Chapter 1

1. A and B. Components such as the BIOS, hard drive, and expansion slots communicate with the CPU via the Southbridge chipset.

2. C. High-end desktop and gaming computers use the EPS 12V power supply form factor. It is also used in servers.

3. C. Augmented reality (AR) superimposes images and audio over the real world in real time. It does allow ambient light and does not require headsets all the time.

4. D. A biometric identification device is an input device that can identify a user based on a unique physical feature such as a fingerprint or voice. A digitizer is used with a stylus pen to design and create images or blueprints. A scanner is used to digitize an image or a document. A KVM switch can connect multiple computers to one keyboard, monitor, and mouse.

5. D. The Mini-ATX motherboard form factor is the smallest form factor (17 cm × 17 cm or 6.7 in. × 6.7 in.) and is used in thin clients and set-top boxes.

6. D. A 6/8-pin PCIe power connector is used to supply power to various components of a computer.

7. B. The Non-Volatile Memory Express (NVMe) specification provides a standard interface between a compliant SSD, the PCIe bus, and operating systems.

8. C. Electrostatic discharge (ESD) can occur when there is a buildup of an electric charge (static electricity) on a surface that comes into contact with another. It can be mitigated by grounding the internal components of the computer to the case.

9. E. A keyboard, video, and mouse (KVM) switch is a hardware device that can be used to control more than one computer using a single keyboard, monitor, and mouse. KVM switches provide cost-efficient access to multiple servers using a single keyboard, monitor, and mouse.

10. C. An HDMI-to-VGA converter is used to convert digital signals to analog signals.

11. D. To help prevent ESD damage, use grounded mats on work benches and grounded floor mats in work areas. You can also use an antistatic wrist strap to prevent ESD strikes except when working inside power supplies or CRT monitors.

12. C. The Thunderbolt port enables transmission of high-definition video using the DisplayPort protocol.

13. C and D. The Northbridge chipset allows the fastest components, such as the RAM and the video card, to interface with the CPU at the front side bus speed.

14. A, B, and F. Headphones, monitors, printers, speakers, scanners, fax machines, and projectors are all considered output devices.

15. A. A solid state hybrid drive (SSHD) combines a magnetic HDD with onboard flash memory and serves as a nonvolatile cache but costs less than an SSD.

16. C and E. Fingerprint scanners, keyboards, and mice are all considered input devices, but the two considered the most common are the mouse and keyboard.

Chapter 2

1. B and E. A network interface card (NIC) upgrade might be done to provide wireless connectivity or to increase bandwidth.

2. D. 550W describes the output power for a power supply.

3. C. Two form factors used with internal SATA hard drives are 3.5 inch (8.9 cm) and the 2.5 inch (6.4 cm), with the majority of them being 3.5 inch.

4. C. The job description of a technician commonly lists the need for being able to lift 40 pounds. When lifting heavy objects, it is important to bend at the knees to avoid back injuries.

5. C. Before working on equipment, remove any watch and other jewelry and secure loose items such as ties and name badges.

6. D. A RAID card (or RAID controller) controls the data expansion of internal and external drives and also provides fault tolerance for storage devices. The I/O card allows additional I/O ports to be added to a computer. A capture card imports video information into a computer and records it to the storage device. SD storage cards are a form of removable storage used widely in portable devices.

7. A and D. The data portion of the bus, known as the data bus, carries data between the computer components. The address portion, known as the address bus, carries the memory addresses of the locations where data is read or written by the CPU.

8. A. Factors to consider when buying a sound card include the slot type, digital signal processor (DSP), port and connection types, and signal-to-noise ratio (SNR).

9. B. CompactFlash is still used in video cameras because of its high speed and high capacity.

10. A and B. When building a computer, select a power supply with sufficient wattage to power all the components. Each component inside the computer uses a certain amount of power. Obtain the wattage information for the components from the manufacturer’s documentation. When deciding on a power supply, make sure to choose a power supply that has more than enough power for the current components. The shape of the computer case is usually determined by the motherboard, power supply, and other internal components.

11. A. Before you install a memory module, it is important to verify that there are no compatibility issues. A DDR3 RAM module will not fit in a DDR2 slot. Verification is best done by consulting the motherboard documentation or checking on the website of the manufacturer.

12 True. When installing a hard drive, slightly hand-tighten all the screws to make installation of all screws easier. Do not overtighten the screws when using the screwdriver.

13. C. Because of the size of cellular phones, a very small storage device such as a MicroSD card is desirable. CompactFlash is an older form of storage device; it is too large for a cellular phone but is widely used in cameras and video recorders because of its large capacity and fast access speed. Similarly, USB flash drives and hard disk drives are too large for a cellular phone.

14. A. The front-side bus (FSB) is the path between the CPU and the Northbridge. It is used to connect various components, such as the chipset, expansion cards, and RAM. Data can travel in both directions across the FSB.

15. B. Buffered memory is specialized memory for servers and high-end workstations that use a large amount of RAM. Unbuffered memory is regular memory for computers. With unbuffered memory, the computer reads data directly from the memory banks, which makes it faster than buffered memory. Buffered memory chips have a control chip built into the module. The control chip assists the memory controller in managing large quantities of RAM. Avoid buffered RAM for gaming computers and average workstations because the extra controller chip reduces RAM speed.

