C) introduces a digression
(D) anticipates an objection
(E) outlines a proposal
48. From Passage 2, the word “repudiated” most nearly means
(A) accepted
(B) reproved
(C) rescinded
(D) divorced
(E) acknowledged
Questions 49–51 refer to the following passage.
What a great idea! Game of Thrones versus history. Historians are storytellers, and the best historians, like the best storytellers, have ways of making their subject matter come to life. The challenge for the historian in the classroom is to find a hook or produce an example that will speak to a captive audience of students. It’s particularly effective when a teacher can start from something everyone thinks they know to be true, and then proceed to show that it wasn’t exactly true. Something like “people think Columbus believed the earth was flat, but really he knew it was round.” In this sense, a negative example can be just as effective as a positive example.
Pavlac, B. A. Game of Thrones Versus History. John Wiley & Sons, Inc., 2017. (p. xiii).
49. The author’s main purpose is to
(A) underscore history in a desire to incorporate more popular culture.
(B) explain differences in perception between traditional history teachers and nontraditional history teachers.
(C) defend a position taken by a portion of traditionalists.
(D) propose a creative approach for teaching history.
(E) admonish naysayers to accept a nontraditional approach to the teaching of history.
50. The example given primarily demonstrates
(A) an overload of irrelevant information an inexperienced teacher might use when introducing a new topic.
(B) ongoing cultural truisms that are being absorbed by historical teaching.
(C) interconnections between historical teachings and interdisciplinary content.
(D) connections between false facts and teaching opportunities.
(E) difficulties in continuing traditional history teaching methodologies.
51. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely support which of the following teaching practices?
(A) examining Destiny’s Child’s Independent Women in close reading, taking notes on lyrics, costumes, dancing, and more
(B) comparing the lyrics in a Lady Gaga song to a Robert Frost poem
(C) parodying a famous scientific event in a student-produced drama
(D) rewriting the lyrics of a song from the perspective of a famous person
(E) having students create fictitious Facebook or Twitter accounts using actual facts from the life of a historical person
Questions 52–56 refer to the following passage.
One reason the story of patriarchal oppression has become so influential is that it has been disseminated in recent textbooks. The editor of a reader designed to illustrate The Cultural Identity of Seventeenth-Century Woman, for instance, states flatly that “Woman’s place was within doors, her business domestic … Women of evident intelligence themselves accepted this divorce between the private (feminine) and public (masculine) spheres and, despite the recent precedents of Mary Queen of Scots, Mary Tudor and Elizabeth, they shared the age’s “distaste … for the notion of women’s involvement in politics.” However, even the most sophisticated scholarship often includes similar claims.
For example, in what is likely to become a standard history of gender in early modern England, Anthony Fletcher writes, “It was conventional, as we have seen, to assume men and women had clearly defined gender roles indoors and out of doors … Femininity, as we have seen, was presented as no more than a set of negatives. The requirement of chastity was, as we have seen, the overriding measure of female gender. Woman not only had to be chaste but had to be seen to be chaste: silence, humility and modesty were the signifiers that she was so.”
Callaghan, D. A Feminist Companion to Shakespeare. John Wiley & Sons, Ltd., 2016. (p. 60–1).
52. This passage is primarily concerned with which of the following?
(A) how women have been subjugated because of patriarchal oppression
(B) an explanation involving many reasons why patriarchal oppression is tolerated
(C) how some women rose above the oppressive influences of their day in order to achieve glory and honor
(D) the definition of conventional understandings regarding woman’s place in the home
(E) a discussion of how the ideas of femininity have changed over time
53. The author mentions “the recent precedents” of Mary, Queen of Scots, and Mary Tudor and Elizabeth in order to give examples of
(A) powerful women who still could not escape patriarchal ideas of what the ideal female should be.
(B) trendsetters of powerful, yet feminine, women.
(C) women who became the historical standards of gender.
(D) models of women who were chaste, humble, silent, and modest.
(E) examples of matriarchal oppression.
54. Which of the following results of patriarchal oppression is NOT mentioned in the passage?
(A) a concern with domestic business
(B) a cultural identity focused on masculine approval
(C) a narrow focus on political matters to only include acceptable topics as deemed suitable
(D) an eschewing of evidence of intelligence
(E) a clearly defined, yet negative, gender role
55. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s claims?
(A) Upper-class women were likely very highly educated and would learn to read and write, as well as speak multiple languages.
(B) During the 17th century, many women worked spinning cloth and were dyers, milliners, and embroiderers.
