Chapter 16. Practice Exam 1

1.

Your customer has a Cisco Unified Communications Manager and is using both Cisco IP phones and third-party phones such as the Grandstream. He also wants to use SCCP for all phones. Which of the following statements would be true about his environment?

	A.	This is the preferred configuration.
	B.	This will not work because SCCP only works with third-party phones.
	C.	This will not work because Cisco phones require SIP.
	D.	This will not work because SCCP does not work with most third-party phones.

2.

Looking at the following configuration, which of the following statements is true?

dial-peer voice 15 pots destination-pattern 5551100 port 0/0/1 dial-peer voice 16 pots destination-pattern 5551100 port 0/1/0

	A.	An incoming call to 5551100 will match dial peer 15 first.
	B.	An incoming call to 5551100 will match dial peer 16 first.
	C.	An incoming call to 5551100 will match dial peer 15 first and will fail over to dial peer 16 if dial peer 15 is not registered.
	D.	An incoming call to 5551100 will randomly match dial peer 15 and 16.

3.

How do you configure an intercom DN so that it is not dialable?

	A.	Use the `intercom nond` command.
	B.	Use an extension number that contains an A, B, C, or D.
	C.	Use the `intercom nodial` command.
	D.	Use an extension number that contains a *.

4.

When configuring a dial plan from CCA, which of the following statements is true?

	A.	The emergency numbers are automatically populated if the North American Number Plan locale is selected.
	B.	You should manually enter the emergency numbers in the Emergency Numbers fields.
	C.	The emergency numbers are set to 911 and 9911 and cannot be changed.
	D.	The emergency numbers can only be three digits.

5.

Which features can be configured using Smart Assist?

	A.	Phone extensions.
	B.	Dial plans.
	C.	Autodiscovery of supported devices.
	D.	VLANs.
	E.	All answer options are correct.

6.

Which of the following statements is correct?

	A.	MGCP and H.323 are peer-to-peer protocols.
	B.	SIP and SCCP are client/server protocols.
	C.	H.323 and SCCP are client/server protocols.
	D.	H.323 and SIP are peer-to-peer protocols.
	E.	MGCP and SCCP are client/peer protocols.

7.

A button that has three extensions assigned to it is what kind of button?

	A.	Multiline
	B.	Shared
	C.	Overlay
	D.	Monitor
	E.	Dual-number

8.

Which of the following statements about paging are true? (Choose two.)

	A.	Multicast or unicast can be used for paging.
	B.	If configured properly, paging can allow two-way audio.
	C.	Paging groups are a collection of ephone-dns that have been configured as paging dns.
	D.	Multicast paging requires an address in the 224.0.0.0 network.

9.

When using the User Configuration feature in CCA, which of the following can be configured? (Choose all that apply.)

	A.	Users
	B.	Phones
	C.	Extensions
	D.	Forwarding
	E.	Intercoms

10.

A customer has decided to deploy Cisco Unified CME and her network engineer wants to know what protocols would be used. She is adamant about only allowing open-standard protocols. Based on this, what would you tell her?

	A.	We can use H.323 and SIP as the primary protocols with no feature loss.
	B.	We can use H.323 and SIP as the primary protocols, and the only feature that we will lose is automatic devices discovery.
	C.	We can use H.323 and SIP as the primary protocols but will not be able to use certain Cisco phones and will lose a number of features.
	D.	We must use CDP and SCCP, which are both proprietary.
	E.	CME does not support any proprietary protocols.

11.

When looking at the following configuration in terms of outgoing dial peers, which of the following statements is true?

dial-peer voice 50 VOIP destination-pattern 555. session target ipv4:10.10.11.1 dial-peer voice 60 VOIP destination-pattern 5551... session target ipv4:10.10.11.1 dial-peer voice 70 VOIP destination-pattern 55512.. session target ipv4:10.10.11.1

	A.	When a call is placed to 5551200, it will match dial peer 70.
	B.	When a call is placed to 5551200, it will match dial peer 50.
	C.	When a call is placed to 5551200, it will match dial peer 60.
	D.	When a call is placed to 5551200, it will match dial peer 0.