Chapter 3

1. D. An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) helps protect against potential electrical power problems by supplying a consistent level of electrical power to a computer or another device. The battery is constantly recharging while the UPS is in use. The UPS provides a consistent quality of power when brownouts and blackouts occur. Many UPS devices can communicate directly with the computer operating system. This communication allows the UPS to safely shut down the computer and save data prior to the UPS losing all battery power.

2. A. The resistance of a circuit to the flow of current is measured in Ohms (O). Amps (A) measure the amount of electrons moving through the circuit. Watts (W) measure the work required to move electrons through the circuit. Volts (V) measure the work required to move a charge from one location to another.

3. A. The BIOS configuration data is saved to a special memory chip called a complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).

4. D. Both RAID 0 and RAID 1 require at least two disks. However, RAID 0 does not provide fault tolerance. The minimum numbers of disks for RAID 5 and RAID 6 are three and four, respectively.

5. A. A thin client device is typically a type of low-end computer that does not perform any processing or data storage locally. A thin client relies on a network connection to access any resources required to perform computing tasks and operate software.

6. D. Computers designed for audio and video editing need specialized inputs and outputs for recording and playback equipment. This requires an audio and video card that can handle the variety of inputs and outputs needed.

7. B. Overclocking is a technique that is used to make a processor work at a faster speed than its original specification. Overclocking is not a reliable way to improve computer performance and can result in damage to the CPU.

8. A. With Hyper-Threading, two pieces of code can be processed simultaneously by a single core, and dual-core is two cores inside a single CPU, where the two cores can process information at the same time.

9. A. Faster RAM will help the processor keep all the data in sync because the data that it needs to calculate can be retrieved when it is needed. The more RAM the computer has, the less often the computer needs to read from slower storage, such as hard drives or SSDs.

10. A and E. The BIOS setup program is used to change settings if memory modules, storage devices, and adapter cards are added. Most manufacturers provide the ability to modify boot device options, security and power settings, and adjustments for voltage and clock settings.

11. B. The safety data sheet (SSD) summarizes information about materials, including hazardous ingredients, fire hazards, and first-aid requirements.

12. D. The computer time and date are held in CMOS. This requires power from a small battery. If the battery is getting low, the system time and date may become incorrect.

13. D. Go to the motherboard manufacturer’s site to get the correct software to update the BIOS.

14. D. Native resolution identifies the best monitor resolution for a specific monitor. In Windows 10, the native resolution of a monitor is identified using the keyword (Recommended) beside the monitor resolution.

15. A and D. One way to increase the power of a computer is to increase the processing speed. You can do this by upgrading the CPU. However, the CPU must meet the following requirements:

• The new CPU must operate with the existing motherboard and power supply.

• The new CPU must be compatible with the motherboard chipset.

• The new CPU must operate with the existing motherboard and power supply.

The new CPU might require a different heat sink and fan assembly. The assembly must physically fit the CPU and must be compatible with the CPU socket. It must also be adequate to remove the heat of the faster CPU.

16. D. The Lightning connector is a small, proprietary 8-pin connector used by Apple mobile devices such as iPhones, iPads, and iPods for both power charging and data transfer. It is similar in appearance to a USB Type-C connector.

Chapter 4

1. C. Each light on the front of the case is powered by the motherboard through a cable that attaches somewhere on the board. If this cable comes loose, a particular light on the front of the case will not work.

2. B. The steps of the troubleshooting process are:

Step 1. Identify the problem.

Step 2. Establish a theory of probable cause.

Step 3. Test the theory to determine the cause.

Step 4. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution.

Step 5. Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures.

Step 6. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

3. A. Spinning the fan blades with the power off, especially by using compressed air, can damage the fan. The best way to ensure that the fan is working is to visually inspect it with the power on.

4. B. A failing power supply could also cause a computer to reboot unexpectedly. If the power cord does not attach properly, it is likely that the wrong type of power cord is being used.

5. C. After the cause of the problem is determined, a technician should research possible solutions, sometimes by visiting various websites and consulting manuals.

6. C. The CMOS battery maintains the CMOS settings, including the correct date and time. If the CMOS battery is dead or not connected properly, those settings can be lost.

7. D. Even though laptops are normally manufactured to operate within a wide range of temperatures, the lower temperature is below freezing and not an optimal environment.

8. C. Preventive maintenance includes tasks such as cleaning the device, which can prolong the life of the device.

9. A. To remove dust inside a computer, use a can of compressed air.

10. B. Before escalating a ticket, document each test that has been performed. Information about the tests is vital if the problem needs to be escalated to another technician.

11. C and D. Having a preventive maintenance plan in place can lead to improved reliability, performance, and efficiency in the IT infrastructure. Not having a preventive maintenance plan in place can lead to issues that will cause infrastructure downtime and significant repair costs. A preventive maintenance plan helps ensure that these costly issues are handled before they become problems.

12. B. Hold the fan blades in place when you clean the inside of the computer with compressed air to avoid overspinning the rotor or moving the fan in the wrong direction.