(C) A common job for women during this time period was to serve as a domestic servant.
(D) Women were often left as a sole beneficiary in a will so they could continue a husband’s business when he died.
(E) Women during this time period were required to have extensive knowledge of medicine and many became apothecaries and midwives.
56. It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes which of the following about male oppression?
(A) Male oppression had a proper time and place in history, but times are better now.
(B) Women still continue to suffer from patriarchal oppression.
(C) The oppression of the day only affected matters pertaining to domestic instances and larger effects were short-lived.
(D) Such oppression permeated the history and culture of the time period.
(E) Women allowed the oppression and, had they been stronger, could have stood up for themselves.
Part 2: Writing
1. While many praised the efforts of the protestors, several of the 
, such as the 
, felt they 
when they blocked the city buses from exiting the compound and caused delays in 
routes. 
.
2. However 
Senator Scott was, she couldn’t agree with the proposed 
rather, the bill’s premise was sure to cause 
that couldn’t be supported by either side 
. 
.
3. Neither Oliver nor Emily believed 
the award 
countless hours went into the work and the unlimited 
a 
not available to others. 
.
4. All of the students wanted to become 
of the ROTC after the school 
patriotic duty, 
the drama club members 
immune to such tactics. 
.
5. The Savannah College of Art and Design 
a private university with locations in Savannah and Atlanta, 
and China and 
affords fine arts degrees in both 
programs. 
.
6. 
the 
from the 
, Maude spent the better part of her evening 
so the addition could be added to the store’s inventory first thing in the morning. 
.
7. The 
location on the Pacific Ring of Fire makes it more prone to earthquakes, an event that hardly encourages 
in tourism, 
make it home to some of the 
greatest biodiversity. 
.
8. Alexander Hamilton 
conservative nationalist and traditionalist economic supporter, but Hamilton 
during his time as a radical and rebellious leader 
strongly against the more conformist ideas of government. 
.
9. Although Sierra Leone has experienced 
upheavals and decimations of parts of 
infrastructure because of war and an Ebola 
, a new parliamentary government has brought some stability to the 
African nation. 
.
10. Both Juan and Mary 
the budget meeting where the new merger 
, but neither Juan nor 
could understand where the funds 
from. 
.
11. After 
with her English degree, Stephanie looked forward to a life full of choices, 
law, teaching at the local community college, and 
to become a trial attorney. 
.
12. During the Great Molasses Flood of 1919
thousands of people were forced 
Boston’s North 
nd when a large molasses storage tank 
, creating a wave of molasses that rushed through the streets, killing or injuring more than 170 people. 
.
13. Although Susan 
a close 
her brother John, the 
her twin sister was 
and caused much confusion. 
.
14. 
the front lawn on the hot summer day, the garter snake 
on the dry patch of grass became alarmed and 
away to safety. 
.
15. Both 
were 
to the proposals 
by their constituents, which delayed the vote and eliminated the 
the reform becoming permanent. 
.
16. Because of Sri’s high scoring performance on the ACT and SAT, 
on the verbal reasoning 
, he was 
to be able to choose 
Princeton, Harvard, and Stanford. 
.
17. Edgar Cayce, a Christian mystic 
prophetic questions while under a trance, 
during his lifetime for his psychic abilities and 
for a time as a 
stage hypnotist. 
.
18. Odysseus, also known by the Latin 
, was a legendary Greek king who wandered the world for ten years after the Trojan 
ar before returning 
he has become a modern symbol for man’s insatiable craving for new experiences and inability to commit to a cemented lifestyle. 
.
19. The island 
tate of Tasmania, located across the Bass Strait from Australia and the 
largest island in the world, 
the only place in the world where the Tasmanian devil 
in the wild. 
.
20. Ronald McDonald is a name now associated as much with fun and humor as with cheap food, an image that has grown bigger than the symbol of the clown itself.
(A) than the symbol of the clown itself
(B) than itself the symbol of the clown
(C) than the symbol itself of the clown
(D) than the symbol of the clown
(E) than the symbol of the itself clown
21. Considered to be one of the greatest painters of all time, Leonardo Da Vinci, who is considered the father of architecture, ichnology, and paleontology, likely also invented the parachute, adding machine, and flying vehicles.