12.

The following configuration is an example of what kind of line?

Router(config)# ephone-dn 101 dual-line Router(config-ephone-dn)# number 2000 Router(config)# ephone 10 Router(config-ephone)# mac-address 00CC.0001.A123.1ABF Router(config-ephone)# button 1:101 Router(config)# ephone 12 Router(config-ephone)# mac-address 00C0.0011.A145.1DDA Router(config-ephone)# button 1:101

	A.	Multiline
	B.	Shared
	C.	Overlay
	D.	Monitor
	E.	Dual-number

13.

What will the following configuration accomplish?

Router(config-telephony)# after-hours day sat 11:00 23:59 Router(config-telephony)# after-hours day sun 00:00 00:00 Router(config-telephony)# after-hours block pattern 1 9011

	A.	It will block calls to numbers that begin with 1 9011 all day Sunday and from 11:00 a.m. to 11:59 p.m. Saturday.
	B.	It will allow calls to extension 9011 all day Sunday and from 11:00 a.m. to 11:59 p.m. Saturday.
	C.	It will block calls to extensions that begin with 90 all day Sunday and from 11:00 a.m. to 11:59 p.m. Saturday.
	D.	It will block calls to 911 all day Sunday and from 11:00 a.m. to 11:59 p.m. Saturday.
	E.	It will block international calls all day Sunday and from 11:00 a.m. to 11:59 p.m. Saturday.

14.

A customer is currently using a keysystem but is upgrading to Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. When the topic of configuring the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express in keysystem mode comes up, the customer is hesitant. He thinks he might want to use PBX mode. What are you going to tell the customer?

	A.	Don’t worry. If we configure it as a keysystem, it can be changed to PBX mode by selecting PBX mode from the Device tab in CCA.
	B.	If you choose to use PBX mode, you will need to purchase the PBX mode license.
	C.	PBX and keysystem mode are pretty much the same, so it doesn’t matter what you pick.
	D.	I need to decide before I configure the system because after I select the mode, I cannot change it in CCA.

15.

From the graphical view of the front panel on the UC500, which of the following configurations can be accessed? (Choose all that apply.)

	A.	Speed
	B.	Duplex
	C.	Power
	D.	IP address

16.

What do you do in CCA to enable the ability to add intercom lines to phones?

	A.	Choose Telephony > Voice > Voice Features and select the Enable Intercom check box.
	B.	Choose Telephony > Voice > User Features and select the Enable Intercom check box.
	C.	Choose Telephony > Voice > Voice Features and select the Intercom check box.
	D.	Choose Telephony > Voice Features and select the Intercom check box.

17.

A customer is interested in the Caller ID Block Code feature. What would you tell her about it?

	A.	It is a 4-digit number that must begin with a *. When a user dials this code followed by a 10-digit number, the 10-digit number he entered will be sent as the caller ID.
	B.	It is a 4-digit number that must begin with a *. When a user dials this code, his caller ID will be blocked.
	C.	It is a 4-digit number that must begin with a *. When a user dials this code, his caller ID is blocked on local calls.
	D.	It is a 4-digit number that must begin with a *. When a user dials this code, his caller ID is blocked if the dialed number is in the outgoing Call Block Number List.

18.

What information is configured on the Network tab under Telephony > Voice in CCA? (Choose two.)

	A.	Cisco Unity Express IP address
	B.	Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express IP address
	C.	DHCP scope
	D.	TFTP address
	E.	DNS

19.

When configuring the Auto Attendant from CCA, when do the script parameters need to be configured?

	A.	When the Default AA Script is selected
	B.	When the Default AA Script is not selected
	C.	When the Main AA Script is selected
	D.	When the Main AA Script is not selected

20.

