Assessment Test

1. What two software items must be installed on a notebook computer prior to connecting to a wireless network? (Choose 2.)

A. Site survey software

B. Device driver software

C. Signal strength software

D. Client utility software

E.AutoConfig software

2. IP addresses are considered part of which layer of the OSI model?

A. Physical

B. Data Link

C. Network

D. Transport

E. Application

3. The amount of output power and usable frequency ranges for wireless devices is determined by which organization?

A. Wireless Ethernet Compatibility Alliance

B. Wi-Fi Alliance

C. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers

D. Local regulatory authorities

4. Which statement is accurate regarding mesh access points and mesh technology?

A. Mesh is a legacy technology and the priority should be to select an appropriate upgrade path.

B. In a full mesh network, all nodes connect together with at least two paths for every node.

C. Mesh access points are unreliable communications and represent a single point of failure.

D. Mesh access points require a separate radio for communications and therefore can be costly to implement.

5. Wireless repeaters are devices in wireless networking that are .

A. Used to extend the radio frequency cell

B. Used to repeat and strengthen the RF signal for better performance

C. Used as a backup solution in the event of an access point failure

D. Used to increase the bandwidth of the WLAN

6. Some common wireless personal network (WPAN) devices such as Bluetooth use a communication technology that has the potential to interfere with IEEE 802.11g wireless LANs. What is the name for this technology?

A. FHSS

B. DSSS

C. HR/DSSS

D. HR/FHSS

E. ERP-OFDM

7. The manual site survey process allows the site surveyor to perform the survey in one of two modes. What are these two modes? (Choose two.)

A. Passive

B. Visual

C. Predictive

D. Active

E. Placement

8. A third-party client utility such as Microsoft Windows Wireless Zero Configuration can be used with .

A. SOHO implementations

B. Enterprise implementations

C. Both A and B

D. Neither A nor B

9. Which of the following options are required components of the gathering of technical information for an IEEE 802.11n wireless LAN site survey in a new installation? (Choose 3.)

A. Number of users

B. Applications in use

C. Other IEEE 802.11 wireless networks

D. Cost of equipment

10. Manufacturers' client software utilities for wireless LAN adapters .

A. Allow for additional configuration

B. Are required in order for the adapter to operate

C. Are usually available at an additional fee

D. Are generic regardless of the manufacturer

11. An independent basic service set requires a minimum of how many access points?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

12. What is the horizontal angle of measurement in degrees of an omnidirectional antenna with a gain of 2.2 dBi?

A. 0

B. 90

C. 180

D. 270

E. 360

13. Which IEEE 802.11 standard or amendment can use three radio chains per band and multiple input/multiple output (MIMO) to transmit data?

A. 802.11

B. 802.11a

C. 802.11g

D. 802.11h

E. 802.11n

14. Which amendment to the standard operates in the 2.4 GHz ISM band and supports data rates up to 54 Mbps?

A. 802.11a

B. 802.11b

C. 802.11g

D. 802.11n

15. An HR/DSSS channel used to transmit data an IEEE 802.11g wireless LAN is wide.

A. 2.412 GHz

B. 5.160 GHz

C. 11 MHz

D. 22 MHz

16. IEEE 802.11g wireless networks can operate in which unlicensed RF band?

A. 902 – 928 MHz ISM

B. 2.400 – 2.500 GHz ISM

C. 5.725 – 5.825 GHZ UNII

D. 5.250 – 5.350 GHz UNII

E. 5.725 – 5.875 GHz ISM

17. What network type is usually contained in the same physical area and usually is bounded by the perimeter of a building?

A. Local area network (LAN)

B. Campus area network (CAN)

C. Wide area network (WAN)

D. Metropolitan area network (MAN)

18. What Data Link layer (Layer 2) security methods are weak and should not be used to secure a IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN? (Choose three.)