(A) who is considered the father of architecture, ichnology, and paleontology, likely also invented
(B) who is also considered the father of architecture, ichnology, and paleontology, he likely also invented
(C) considered the father of architecture, ichnology, and paleontology, likely also inventing
(D) having long been considered the father of architecture, ichnology, and paleontology, likely also to invent
(E) was considered the father of architecture, ichnology, and paleontology, and likely also invented
22. Technology has finally invaded the home and can give homeowners a more convenient lifestyle with robotic vacuum cleaners, computerized personal assistance, and the ability to secure and manage energy and electricity while away from home; all the while saving homeowners money and giving them peace of mind.
(A) and the ability to secure and manage energy and electricity while away from home; all the while saving
(B) and the ability to secure and manage energy and electricity while away from home all the while saving
(C) and the ability to secure and manage energy and electricity while away from home, all the while savings
(D) and the ability to secure and manage energy and electricity while away from home, all the while saving
(E) and securing and managing energy and electricity while away from home; all the while saved
23. Having received more Emmy Awards than any other primetime scripted TV series, HBO’s Game of Thrones has reached an international fan base and even been acclaimed by the toughest critics for production, writing, and acting.
(A) HBO’s Game of Thrones has reached an international fan base and even been acclaimed
(B) HBO’s Game of Thrones has reached an international fan base because of acclaiming
(C) HBO’s Game of Thrones, which has reached in international fan base, having been acclaimed
(D) HBO’s Game of Thrones’ reaching an international fan base to acclaim
(E) HBO’s Game of Thrones has reached an international fan base and has even been acclaimed
24. The International Ice Patrol tracks icebergs globally, a practice that allows the monitoring of their origins and other ocean processes.
(A) The International Ice Patrol tracks icebergs globally, a practice that allows the monitoring of their origins and other ocean processes.
(B) Icebergs being tracked globally by the International Ice Patrol is a practice that allows the monitoring of their origins and other ocean processes.
(C) The International Ice Patrol can track icebergs globally, a practice that allows the monitoring of icebergs’ origins and other ocean processes.
(D) By tracking icebergs globally, the International Ice Patrol is allowed to monitor their origins and processes.
(E) Tracking icebergs globally, the monitoring of their origins and other ocean processes by the International Ice Patrol is allowed.
25. Basil, commonly used in traditional Italian recipes, has a rich history of folklore and has been historically used to safeguard against scorpions and protecting against danger for those undertaking a journey.
(A) protecting against danger for those undertaking
(B) protecting against danger in those who undertake
(C) to protect against danger for those undertaking
(D) to protect against danger when they are undertaking
(E) to protect against danger when they undertake
26. If visitors were to travel to the most eastern part of the western world, they would find themselves at Ilomantsi, Finland: a location sharing a 60-mile border with the Russian Republic of Karelia.
(A) If visitors were to travel to the most eastern part of the western world, they would find themselves at Ilomantsi, Finland: a location sharing a 60-mile border with the Russian Republic of Karelia.
(B) If visitors were to travel to the most eastern part of the western world, they would find themselves at Ilomantsi, Finland, a location sharing a 60-mile border with the Russian Republic of Karelia.
(C) If visitors were to travel to the most eastern part of the western world, they would find themselves at a location sharing a 60-mile border with the Russian Republic of Karelia, Ilomantsi, Finland.
(D) When arriving at Ilomantsi, Finland, visitors would find they have traveled to the most eastern part of the western world, the 60-mile border of the Russian Republic of Karelia.
(E) The 60-mile border of the Russian Republic of Karelia and Ilomantsi, Finland, is where visitors would find themselves if they were to travel to the eastern part of the western world.
27. Totem poles, monumental sculptures of Northwest Coast art, symbolized and commemorated cultural beliefs, some of which recounted familiar legends and others describing notable events.
(A) some of which recounted
(B) some of which had the ability to recount
(C) and some of which recounted
(D) some recounting
(E) some of which recounting
28. Anglerfishes, one of the world’s most unusual fish, are known for the fleshy growth that hangs from their head and acts as lure and including the luminescent lantern located at the tip of their dorsal fin.
(A) and including
(B) as well as
(C) inclusive of
(D) and
(E) plus
29. Finishing her calculus homework containing more than 72 problems, a long and pleasurable night of relaxation in a tub with a good book was most on Amy’s mind.
(A) a long and pleasurable night of relaxation in a tub with a good book was most on Amy’s mind.
(B) Amy’s mind was most on a long and pleasurable night of relaxation in a tub.
(C) Amy filled her mind with thoughts of a long and pleasurable night of relaxation in a tub with a good book.
(D) relaxation in a tub with a good book during a long and pleasurable night was most on Amy’s mind.