13. Explanation: C. Storage device problems are often related to loose or incorrect cable connections.

14. D. Always perform a backup before beginning any troubleshooting. Even though the data was backed up to a different partition in this case, the data is still on the same hard drive. If the drive crashes, the data might not be recoverable.

15. Explanation: D. Hardware maintenance tasks include these procedures:

• Remove dust from fan intakes.

• Remove dust from the power supply.

• Remove dust from components inside the computer.

• Clean the mouse and keyboard.

• Check for and secure any loose cables.

Maintenance tasks such as defragmenting a disk and scanning a hard drive for errors are part of a software maintenance routine.

16. A. After all repairs have been made, the last step of the troubleshooting process is to verify to the customer the problem and the solutions and demonstrate how the solution corrected the problem.

Chapter 5

1. A and B. T568A and T568B are wiring schemes used with Ethernet LAN cabling. IEEE 802.11n and 802.11ac are wireless LAN standards. Zigbee and Z-Wave are smart home standards.

2. B. A personal area network (PAN) connects devices, such as mice, keyboards, printers, smartphones, and tablets. These devices are often connected with Bluetooth technology. Bluetooth allows devices to communicate over short distances.

3. D. A WAN connects multiple LANs that are in geographically separate locations. A MAN connects multiple LANs in a large campus or in a city. A wireless LAN (WLAN) covers a rather small geographical area.

4. A, D, and E. 802.11b and 802.11g operate in the 2.4 GHz range, and 802.11n can operate in either the 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz range. 802.11a and 802.11ac operate only in the 5 GHz range of frequencies.

5. B. A Zigbee coordinator is a device that manages all the Zigbee client devices to create a Zigbee wireless personal area network (PAN), using the 868 MHz to 2.4 GHz range.

6. A. Hubs are sometimes called repeaters because they regenerate the signal. All devices connected to the hub share the same bandwidth (unlike a switch, which gives each device dedicated bandwidth).

7. B. An IDS is implemented to passively monitor the traffic on a network. Both an IPS and a firewall actively monitor network traffic and take immediate actions when previously defined security criteria match. A proxy server, when it functions as a firewall, also actively monitors the traffic that travels through it and takes immediate actions.

8. A. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) can be used to allow end devices to automatically configure IP information, such as their IP address, subnet mask, DNS server, and default gateway. DNS is used to provide domain name resolution, mapping hostnames to IP addresses. Telnet is a method for remotely accessing a CLI session of a switch or router. Traceroute is a command used to determine the path a packet takes as it traverses the network.

9. B and E. The TCP/IP model includes four layers: the application layer, the transport layer, the Internet layer, and the network access layer. The functions at each layer include different protocols. The transport layer includes both the TCP and UDP protocols.

10. A. HTTP uses TCP port 80, and HTTPS uses TCP port 443. HTTP and HTTPS are protocols commonly used to access web pages.

11. B and D. Common media used in networks include copper, glass or plastic optical fiber, and wireless.

12. C. A switch maintains a switching table that contains a list of available MAC addresses on the network. The switching table records MAC addresses by inspecting the source MAC address of every incoming frame.

13. D. Cable television companies and satellite communication systems both use copper or aluminum coaxial cable for connections between devices.

Chapter 6

1. B and C. The fact that the web server can be accessed by using its IP address indicates that the web server is working, and there is connectivity between the workstation and the web server. However, the web server domain name is not resolving correctly to its IP address. This could be caused by a misconfiguration of the DNS server IP address on the workstation or the wrong entry of the web server in the DNS server.

2. A. If a computer is configured with DHCP but it cannot communicate with the DHCP server in order to obtain an IP address, the Windows OS automatically assigns a link-local IP address in the range 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255. The computer can only communicate with other computers connected to the same 169.254.0.0/16 network and cannot communicate with computers in another network.

3. B. Forcing a PC to release its DHCP binding allows a new DHCP request operation to occur. The net, tracert, and nslookup commands do not have any effect on DHCP configurations.

4. B. Port forwarding directs traffic between networks by using forwarding rules. WPA encrypts wireless information, and MAC filtering prevents unauthorized access to the WLAN. Port triggering is a technique used with NAT configurations.

5. B. Wireless routers usually come with factory default settings. The IP address is often set to 192.168.0.1. The default username and password are often admin. The IP address, username, and password should all be modified to help secure the router.

6. E. Whitelisting and blacklisting specify which IP addresses are allowed or denied on a network. This is typically done using an access list or access policy.

7. D. The ping command uses Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) to test connectivity between network hosts. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is used to map IP addresses to MAC addresses. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is used to dynamically assign IP addresses to network hosts. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is considered a reliable protocol that segments application layer data for transmission.

8. A. When a computer automatically configures an IP address in the 169.254.x.x range, this is an indication that the DHCP server is inaccessible or down.

9. A. The manufacturer will maintain up-to-date drivers.

10. D. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) can be used to allow end devices to automatically configure IP information, such as their IP address, subnet mask, DNS server, and default gateway. The DNS service is used to provide domain name resolution, mapping hostnames to IP addresses. Telnet is a method for remotely accessing a CLI session of a switch or router. traceroute is a command used to determine the path a packet takes as it traverses the network.