How is signaling accomplished by the CO to ring the phone in loop start?

	A.	Contact closure
	B.	Switch hook
	C.	AC ring voltage
	D.	M-lead

21.

What type of phone configuration causes the phone to call a predetermined number when off-hook?

	A.	PLAR
	B.	E&M
	C.	Loop Start
	D.	Ground Start

22.

What type of E&M signaling is not supported on Cisco routers?

	A.	Type I
	B.	Type II
	C.	Type III
	D.	Type IV

23.

Which of the following commands is part of a pickup group configuration?

	A.	`ephone-pickup 101`
	B.	`pickup-number 1000`
	C.	`pickup-group 808`
	D.	`group-pickup 809`

24.

What are the valid line-coding formats for T1 circuits? (Choose two.)

	A.	AMI
	B.	HDB3
	C.	B8ZS
	D.	CRC4

25.

What is the speed of a T1 CAS circuit?

	A.	64Kbps
	B.	2.048Mbps
	C.	144Kbps
	D.	1.544Mbps

26.

The PSTN and service provider environment is made up of physical devices, communications circuits, and communications protocols. Which of the following answers are considered PSTN components? (Choose two.)

	A.	Telephones
	B.	CO switches
	C.	SS7
	D.	PBX

27.

Which of the following statements best describe the differences between keysystems and PBX systems? (Choose two.)

	A.	PBX systems have additional advanced features not found in keysystems.
	B.	PBX systems are used in smaller organizations, and keysystems are found in larger organizations.
	C.	PBX systems are only used in organizations that have at least 1,000 users.
	D.	Keysystems typically provide all line appearances on each phone; PBX systems use internal extensions.
	E.	Key systems are only used in organizations that have 10 or fewer users.

28.

DTMF is used to provide telephone keypad digits using which of the following methodologies?

	A.	Generating a unique analog frequency for each digit
	B.	Generating 100ms pulses 10ms apart
	C.	Changing frequencies to indicate the digit dialed
	D.	Generating four low and four high frequencies, with each digit represented by a combination of one low and one high frequency

29.

The analog-to-digital conversion process follows which of the following sequences?

	A.	Compress the signal, quantize the signal, sample the signal, and encode the value
	B.	Sample the signal, encode the value, quantize the signal, and compress the signal
	C.	Sample the signal, quantize the signal, encode the value, and compress the signal
	D.	Quantize the signal, compress the signal, sample the signal, and encode the value

30.

Voice gateway DSP resources provide media termination points to enhance voice services and functions. Which of the following features are provided over and above standard analog and digital voice termination? (Choose two.)

	A.	Conversion of G.729 to PAM
	B.	Conferencing
	C.	Speakerphone
	D.	Transcoding
	E.	Routing of call signaling to the correct phone number
	F.	Voice media splicing

31.

Which protocol is responsible for packetizing incoming digital or analog voice traffic into IP packets for transport over the IP network?

	A.	IP
	B.	cRTP
	C.	UDP
	D.	RTP
	E.	Frame Relay
	F.	Ethernet

32.

Which of the following protocols is used to provide QoS feedback to the media stream source about an RTP stream?

	A.	SMTP
	B.	RADIUS
	C.	RTCP
	D.	cRTP

33.

VoIP samples are encapsulated in RTP, UDP, and IP headers. Assuming that there are no optional header fields, how many bytes of information are required for these three headers?

	A.	4
	B.	12
	C.	20
	D.	40
	E.	48
	F.	64

34.

Why is 802.1Q trunking used to connect two Ethernet switches? (Choose two.)

	A.	Standards-based multi-VLAN trunking
	B.	To allow clients to see the 802.1Q header
	C.	To provide inter-VLAN communications over a bridge
	D.	To load-balance traffic between parallel links using STP
	E.	To provide voice and data VLANs on a shared physical connection

35.

Excessive traffic levels on Layer 2 switches impact voice quality. Which of the following is most likely to create excessive Layer 2 traffic?