(E) a long and pleasurable night of relaxation in a tub with a good book was foremost in the mind of Amy.
30. Gal Gadot, star of 2017’s multi-million-dollar Wonder Woman, was training for months in the physical requirements of the film, including choreography with swords, kicks, jumping, and horseback riding.
(A) was training for months in the physical requirements
(B) was training for months for the physical requirements
(C) having been trained for months for the physical requirements
(D) had trained for months for the physical requirements
(E) has trained for the physical requirements for months
31. Which is the best version of the underlined portion of Sentence 1 (reproduced below)?
Fifty years ago, a port was a docking place for a seagoing vessel, while, today, a port is where a hand-held digital device is docked.
(A) No change.
(B) however
(C) for example
(D) consequently
(E) on the other hand
32. Which is the best version of the underlined portion of Sentences 3 and 4 (reproduced below)?
The only difference is the product. Goods are made cheaper, distributed quicker, and sold before the blink of an eye.
(A) No change.
(B) product. They make goods
(C) product, making the goods
(D) product; they made goods
(E) product; they made the goods
33. Where would the following sentence best be inserted?
The digital revolution is creating change in every part of society, from the foods that people eat to the patterns of daily communication.
(A) immediately after Sentence 3
(B) immediately after Sentence 4
(C) immediately after Sentence 6
(D) immediately after Sentence 7
(E) immediately before Sentence 9
34. What is the best way to deal with Sentence 9 (reproduced below)?
The American government originally used such technological advances to fight terrorism, but now finds it just as easy to use that same technology to, for all practical purposes, spy on its own citizens.
(A) No change.
(B) Move it to the end of the passage.
(C) Replace “The American government” with “Those who make policies for government.”
(D) Replace “for all practical purposes” with “in effect.”
(E) Replace “spy” with “snoop”
35. What is the best way to deal with Sentence 10 (reproduced below)?
It doesn’t stop there, though, since they use that same technology and sell the data to companies who use the algorithms in an almost prompt data analysis that pushes product across the cyber desk.
(A) Replace “sell” with “offer.”
(B) Replace “data” with “statistics.”
(C) Replace “prompt” with “instantaneous.”
(D) Move it to immediately after Sentence 12.
(E) Delete it from the passage.
36. In context, which of the following revisions of Sentence 14 (reproduced below) is most needed?
This lowered cost of doing business benefits everyone involved, provided the virtual net doesn’t entirely collapse.
(A) Replace “This” with “This practice.”
(B) Replace “benefits” with “profits.”
(C) Replace “everyone involved” with “major shareholders.”
(D) Move “entirely” to after “collapse”.
(E) Replace “provided” with “so long as.”
37. Davison, Scott. “Virtue and Violence: Can a Good Football Player Be a Good Person?” The Philosophy of Popular Culture: Football and the Philosophy Going Deep. Lexington, Kentucky: University Press of Kentucky, 2008. Print.
In the preceding citation, the first reference to Kentucky indicates the
(A) business address of the author.
(B) scholarly affiliation of the publisher.
(C) location of the football games being described in the article.
(D) repository of the philosophical works referred to.
(E) location of the publisher.
38. Which of the following is a primary source for an article on the life of Hillary Rodham Clinton?
(A) A television documentary describing her time as the First Lady
(B) A newspaper report documenting her rise from lawyer to Secretary of State
(C) A book written by her husband, Bill Clinton
(D) A script of a speech that she wrote and delivered to the UN while running for president
(E) A memoir written by her bodyguard
39. A student wants to write an article on spring fashion lines. All of the following topics would narrow the focus of the subject EXCEPT
(A) models showcasing the fashion on runways
(B) the direction of a designer when choosing prints and fabrics
(C) a discussion on the changes in style from winter to spring
(D) an analysis of spring fashion trends and profitability
(E) an analysis of recent cover pages of fashion magazines
40. Which of the following parts of a research paper contains a brief summary of the work at the beginning of the paper and is used to help the reader quickly ascertain the paper’s purpose?
(A) bibliography
(B) abstract
(C) outline
(D) preface
(E) table of contents
Argumentative Essay
Source-Based Essay
Source 1
Adapted from: Singer, Peter. “All Animals are Equal.” Environmental Ethics. Ed. Michael Boylan. Princeton, NJ: John Wiley & Sons, Inc. 2014. Print.