11. A. When workstations are configured to obtain IP addresses automatically but DHCP servers are not available to respond to the requests, a workstation can assign itself an IP addresses from the 169.254.0.0/16 network.

12. B. Wireless routers use Network Address Translation to translate internal or private addresses into Internet-routable or public addresses.

13. C. The address has a prefix length of /64. The first 64 bits represent the network portion, and the last 64 bits represent the host portion of the IPv6 address. In this example, the network bits are 2001:0db8:cafe:4500.

14. B. The nslookup command was created to allow a user to manually query a DNS server to resolve a given hostname. The ipconfig /displaydns command only displays previously resolved DNS entries. The tracert command was created to examine the path that packets take as they cross a network and can resolve a hostname by automatically querying a DNS server. The net command is used to manage network computers, servers, printers, and network drives.

15. D. The fact that the workstation can print at a networked printer indicates that the TCP/IP stack is functional. However, the workstation being unable to communicate with external networks indicates that the most likely problem is the incorrect default gateway address. If the workstation is configured to obtain an IP address automatically, the DHCP server address does not need to be configured.

Chapter 7

1. B. The default display for any laptop is the laptop display. To output to an external video port such as when a laptop is connected to an external monitor or projector, use the Fn key to change the output to just the external video port or to display both on the laptop display and through the projector.

2. D. Customer-replaceable units (CRUs) are parts that can be installed by someone who does not have advanced technical skills. Examples of CRUs include a laptop battery and memory.

3. A. Bluetooth is a low-power, short-range wireless technology that provides connectivity for accessories such as speakers, headphones, and microphones.

4. A. The first three steps of the troubleshooting process are to identify the problem, establish a theory of probable cause, and test the theory to determine the cause. During the third step, the technician is taking action on what is believed to be the cause of the problem, such as using an AC adapter with a laptop. When a technician is questioning the user, the technician is trying to identify the problem. If the technician suspects that the battery does not have a charge, will not keep a charge, or that there might be loose cable connections, the technician is thinking through common laptop problems.

5. D. A card reader commonly attaches to a USB port or is integrated into a laptop. It is used to read from or write to flash media of various sizes, including SD.

6. B. Laptop computers use proprietary form factors, and therefore, they are different from one manufacturer to another.

7. D. Mobile devices typically use either the cellular network or a Wi-Fi network to connect to the Internet. A Wi-Fi connection is preferred because it uses less battery power and is free in many places.

8. C. With POP, mail is downloaded from the server to the client and then deleted on the server. SMTP is used for sending or forwarding email. Unlike with POP, when a user connects via IMAP, copies of the messages are downloaded to the client application, and the original messages are kept on the server until manually deleted. HTTP is used for web traffic data and is considered insecure.

9. C. Small outline dual in-line memory modules, or SODIMMs, are designed for the space restrictions of laptops.

10. B. Liquid-crystal displays (LCDs) use more power than light-emitting diode (LED) or organic LED (OLED) displays. Both LCDs and LEDs use backlights, but LCD screens could use either a cold cathode fluorescent lamp (CCFL) or LED backlight.

11. A. The Global Positioning System (GPS) is a satellite-based navigation system that transmits signals back to GPS receivers on Earth.

12. C. To reduce heat and power consumption, CPU throttling can be used. CPU throttling reduces the CPU speed.

13. C and D. Mobile devices are frequently fitted with GPS radio receivers, enabling them to calculate their position. Some devices do not have a GPS receiver. Instead, they use information from Wi-Fi and cellular networks.

14. C. The Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI) standard provides support for power states that are very important to mobile devices such as laptops.

15. A. When removing a SODIMM, make sure to remove the AC adapter and battery first. Then press outward on the clips to release it from the memory slot.

Chapter 8

1. B. The more complex the structure of the printout, the more time it takes to print. Draft photo–quality pictures, high-quality text, and draft text are less complex than a digital color photograph.

2. C and D. Using components not recommended by the manufacturer, while possibly less expensive and also more available, might result in poor print quality and void the manufacturer warranty. In addition, the cleaning requirements might vary.

3. B and C. Some disadvantages of a laser printer include high startup cost, expensive toner cartridges, and a high level of maintenance.

4. C. Hardware print servers permit several users to connect to a single printer without the need for a computer to share the printer. USB hubs, LAN switches, and docking stations are incapable of sharing printers.

5. B. Some printers have the capability to perform duplex printing, which is printing on both sides of the paper. IR printing is a form of wireless printing using infrared technology. Buffering is the process of using printer memory to store print jobs. Spooling puts print jobs into a print queue.

6. D. If the printer is connected to the wrong computer port, the print jobs will appear on the print queue, but documents will not be printed by the printer.

7. D. Inkjet print heads cannot usually be effectively cleaned by physical means. The vendor-supplied printer software utility is recommended.

8. B. Virtual printing sends the print job to a file (.prn, .pdf, .xps, or an image file) or to a remote destination in the cloud. Connecting a printer to the Web using an application such as Google Cloud Print allows virtual printing from any location.

9. A. Enabling print sharing allows a computer to share the printer over the network. Installing a USB hub allows a number of peripheral connections to the same computer. Print drivers do not provide the ability to share printers.