	A.	Flood storm
	B.	Broadcast storm
	C.	Loop overload
	D.	Broadcast overload

36.

Which of the following commands correctly configures a router’s FastEthernet or GigabitEthernet subinterface to process VLAN 50 traffic across an 802.1Q trunk connection to a switch?

	A.	`Router(config)#` `encapsulation 50 dot1Q`
	B.	`Router(config-if)#` `encapsulation 50 802.1Q`
	C.	`Router(config)#` `encapsulation 802.1Q 50`
	D.	`Router(config-if)#` `encapsulation dot1Q 50`

37.

Which of the following IP addressing schemes provides security and data separation?

	A.	Statically apply IP addresses to IP phones to ensure stability.
	B.	Apply public IP addresses to IP phones so that they can be reached from the PSTN.
	C.	Use DHCP to provide separate voice and data subnets with private IP addresses.
	D.	Deploy IP phones on the same subnet as data devices.

38.

When is the IP DHCP relay feature not required?

	A.	If the DHCP server does not have a local interface on the network with the DHCP clients
	B.	When the DHCP request-and-response process is not broadcast
	C.	To relay the proprietary DHCP request of an IP phone to the standard DHCP request understood by the Cisco IOS Software
	D.	If IP phones, data devices, and the DHCP server all reside on the same subnet

39.

The ITU-T specifies which of the following values as an acceptable one-way, end-to-end delay for voice transmission?

	A.	15ms
	B.	150ms
	C.	200ms
	D.	300ms

40.

Which of the following transport layer protocols is used to carry real-time IP traffic?

	A.	UDP
	B.	TCP
	C.	XNS
	D.	HTTP

41.

Which of the following transport protocols is used to carry IP traffic that is not sensitive to potential packet drops and retransmissions?

	A.	UDP
	B.	TCP
	C.	XNS
	D.	HTTP

42.

Which of the following voice components is connected to an FXS port?

	A.	CO analog trunk
	B.	Tie line
	C.	Fax machine
	D.	ISDN line
	E.	Q.931 line

43.

Which statement best describes voice gateway call legs?

	A.	A logical connection between two devices
	B.	A voice gateway map between incoming and outgoing call terminations
	C.	Instructions on how to route the call
	D.	Connection across a VoIP network to the IP address of a voice gateway
	E.	Signaling mechanism used in VoIP

44.

Which properties are defined on VoIP dial peers? (Choose three.)

	A.	Frequency range
	B.	Codec
	C.	DSP function
	D.	Fax rate
	E.	VAD
	F.	Sampling rate

45.

VoIP dial peers send calls to which of the following targets?

	A.	Port number
	B.	IP address
	C.	Call leg
	D.	Virtual voice port

46.

What is the maximum number of users that a Cisco Unity Express Network Module platform can support?

	A.	8
	B.	100
	C.	250
	D.	500
	E.	3000
	F.	7500

47.

Which Cisco Unity Express platform can support up to a maximum of 100 user mailboxes?

	A.	Cisco Unity Express AIM
	B.	Cisco Unity Express Network Module
	C.	Cisco Unity Express Slot Module
	D.	Cisco Unity Express Network Module 2V
	E.	Cisco Unity Express Network Module Enhanced Capacity

48.

Which Cisco Unity Express module supports up to 14 hours of messages?

	A.	Cisco Unity Express AIM
	B.	Cisco Unity Express Network Module
	C.	Cisco Unity Express Slot Module
	D.	Cisco Unity Express Network Module 2V
	E.	Cisco Unity Express Network Module Enhanced Capacity

49.

AVT or TUI can be used to accomplish which of the following tasks by dialing in either locally or from the PSTN?

	A.	To restart the system
	B.	To initiate a backup of the system
	C.	To activate an EAG
	D.	To manage system or user prompts
	E.	To allow an end user to have an email read to her

50.