The life of every human being is sacred. Yet people who would say this about the infant do not object to the killing of nonhuman animals. How can they justify their different judgments? Adult chimpanzees, dogs, pigs, and members of many other species far surpass the brain-damaged infant in their ability to relate to others, act independently, be self-aware, and any other capacity that could reasonably be said to give value to life. With the most intensive care possible, some severely retarded infants can never achieve the intelligence level of a dog. Nor can we appeal to the concern of the infant’s parents, since they themselves, in this imaginary example (and in some actual cases) do not want the infant kept alive. The only thing that distinguishes the infant from the animal, in the eyes of those who claim it has a “right to life,” is that it is, biologically, a member of the species Homo sapiens, whereas chimpanzees, dogs, and pigs are not. But to use this difference as the basis for granting a right to life to the infant and not to the other animals is, of course, pure speciesism. It is exactly the kind of arbitrary difference that the most crude and overt kind of racist uses in attempting to justify racial discrimination.
Source 2
Adapted from: Regan, Tom. “The Radical Egalitarian Case for Animals Rights.” Environmental Ethics. Ed. Michael Boylan. Princeton, NJ: John Wiley & Sons, Inc. 2014. Print.
What’s wrong — what’s fundamentally wrong — with the way animals are treated isn’t the details that vary from case to case. It’s the whole system. The forlornness of the veal calf is pathetic — heart wrenching; the pulsing pain of the chimp with electrodes planted deep in her brain is repulsive; the slow, torturous death of the raccoon caught in the leg hold trap, agonizing. But what is fundamentally wrong isn’t the pain, isn’t the suffering, isn’t the deprivation. These compound what’s wrong. Sometimes — often — they make it much worse. But they are not the fundamental wrong. The fundamental wrong is the system that allows us to view animals as our resources, here for us — to be eaten, or surgically manipulated, or put in our cross-hairs for sport or money. Once we accept this view of animals — as our resources — the rest is as predictable as it is regrettable. Why worry about their loneliness, their pain, their death? Since animals exist for us, here to benefit us in one way or another, what harms them really doesn’t matter — or matters only if it starts to bother us, makes us feel a trifle uneasy when we eat our veal scampi, for example. So, yes, let us get veal calves out of solitary confinement, give them more space, a little straw, a few companions. But let us keep our veal scampi.
Inherent value, then, belongs equally to those who are the experiencing subjects of a life. Whether it belongs to others — to rocks and rivers, trees and glaciers, for example — we do not know. And may never know. But neither do we need to know, if we are to make the case for animal rights. We do not need to know how many people, for example, are eligible to vote in the next presidential election before we can know whether I am. Similarly, we do not need to know how many individuals have inherent value before we can know that some do. When it comes to the case for animal rights, then what we need to know is whether the animals who, in our culture are routinely eaten, hunted, and used in our laboratories, for example, are like us in being subjects of a life. And we do know this. We do know that many — literally, billions and billions — of these animals are subjects of a life in the sense explained and so have inherent value if we do. And since, in order to have the best theory of our duties to one another, we must recognize our equal inherent value, as individuals, reason — not sentiment, not emotion — reason compels us to recognize the equal inherent value of these animals. And, with this, their equal right to be treated with respect.
Part 3: Mathematics
1. The above figure is composed of five segments that together form three triangles. What is the value of u in the figure?
(A) 43
(B) 49
(C) 84
(D) 96
(E) 137
9.8 10.0 8.6 9.1 8.8
2. Joey received the above scores for events in a wingsuit flying acrobatics competition. He has one event remaining. What is the lowest score he can receive for the final event to have a mean score of at least 9.2?
(A) 8.5
(B) 8.9
(C) 9.0
(D) 9.3
(E) 9.7
3. Which of the following is a factor of the numerator of the simplified form of the product of 
and 
?
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 12
(D) 18
(E) 21
4. The above equation is a true statement. Which of the following is equal to the value of 3 times the variable r that is in the equation?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
5. In which year represented in the above line graph did Rigell Elementary School have the biggest drop in brownies sold at their bake sale from the previous year?
(A) 2013
(B) 2014
(C) 2015
(D) 2016
(E) 2017
6. For the above system of equations, if the value of z is the cube of 3, which of the following is the value of xy?
(A) 9
(B) 16
(C) 27
(D) 36
(E) 81
7. James conducted a survey at a university to determine the most popular political party affiliation at the university. He conducted the entire survey at a meeting of the Campus Libertarians, a group of students who are members of the Libertarian Party. Which of the following statements about the survey is correct?
Select all such statements.