10. D. Before performing maintenance on a printer, or any computer or peripheral, always disconnect the power source to prevent exposure to dangerous electrical voltages.

11. C and D. Not requiring the other computers to be cabled directly to the printer is an advantage of printer sharing. To share a printer, computers do not need to be running the same operating system, and more than one computer can send print jobs to the shared printer at the same time. However, the computer directly connected to the printer needs to be powered on, even if not in use. It uses its own resources to manage all the print jobs coming to the printer.

12. A. Because multiple jobs can be received by a printer while it is busy printing other documents, these jobs must be temporarily stored until the printer is free to print them. This process is called print buffering.

13. B. The greater the number of dots per inch, the better the resolution of the picture and, therefore, the quality of printing.

14. C. A printer driver is software that allows a computer and a printer to communicate with each other. Configuration software enables users to set and change printer options. Firmware is a set of instructions stored on the printer that controls how the printer operates. Word processing applications are used to create text documents.

15. C and D. A closed-ended question requires only a yes or no answer that can confirm a fact. An open-ended question requires the user to describe the problem symptoms in detail.

16. A. Inkjet print heads cannot usually be effectively cleaned by physical means. The vendor-supplied printer software utility is recommended.

Chapter 9

1. D. Routers, switches, and firewalls are infrastructure devices that can be provided in the cloud.

2. D. Each virtual machine runs its own operating system. The number of virtual machines that can be made available depends on the hardware resources of the host machine. Like physical computers, virtual machines are susceptible to threats and malicious attacks. To connect to the Internet, a virtual machine uses a virtual network adapter that acts as a physical adapter in a physical computer, connecting through the physical adapter on the host to establish a connection to the Internet.

3. C. Windows Virtual PC is an example of a Type 2 hypervisor. Type 2 is hosted by an operating system.

4. A. Cloud computing involves computers, software, servers, network devices, and other services physically held at a remote location. Virtualization is used by cloud computing vendors to provide multiple servers, networks, applications, operating systems, and so on to clients without having to buy the equipment for each one. Virtualization of servers, for example, allows multiple servers to be on one physical server. Each server could be for a different client, if necessary.

5. B. Organizations use cloud-based applications to provide on-demand software delivery. When a user requests an application, minimal application code is forwarded to the client. The client pulls additional code from the cloud server, as needed.

6. D. Running Hyper-V on Windows 8 requires a minimum of 4 GB of system RAM.

7. B. IT as a Service (ITaaS) extends the capability of IT services so that the company does not need to invest in new infrastructure. ITaaS providers also provide training for new personnel and licensing for new software required by the company. These services are available on demand and are delivered economically to any device anywhere in the world without compromising security or function.

8. A and D. Type 1, or bare-metal, hypervisors are installed directly on host hardware. Therefore, a Type 1 hypervisor has direct access to the host hardware resources and thus has fewer layers of abstraction and is more efficient. However, bare-metal hypervisors do need to have management console software to manage the VM instances.

9. A and D. OneDrive and Google Drive are cloud-based file storage solutions. Gmail and Exchange Online are cloud-based email services. The virtual desktop solution deploys the entire desktop environment of an organization from a server in a data center to a client.

10. D. Cloud computing is used to separate an application or a service from the hardware. Virtualization separates the operating system from the hardware.

11. C and D. Mission-critical services should use server virtualization technology with a Type 1 hypervisor. VMWare vSphere and Oracle VM Server are examples of Type 1 hypervisors. VMware Workstation, Oracle VM VirtualBox, and Windows 10 Hyper-V are examples of Type 2 hypervisors.

12. A and C. Gmail and Exchange Online are cloud-based email services. OneDrive and Dropbox are cloud-based file storage solutions. A virtual desktop solution deploys the entire desktop environment of an organization from a server in a data center to clients.

13. D. There is no such thing as BaaS. With Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), key network devices such as routers and firewalls are leased from a provider. With Wireless as a Service (WaaS), a provider provides wireless connectivity at a fixed monthly cost.

14. A. Cloud computing allows users to access applications, back up and restore files, and perform tasks without needing additional software or servers. Cloud users access resources through subscription-based or pay-per-use services, in real time, using nothing more than a web browser.

15. A. Cloud service providers use one or more data centers for services and resources such as data storage. A data center is a data storage facility located inside a company and maintained by the IT staff or leased from a co-location provider, where the maintenance can be done by the provider or the corporate IT staff.

Chapter 10

1. A. The primary partition that is marked active must carry the boot files for both the operating systems. In this case, the data can be stored in the three logical drives created in the extended partition, leaving one extra primary drive for additional storage.

2. B. The MBR contains information on how the hard drive partitions are organized. BOOTMGR is a small piece of software loaded from the Volume Boot Record (VBR), the CPU is the electronic circuitry within a computer that carries out the instructions of a computer program, the Registry, which is a database that contains all the information about the computer.

3. A. On a hard disk, up to four primary partitions can be created. Alternatively, up to three primary partitions plus an extended partition can be created, and the extended partition can be further divided into multiple logical drives, if desired. Only one primary partition can be made the active partition at any time. It is the active partition used by the operating system to boot a PC.

4. A. During a Windows 8.1 installation, the Administrator account is created automatically. All other accounts have to be created manually.