What is the main difference between the storage media of the Cisco Unity Express Network Module and the Cisco Unity Express AIM?

	A.	Cisco Unity Express AIM uses flash-based storage, and Cisco Unity Express Network Modules use hard drive–based storage.
	B.	Cisco Unity Express AIM uses hard drive–based storage, and Cisco Unity Express Network Modules use flash-based storage.
	C.	Cisco Unity Express AIM and Cisco Unity Express Network Modules use different operating systems.
	D.	Cisco Unity Express AIM and Cisco Unity Express Network Modules use different installation packages for the various modules.

51.

Under which of the following instances would the original Cisco Unity Express installation software be required?

	A.	To install a new Cisco Unity Express platform
	B.	To upgrade a new Cisco Unity Express platform
	C.	After replacing a failed Cisco Unity Express platform
	D.	To delete Cisco Unity Express platform features

52.

Proper configuration of the Cisco Unity Express host router is crucial to provide access to voicemail features. Which of the following functions must be configured on the host router? (Choose three.)

	A.	Proper IP addressing of the service-engine interface
	B.	Proper IP addressing of the router Cisco Unity Express interface
	C.	Valid Cisco Unity Express IP route propagation
	D.	Static route to the external Ethernet port of the module
	E.	Proper IP addressing of the Cisco Unity Express service module
	F.	Ephone-dns for the pilot of Cisco Unity Express voicemail

53.

Which of the following telephony-service commands are required to generate individual configuration files for the SCCP IP phones connected to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express host? (Choose two.)

	A.	`config-generate`
	B.	`create-cnf`
	C.	`cnf-file perphone`
	D.	`tftp-server <``url``>`
	E.	`load <``phone type``> <``filename``>`

54.

Backup and restore capabilities are crucial for long-term maintenance of any telephony system. Which two protocols can be employed by Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express and the Cisco UC500 series telephony systems for this purpose? (Choose two.)

	A.	SMTP
	B.	SCCP
	C.	FTP
	D.	SIP
	E.	TFTP

55.

The UC520 powers up with a preconfigured default configuration. Which of the following are correct statements concerning the default configuration?

	A.	DHCP is not enabled by default.
	B.	The default credential is a username of cisco with a password of cisco.
	C.	The default IP address is 10.10.10.1.
	D.	Phones will be automatically detected and assigned extensions starting with 201.

56.

New enhanced features have been released for your UC500 series installation, and you want to upgrade the Cisco IOS and the Cisco Unity Express version on the UC500. You decide to use the CCA Upgrade feature to do this. Which of the following must be performed to complete this task? (Choose two.)

	A.	Choose Maintenance > Software Upgrade from the Feature bar and use the Software Upgrade window.
	B.	Create a `.zip` file that contains all the required application software.
	C.	Drag the `.zip` file that contains the update files from a local folder and drop it on the UC500 icon in the Topology view.
	D.	None of these answers is correct, because you cannot upgrade both operating systems at the same time using CCA.

57.

When the UC500 is activated, which of the following statements are true about the PBX operating characteristics? (Choose all that apply.)

	A.	PBX mode is the default mode.
	B.	Most phones are configured with the same directory numbers.
	C.	In PBX mode, calls can be routed to an operator or Auto Attendant.
	D.	PBX mode is only used when integrating the UC500 with a traditional PBX.

58.

You just had a SIP trunk installed and are tasked with configuring it on the UC500. Which of the following information is needed?

	A.	The SIP proxy server IP address
	B.	The fully qualified domain names (FQDNs) provided by the service provider
	C.	The SIP proxy domain name
	D.	The SIP trunk SPID
	E.	The MWI SIP server IP address

Table of Contents for
Chapter 16. Practice Exam 1

Chapter 16 Practice Exam 1

Table of Contents for Chapter 16. Practice Exam 1

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Chapter 16 Practice Exam 1

Table of Contents for
Chapter 16. Practice Exam 1