(A) The survey method is a proper procedure for determining the most popular political party affiliation at the university because all political parties are most likely proportionally represented at the Campus Libertarians’ meetings.
(B) The survey method is NOT a proper procedure for determining the most popular political party affiliation at the university because only the Campus Republicans would be likely to work as a representative sample of the entire campus.
(C) The survey method is a proper procedure for determining the most popular political party affiliation at the university because all of the people surveyed would likely be students of the university.
(D) The survey method is NOT a proper procedure for determining the most popular political party affiliation at the university because the group surveyed is Libertarian and would work as a sample that only or mostly represents Libertarian Party affiliation.
(E) The survey method is NOT a proper procedure for determining the most popular political party affiliation at the university because political parties other than the Libertarian Party would not be likely to be represented by the sample.
8. Mike’s Tennis Company sells tennis balls in containers that contain 3 balls each. If Gertrude needs 100 tennis balls from Mike’s Tennis Company for a tournament at her sports club, how many containers does she need to order?
(A) 32
(B) 33
(C) 
(D) 34
(E) 
9. What is the cube of the number of yards in the diameter of a sphere that has a volume of 
cubic yards?
(A) 27
(B) 64
(C) 100
(D) 125
(E) 1,000
10. Which value of j will give the above expression a value of –478?
(A) –14
(B) –11
(C) 11
(D) 12
(E) 14
11. If the value of w in the above equation is increased by 34.5 percent, which of the following correctly expresses the resulting value in scientific notation?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
12. On a map of Poseyville that is drawn to scale, one inch represents 2.4 miles. Gracyn drives from her house in Poseyville to a grocery store that is 7.8 miles away and in the same town. She then drives back to her house. If Gracyn uses a pen to trace only her driving on the map, how far does she move her pen?
(A) 3.25 inches
(B) 4.8 inches
(C) 6.5 inches
(D) 3.25 miles
(E) 6.5 miles
13. With a and b having the same values they have in the above equation, which of the following is equal to 
?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
14. Which of the following is closest to the mean tail length of house cats?
(A) 3 inches
(B) 
(C) 64 inches
(D) 
(E) 12 feet
15. The triangle in the above diagram is rotated 
about the origin of the coordinate plane. Which of the following points is on the interior of the triangle after the rotation?
(A) (2, 3)
(B) (4, –5)
(C) (0, 2)
(D) (–2, –3)
(E) (1, 2)
16. The sum of two consecutive even integers is 4 less than 3 times the lower integer. What is the higher integer?
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 14
(E) 22
17. What is the greatest common factor of the two following described values?
- The least common multiple of 8 and 10
- The greatest common factor of 84 and 72
- Indicate your answer in the space provided.
18. All of the board members at a meeting are from New Jersey, Connecticut, or Mississippi. The name of each member is on one piece of paper in a hat, and the board director is going to randomly pick one piece of paper from the hat. If the probability that he will choose the name of a board member from Mississippi is 
and 15 of the board members are from Mississippi, how many board members are at the meeting?
(A) 16
(B) 24
(C) 30
(D) 48
(E) 64
19. For the above equation, what is the value of m?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
3.14
3.1415
20. Which of the above numbers is fourth in order from greatest to least?
(A) 3.14
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 3.1415
(E) 
21. The above figure includes a circle inscribed in a square. If the area of the square is 100 square units, how many square units is the area of the circle?
(A) 10
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 100
(E) 
22. The expression 
is multiplied by 
. Which of the following terms could be added to this product to get a sum that is one term with v and w in it?
(A) –126vw
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
(5)(–7)(2.3)(–17.4)(19)(–1)
23. By which of the following could the above value be multiplied to get a positive product?
Indicate all such values.
(A) –8.4
(B) 
(C) 0
(D) 
(E) 15.04
24. Ben threw a flying disc 38 feet. Then he threw it 13 yards. After that, Ben threw the disc 478 inches. What is the total number of inches Ben threw the disc for the three throws?
Indicate your answer in the space provided.
25. Which of the following is evidence that the above triangle ABC is NOT similar to triangle DEF?
Select all such statements.
(A) The value of 
is not equal to the value of 
.
(B) The value of 
is not equal to the value of 
.
(C) The value of 
is not equal to the value of 
.
(D) The value of 
is not equal to the value of 
.
(E) The value of 
is not equal to the value of 
.