5. B. Hard disk drives are organized by several physical and logical structures. Partitions are logical portions of the disk that can be formatted to store data. Partitions consist of tracks, sectors, and clusters. Tracks are concentric rings on the disk surface. Tracks are divided into sectors, and multiple sectors are combined logically to form clusters.

6. E. The Master Boot Record (MBR) is the boot sector standard that supports a maximum primary partition of 2 TB. The MBR allows four primary partitions per drive. The globally unique identifier (GUID) partition table (GPT) can support enormous partitions with a theoretical maximum of 9.4 ZB (9.4 × 10²¹ bytes). GPT supports a maximum of 128 primary partitions per drive.

7. A. NTFS allows the storage of files up to 16 TB in size. The file system exFAT, also known as FAT64, is used to address some of the shortcomings of FAT32 and is mainly used for USB flash drives. CDFS is used for optical drives. FAT32 allows the storage of files up to 4 GB in size.

8. A. A 32-bit OS cannot be upgraded to a 64-bit OS. Windows XP and Windows Vista cannot be upgraded to Windows 10.

9. A. Pressing the F8 key during the boot process opens the Windows Advanced Boot Options menu, from which the user can select Last Known Good Configuration.

10. C. The terms 32-bit and 64-bit refer to the amount of memory space that an OS can address at a time. A 32-bit OS can address 2³² bytes of memory, which is 4 GB. A 64-bit OS can address 2⁶⁴ bytes of memory.

11. C. The Administrator account is used to manage the computer and is very powerful. Best practices recommend that it be used only when it is needed to avoid accidentally performing significant changes to the system.

12. B and D. The file system has no control over the speed of access or formatting of drives, and the ease of configuration is not file system dependent.

13. C. NFS (Network File System) is used to access files on other computers across a network. Windows operating systems support several file systems. FAT, NTFS, and CDFS are used to access files stored on drives installed in the computer.

14. C and D. Two types of computer operating system user interfaces are CLI and GUI. CLI stands for command line interface. In a command line interface, a user enters commands at a prompt using a keyboard. The second type is the GUI, or graphical user interface. With this type of user interface, a user interacts with the operating system by working with icons and menus. A mouse, finger, or stylus can be used to interact with a GUI. PnP is the name of a process by which an OS assigns resources to different hardware components of a computer. The other answers are examples of application programming interfaces (APIs).

Chapter 11

1. B. The functions of the listed commands are as follows:

• tasklist: Displays currently running applications

• gpresult: Displays group policy settings

• gpupdate: Refreshes group policy settings

• runas: Runs a program or tool with different permissions

• rstrui: Starts the System Restore utility

2. A and D. The file attributes are read-only, archive, hidden, and system. Details, Security, and General are tabs on the file Properties applet.

3. D. Windows Remote Desktop and Remote Assistant allow an administrator to connect a local computer with a remote computer across the network and to interact with it as though it were the local computer. The administrator sees and can interact with the desktop of the remote computer. With Remote Desktop, the administrator logs onto the remote computer using an existing user account and starts a new user session. No user is required at the remoter computer to allow this access. Remote Assistant allows a technician to interact with a remote computer with the assistance of a remote user. The remote user must allow the remote access to the current user session and is able to observe what the technician is doing.

4. D and E. Device driver errors are the most likely causes of BSOD errors. Failing RAM can also create BSOD errors. Software issues such as browser and antivirus issues do not produce BSOD errors. A power supply failure would prevent the machine from starting.

5. D. Use the Task Manager Performance tab to see a visual representation of CPU and RAM utilization. This is helpful in determining if more memory is needed. Use the Applications tab to halt an application that is not responding.

6. B. The C:Users folder contains all the user profiles. The C:Application Data folder contains application data related to all users. The 32-bit program files are located in the C:Program Files (x86) folder, while 64-bit program files are located in the C:Program Files folder.

7. A. The functions of the listed commands are as follows:

• ping: Determines basic connectivity to the targeted IP address or hostname

• nslookup: Finds the successful name resolution of a hostname

• tracert: Finds the route taken by a packet

• ipconfig: Finds the default gateway configured on a host

8. B and E. Closed-ended questions generally have a fixed or limited set of possible responses, such as “yes” or “no.” Open-ended questions imply no limited or fixed set of replies but rather generally prompt the responder to provide more meaningful feedback.

9. C. Any change from a system restore is reversible. A restore point only contains information about the system and Registry settings and therefore cannot be used to back up or recover data files.

10. B. UAC is used to change user account settings while converting the file system to FAT16. Updating the driver for the graphics card will not resolve the issue. Compatibility mode in Windows 7 enables running a program created for previous versions of the Windows environment.

11. D. In Windows 10, the configuration of a password for a PC woken from hibernation or sleep can be set in Settings > Accounts.

12. B. A virtual private network (VPN) is used to connect remote sites together securely over a public network.

13. C. The server listens on TCP port 3389 and UDP port 3389 for remote connections.

14. B. When Windows 10 is installed, it creates six default libraries for each user.

15. B. Windows Task Scheduler is a tool that helps scheduling repetitive tasks, such as backups, antivirus scans, and more.