A. SSID hiding

B. WPA

C. VPN

D. WEP

E. WPA 2.0

F. RBAC

G. MAC filter

19. Which RF channels are considered non-overlapping for an IEEE 802.11g network using HR/DSSS modulation? (Choose 2.)

A. 1 and 4

B. 6 and 9

C. 1 and 6

D. 3 and 7

E. 11 and 13

F. 2 and 7

20. What can have a negative effect on the capacity of an IEEE 802.11g wireless LAN access point?

A. Reflections caused by furnishings

B. Frequency range in use

C. Number of associated users

D. Output power of access point

21. What could cause low throughput in an 802.11a/b/g/n wireless network?

A. Access point output power is too high.

B. Too many associated client devices.

C. Load-balancing features are moving clients.

D. The clients are too close to the access points and are overpowered.

22. What can contribute to voltage standing wave ratio (VSWR) in an IEEE 802.11g wireless LAN circuit?

A. Output power of the access point

B. Impedance mismatch

C. Gain of an antenna

D. Attenuation value of cable

23. Open system authentication is in an IEEE 802.11-2012 wireless network.

A. Flawed

B. Optional

C. Secure

D. Required

24. The Service Set Identifier (SSID) in an IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN is also known as what?

A. The name of the wireless network

B. The media access control address of the radio

C. The name of the access point

D. The wireless medium identifier

25. What does the term authenticator identify in an IEEE 802.1X secure network?

A. The RADIUS server

B. The access point

C. The client device

D. The RAS server

26. A virtual private network (VPN) most commonly operates at what layer of the OSI model?

A. Physical, Layer 1

B. Data Link, Layer 2

C. Network, Layer 3

D. Transport, Layer 4

E. Application, Layer 7

27. You are a wireless LAN engineer hired to perform a predictive analysis site survey for a 150,000-square-foot office building. This space includes walled offices as well as cubicles. What is an advantage of a predictive modeling site survey over a manual survey in this specific application?

A. A predictive site survey is the most accurate survey type available.

B. The amount of time required for accurate results is much less than a complete manual walkthrough.

C. Because of an extensive attenuation database, a predictive modeling site survey will be able to determine the interference values of any obstacles.

D. A predictive modeling site survey will allow you to experiment with different access point criteria, including power settings, channels, and locations, without the need for a physical visit.

28. What are some of the main factors in determining the number of access points that will be required for an IEEE 802.11n wireless LAN deployment? (Choose 2.)

A. Type of client devices in use

B. Number of client devices

C. Manufacturer of client devices

D. Applications to be used

29. What will a protocol analyzer do during a manual site survey?

A. Perform an RF analysis of the proposed area.

B. Help locate sources of RF interference.

C. Identify existing wireless networks.

D. Describe security requirements of the wireless LAN.

30. What could be the cause of intermittent connectivity for a wireless client device in an IEEE 802.11a/b/g/n wireless network?

A. A weak received signal strength on the client.

B. A signal-to-noise ratio of 35 dB.

C. The access point power is set too high and overpowering the client device.

D. The radio in the client device is disabled.

31. Which layers of the OSI model do not specify wireless LANs technology? (Choose 3.)

A. Session

B. Network

C. Physical

D. Application

E. Data Link

32. The signal to noise ratio (SNR) is the difference between the and the (Choose 2.)

A. Noise floor

B. RF channel

C. Fresnel zone

D. RF line of sight

E. Received signal

33. If an autonomous access point is set to what is commonly referred to as root mode, it will be able to perform which function?

A. Connect to a distribution system and allow client devices to send information to other devices.

B. Connect to a distribution system as a root bridge and allow two or more LANs to connect wirelessly.

C. Connect to a distribution system but is seldom used as this mode requires extensive configuration.

D. Connect to a distribution system as a repeater which allows the RF cell to be extended.

34. Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA 2.0) requires for the encryption mechanism and for the cipher.

A. TKIP, RC4

B. TKIP, RC5

C. WEP, RC4

D. CCMP, RC4

E.CCMP, AES

35. The access method that an IEEE 802.11a wireless network would use to get control of the wireless medium in order to transmit data is called what?

A. CSMA/CD

B. FHSS

C. HR/DSSS

D. CSMA/CA

E. CSMA/DSSS

36. An antenna will propagate RF energy in specific radiation patterns, both horizontally and vertically. How do antenna manufacturers identify the horizontal radiation patterns?

A. Elevation

B. Azimuth

C. Dipole

C. Longitude

37. A beacon is an example of what type of frame used in an IEEE 802.11 wireless LAN?

A. Control

B. Management

C. Data

D. Null function