1, 3, 9, 27…
26. For the above sequence, by what number must the seventh term be multiplied to get the tenth term?
(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 9
(D) 27
(E) 54
27. If 
and 
, what is the value of 
?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
28. What is the mode of the data represented by the above stem-and-leaf plot?
(A) 5
(B) 51
(C) 85
(D) 510
(E) 750
29. Both of the above figures are right rectangular prisms, and they have the same volume. The side measures of the prisms are labeled. What is the value of x in the diagram?
(A) 6.05
(B) 6.821
(C) 7.23
(D) 8.1
(E) 8.34
30. Doris was adding sales figures for a department store. She made an error when she subtracted the price of a $143 dress instead of adding it. Doris cannot delete the mistake. Which of the following strategies can Doris use to fix the mistake and be on track to account for the next store item?
(A) Subtract $143 again
(B) Add $143
(C) Add $286
(D) Subtract $286
(E) Add $71.50
31. A number is multiplied by 3, and 7 is added to the product. The result is multiplied by 4. Which of the following is a correct set of steps for reversing the process in order to reach the original number?
(A) Divide the resulting number by 4, subtract 7 from the result, and divide the difference by 3.
(B) Divide the resulting number by 4, add 7 to the result, and divide the sum by 3.
(C) Multiply the resulting number by 4, subtract 7 from the result, and multiply the difference by 3.
(D) Divide the resulting number by 3, subtract 7 from the result, and divide the sum by 4.
(E) Divide the resulting number by 4, divide the quotient by 3, and subtract 7 from that quotient.
32. Which of the following questions is a statistics question?
(A) Have the Mets or Yankees won more World Series?
(B) How many 16-year-old girls have had braces?
(C) How much time do residents at a nursing home spend reading the newspaper each week?
(D) How long has Joe been a doctor?
(E) What percent of NFL quarterbacks have had knee injuries?
33. Bethany was hired to sell tulips for a florist. The florist pays Bethany $8.25 per hour plus $1.45 for every bouquet of tulips Bethany sells. If Bethany works h hours and sells exactly b bouquets, which of the following expressions correctly represents the amount of money Bethany makes in that time?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
34. The value of j is between 10 and 20. The value of k is between 30 and 40. The value of 
must therefore be between what two numbers?
(A) 
and 
(B) 
and 
(C) 
and 
(D) 
and 
(E) 
and 
35. The distance from the center of a circular merry-go-round to the edge is 7.3 feet. If the merry-go-round takes 4.87 seconds to complete a full rotation, which of the following speeds is closest to the rotation speed of the merry-go-round at its outer edge?
(A) 9.42 feet/second
(B) 9.43 feet/second
(C) 9.51 feet/second
(D) 9.82 feet/second
(E) 10.75 feet/second
36. For the above function, what is the value of f(–3)?
(A) –6
(B) 0
(C) 2
(D) 8
(E) 13
37. Matt profited $94.28 on Day 3 of selling candy at a stand. On Day 4, his profit level was at a 34.25 percent decrease from Day 3. Matt’s prices include fractions of cents. Between which two points on the above number line is Matt’s Day 4 profit level represented?
(A) A and B
(B) B and C
(C) C and D
(D) D and E
(E) E and F
38. A team of 25 salespeople at a remote-control boat dealership sold 109 boats in one day. The number of boats sold by each salesperson is presented in the above table. Which histogram below correctly represents the data set?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
39. If 
and 
, which of the following is equal to 
?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 4c
(E) 
40. Mark exercises by walking the full distance of the edge of a square path once after work. One side of the square path goes over a circular pond, from one point on the edge of the pond to another, and runs directly over the center of the pond. The area of the pond is 
. How far does Mark walk to cover the entire square path?
(A) 122.4 m
(B) 244.8 m
(C) 979.2 m
(D) 1,012 m
(E) 1,489.6 m
41. Each of the following graphs represents a relation. Which graph represents a function?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
42. Robert has n nickels and d dimes in his piggy bank where he stores only nickels and dimes. The total amount of money he has in his piggy bank is $3.75. Which of the following expressions represents the number of dimes Robert has in his piggy bank?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
43. Which of the following inequalities is equivalent to 
?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
44. Which of the following statements correctly express the relationship between Variable 1 and Variable 2 in the above scatter plot?
Select all such statements.
(A) As Variable 1 increases, Variable 2 tends to increase.
(B) As Variable 2 increases, Variable 1 tends to increase.
(C) As Variable 1 increases, Variable 2 tends to decrease.
(D) As Variable 2 decreases, Variable 1 tends to increase.
(E) There is no correlation between the two variables.