16. B. In this situation, the probable cause has been identified, and the exact cause has been acted upon. Documenting the findings is the last action in the process; it happens after checking that the problem has been solved by the solution implemented.

17. C, D, and F. Typical causes of operating system problems include corrupted or missing system files, incorrect device driver, failed update or service pack installation, corrupted Registry, failing of faulty hard drive, incorrect password, virus infection, and spyware.

18. A. The types of tasks that need to be scheduled include operating system and antivirus updates as well as hard drive routines.

Chapter 12

1. C. Because mobile device apps run in a sandbox (an isolated location), it is difficult for malicious programs to infect mobile devices. The passcode and remote lock features secure a device against unauthorized use. The carrier may disable access to some features and programs based on the service contract, but this a commercial function rather than a security function.

2. A and B. As an open source operating system, Android allows anyone to contribute to the development and evolution of compatible software. Android has been implemented on a wide range of devices and platforms including cameras, smart TVs, and e-book readers. Royalties are not payable to Google, and Google has not tested and approved all available Android applications. Android applications are available from a range of sources.

3. A and D. The physical Home button on an iOS device can perform many functions, depending on how it is used. Pressing the button while the device screen is turned off wakes the device. While an app is in use, pressing the Home button returns the user to the Home screen. Double-pressing the Home button while the screen is locked shows the audio controls, which makes it possible to adjust music volume without entering a passcode to enter the system.

4. A and B. Locator apps and remote backup are two types of cloud-enabled services for mobile devices. Passcode configuration, screen calibration, and screen app locking are performed on a device directly by the user, not as cloud-enabled services.

5. C. The permissions drwxr-x-r- indicate that the owner of the directory may read, write, and execute the files in the directory, the group members may read and execute the files in the directory but cannot create files, and all users may read files in the directory. By issuing the command chmod 775 -R webpages, the administrator can allow the group members to create and modify files in the directory and subdirectories. The user is already a member in the group because the user can navigate in the directory and subdirectories.

6. B and E. Rooting and jailbreaking are terms that describe unlocking Android and iOS mobile devices to grant users full access to the file system and full access to kernel modules. Remote wipe, sandboxing, and patching are examples of mobile operating system features and functions related to device security.

7. D. If a problem with an Android device cannot be solved with a normal power off and on, a user can try a reset of the device. Holding the power button and the volume down keys until the device powers off and then powering it on is one of the ways to reset most Android devices.

8. A. Both the macOS and Android operating systems use the Unix operating system software as a base.

9. B, D, and F. A smartphone should use the screen lock feature to protect sensitive information so that to unlock the device, a password or passcode is required. Smartphones also support pattern locks, or swipe locks. Pattern locks eliminate the time it takes to type passwords or PINs. You just need to join the dots (numbers) on the keypad in a specific pattern to unlock the phone. Many modern mobile devices come with biometric authentication capability, such as fingerprint sensors and face recognition, for unlocking the device.

10. D. By tapping the Recent Apps icon on the system bar, the user can see a list of recently used apps. A user can remove an app by swiping it to either side.

11. C. On iOS devices, the passcode is used as part of the encryption key for the entire system. The passcode is not stored anywhere, and without it, no one (including Apple) can gain access to the user data on an iOS device. A forgotten passcode renders user data unreachable, forcing the user to perform a full restore from a backup saved in iTunes or iCloud.

12. A. rm removes files, man displays the documentation for a specific command, ls displays the files inside a directory, cd changes the current directory, mkdir creates a directory under the current directory, and move moves files to a different directory.

13. B and C. GPS services allow app vendors and websites to know the location of a device and offer location-specific services such as local weather and advertising.

14. C. In Linux and OS X, the cron service is responsible for scheduled tasks. cron runs in the background and executes tasks at specific dates and times. cron uses a schedule table called a cron table that can be edited with the crontab command.

15. A and E. To avoid the loss of irreplaceable information, it is critical that regular backups be executed and that the hard drives be checked regularly. The signature files are scanned constantly by anti-malware software. Updating the OS should happen when necessary but should not occur automatically. Because the factory reset of a device deletes all settings and user data, a factory reset should be done only if a major issue requires it.

Chapter 13

1. A. Phishing attacks use social engineering to obtain personal information from users. Viruses carry malicious executable code that runs on target machines. Worms propagate through a network, consuming bandwidth resources. Adware results in pop-up windows directing users to malicious sites.

2. C. A company security policy commonly contains incident handling procedures to follow when a security breach occurs.

3. C and E. Adding an unauthorized wireless router or access point to a company network is a serious potential security threat. The device should be removed from the network immediately in order to mitigate the threat. In addition, the employee should be disciplined. The company security policy, which employees agree to, should describe penalties for behavior that threatens the security of the company.

4. C. The last step before documenting findings is to verify full system functionality. Ensuring that all of the applications are working would be an example of verifying functionality. Asking what problem the user is experiencing is part of the first step: identifying the problem. Disconnecting from the network and rebooting in Safe mode are both examples of the third step: determining an exact cause.

5. D. BitLocker To Go supports encrypting removable drives, but does not require a TPM chip. However, it does require a password.

6. B. Most web browsers offer a pop-up blocker. In Internet Explorer, use the Tools icon to enable it.

7. B. A permission is a rule that is associated with a particular object, such as a file, folder, or printer. A right authorizes a user to perform an action such as performing backups on a computer.

8. B and D. Hardware firewalls can be configured as packet filters, application layer firewalls, or proxies. Application layer firewalls read all the traffic data and look for unwanted traffic. Proxies act as relays, scanning traffic and allowing or denying traffic based on established rules. Packet filters only concern themselves with port data, IP address data, and destination services.

9. C. The Maximum Password Age setting defines the maximum number of days that can pass before the password must be changed.

10. D. If a network is experiencing an extremely high volume of traffic, disconnecting a host from the network may enable you to confirm that the host is compromised and is flooding traffic onto the network. The other issues are hardware issues and not typically security related.

11. A. Data encryption is the process of converting data into a form in which only a trusted, authorized person with a secret key or password can decrypt the data and access the original form.

12. B. The two types of formatting that can be performed on a mechanical hard drive are low level and standard. The low-level format is commonly performed at the factory. The standard format only re-creates the boot sector and file allocation table.

13. C. A social engineer attempts to gain the confidence of an employee and convince that person to divulge confidential and sensitive information, such as usernames and passwords. DDoS attacks, pop-ups, and viruses are all examples of software-based security threats, not social engineering.

14. B and D. Three types of password protection that can be used to secure a workstation are the BIOS password configured through the BIOS Setup program; a login password such as a PIN, Windows, or picture password; and a network password that is kept on a server.

15. B. Ransomware requires payment for access to the computer or files. Bitcoin is a type of digital currency that does not go through a particular bank.

Chapter 14

1. C. The basic data types used in a script include

• int to represent integers, char to represent characters, float to represent decimal numbers, strings to represent alphanumeric characters, and

• Bool to represent true or false.

2. B. Level one and level two technicians mainly work in call centers, but only level two technicians use remote access software. A bench technician often performs computer warranty service in a central depot or work facility. Field technicians work onsite, in private homes, businesses, and schools.

3. B. It is important for a technician, when talking by phone with a customer, to be professional. Also, having good communication skills enhances credibility with the customer.

4. B. When talking with a customer, a technician should allow the customer to tell the whole story. The technician should not interrupt the customer because doing so can be perceived as rude and disrespectful and may create tension between the customer and the technician.

5. B. Customers who have computer problems probably feel stressed. A technician should establish a good rapport with a customer, which might allow the customer to relax a little bit. A relaxed customer might provide more information to help in troubleshooting the problem.

6. B. A call center might exist within a company and offer service to the employees of that company as well as to the customers of that company. Alternatively, a call center might be an independent business that sells computer support as a service to outside customers. In either case, a call center is a busy, fast-paced work environment, often operating 24 hours a day.

7. D. It is important to obtain written consent from the customer prior to backing up any data from the customer’s PC.

8. C. Scripting languages are different from compiled languages because each line is interpreted and then executed when the script is run. Scripting languages include Windows batch files, PowerShell, Linux shell script, VBScript, JavaScript, and Python.

9. A and E. It is very important to make customers feel that they are being listened to. Interacting with them and using some interjections to let them know that you are listening as well as paraphrasing the problem back to them will show that you are listening. Interrupting them or making them repeat what they have already said and focusing on what you cannot do will make customers angry.

10. B. During troubleshooting, when a technician listens and understands the computer problems from the customer, some more questions may need to be asked to gather further information. These follow-up questions should be targeted and closed-ended questions based on the information that has already been provided by the customer. The closed-ended questions should be focused on specific aspects, and the customer should be able to answer such a question with a simple “yes” or “no” or with a factual response.

11. B, D, and E. The initial reason for accessing the computer, the suspected illegal matter or operations, and the location of the computer are immediately apparent to the technician and should be among the first details documented. Details of past computer users and the duration of the illegal activity are matters that the appropriate investigators will determine. The technical specifications of the computer may have little relevance to its illegal use.

12. C. It is always important to allow the customer to finish explaining the problem at hand. You should always be attentive and actively listen to the customer, without interrupting, and should acknowledge the customer occasionally to affirm that you are actively listening to him or her.

13. D. If a customer wants to talk to a specific technician, try to contact that technician and see if he or she can take the call. If the technician is not available, try to make an effort to help the customer and tell the customer that the favorite technician will contact the customer later if the customer prefers to wait.

14. B. Unsolicited, chain, and forged emails are unethical, and possibly illegal, and must not be sent by a technician to a customer.

15. C. Call prioritization is a very important task for a call center. Call prioritization saves time by solving the most important issues first. A failure that stops company operations should be considered a top priority.

16. C. When dealing with a talkative customer, the technician should not encourage non-problem-related conversation. Instead, the technician should try to get the customer to refocus on the problem.

17. B and C. A level one technician is primarily tasked with gathering pertinent information from the customer and then accurately entering that information into a trouble ticket or a work order. Sometimes a level one technician must escalate a task or problem to a level two technician if the problem requires a higher level of expertise.

18. C.

== represents equal

!= represents not equal

< represents less than

> represents greater than

<= represents less than or equal to

>= represents greater than or equal to

Because 5 is not equal to 7, the output of A != is true.