45. Christopher used a strip of blue ribbon paper to make a wall decoration. He put part of the strip on the wall and extended another part away from the wall on a flat piece of metal he had nailed perpendicular to the wall. He connected the remainder of the ribbon back to the wall. The part of the strip on the wall was 12 in., and the part on the metal was 9 in. How long was the strip of ribbon paper?
(A) 12 in.
(B) 15 in.
(C) 21 in.
(D) 27 in.
(E) 36 in.
46. A new bird-watching club was hosting an event. The dot plot above shows the number of birds spotted in a particular field by 11 of its members. What is the mean of the given set of data to the nearest tenth?
(A) 2.0
(B) 2.3
(C) 2.5
(D) 3.3
(E) 4.0
47. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the above box-and-whisker plot?
(A) Most of the data figures represented by the plot are less than 70.
(B) The interquartile range of the represented set of data is between 45 and 50.
(C) Most of the data figures represented by the plot are greater than 30.
(D) The mean of the represented set of data CANNOT be determined from the box-and-whisker plot alone.
(E) The median of the represented set of data is between 40 and 50.
48. If 
, which of the following is closest to the value of 39.7g?
(A) 41.35
(B) 58.42
(C) 83.24
(D) 97.27
(E) 98.44
49. The above figure is a right triangle that contains a smaller right triangle. Some of the figure’s segment measures are labeled. What is the value of p, rounded to the nearest hundredth?
Indicate your answer in the space provided.
50. Train A leaves a station at 9:15 a.m. at 160 miles per hour. Train B leaves the same station at 220 miles per hour at 11:30 a.m. that morning, in the opposite direction on the same track. If both trains maintain their speeds, at what time will they be 1,215 miles apart?
(A) 11:45 a.m.
(B) 12:15 p.m.
(C) 1:00 p.m.
(D) 1:45 p.m.
(E) 2:30 p.m.
51. What is the simplified form of 
?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
52. Amanda wants to put a fence on the edge of her rectangular garden. The width of her garden is 22.7 feet. What distance will the fence need to cover?
Which of the following pieces of information could be used to answer the above question?
Select all such information.
(A) The perimeter of the garden
(B) The height of the fence
(C) The length of the garden
(D) The depth of the garden
(E) The area of the garden
53. The above right triangle has a leg measure of 5 cm and a hypotenuse measure of 13 cm. What is the area of the triangle?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
54. Which of the following is equal to the value of the above expression?
(A) 
(B) 
(C) 
(D) 
(E) 
55. Dr. Fitz did a ten-minute warm-up before a road race. The above graph indicates the speeds he moved and the periods he went various speeds during his warm-up exercise. Which of the following accounts of events correctly matches the graph?
(A) For the first 3 minutes, he gradually built up speed to walk 1 mile per hour, and he maintained that speed for the next 3 minutes. Then, he gradually built up speed to walk 3 miles per hour over the next minute. He maintained that speed for 2 minutes and slowed down to a complete stop over the last minute.
(B) He stretched in place for the first minute. For the next minute, he gradually built up speed to walk 1 mile per hour, and he maintained that speed for the next 6 minutes. Then, he gradually slowed down to a complete stop over the last 2 minutes.
(C) He stretched in place for 1 minute. Then, he gradually built up speed to walk 1 mile per hour over the next 3 minutes. Next, he walked 3 miles per hour for the next minute, and he gradually built up speed toward a 6-mile-per-hour jog over the next 3 minutes. He then jogged 6 miles per hour for 3 minutes and reached a sudden stop.
(D) He stretched in place for 1 minute. Then, he gradually built up speed to walk 3 miles per hour over the next minute, walked 3 miles per hour for the next 3 minutes, and gradually built up speed toward a 6-mile-per-hour jog over the next minute. He then jogged 6 miles per hour for 3 minutes. Then, he gradually slowed down toward a complete stop in the last minute and stood in place at the 10-minute mark.
(E) In the first minute, he gradually built up speed to walk 3 miles per hour. He then walked 3 miles per hour for the next 3 minutes, and he gradually slowed down to 1 mile per hour over the next 6 minutes. In the next minute, he slowed down to a complete stop.
56. The following table displays the quantities of several types of units. According to the table, how many hiblems are in 8.9 zerberts?
Unit |
Quantity |
Wuzel |
2.3 Zerberts |
Nochel |
7.4 Hiblems |
Zerbert |
4.8 Nochels |
(A) 316.128
(B) 400
(C) 632.656
(D) 700
(E) 715.124