Chapter 18. Practice Exam 2

Search in book...
Toggle Font Controls
Create new playlist

Name your new playlist

Playlist description (optional)
Sign In

Email address

Password

Forgot Password?

or

Continue with Facebook

Continue with Google
Sign Up

Full Name

Email address

Confirm Email Address

Password

or

Continue with Facebook

Continue with Google

Chapter 18 Practice Exam 2

The 58 multiple-choice questions provided here help you determine how prepared you are for the actual exam and what topics you need to review further. Write down your answers on a separate sheet of paper so that you can take this exam again if necessary. Compare your answers against the answer key that follows this exam.

Which of the following are peer-to-peer signaling protocols?

	A.	H.323
	B.	MGCP
	C.	SIP
	D.	RTP
	E.	SCCP

Imagine there are two gateways connected to each other through IP and an analog phone is plugged into each gateway. If a call were set up between the analog phones, how many call legs would there be?

	A.	1
	B.	3
	C.	4
	D.	6

What is the maximum number of phones that Cisco Unified CME supports?

	A.	100
	B.	325
	C.	175
	D.	240

What command sets the maximum number of ephones?

	A.	`maximum-ephones`
	B.	`ephones-max`
	C.	`maxephones`
	D.	`max-ephones`

Which of the following sets of commands is not valid?

	A.	`Router(config)#` `ephone-dn 101`
		`Router(config-ephone-dn)#` `call-forward noan 2000`
	B.	`Router(config)#` `ephone-dn 101`
		`Router(config-ephone-dn)#` `call-forward busy 2000`
	C.	`Router(config)#` `ephone-dn 101`
		`Router(config-ephone-dn)#` `call-forward all 2000`
	D.	`Router(config)#` `ephone-dn 101`
		`Router(config-ephone-dn)#` `call-forward noasw 2000`

What two graphical views does CCA offer?

	A.	Topology
	B.	Current traffic volume
	C.	Front panel
	D.	Auto Attendant call flow

When configuring hunt groups using CCA, what effect does setting the second hunt group hunt type to sequential have on the other hunt groups?

	A.	It will cause calls sent to the second hunt group to forward to the third hunt group.
	B.	It will allow hunt groups to forward calls to other hunt groups.
	C.	Unanswered calls from the first hunt group will be forwarded to the second hunt group.
	D.	It will have no effect on the other hunt groups.

Which of the following statements about signaling protocols are true? (Choose two.)

	A.	H.323 is an open-standard, peer-to-peer protocol.
	B.	MGCP is an open-standard, peer-to-peer protocol.
	C.	H.323 is an open-standard, client/server protocol.
	D.	MGCP is an open-standard, client/server protocol.

Imagine there are two gateways connected to each other through IP and an analog phone is plugged into each gateway. Which type of dial peer would be configured to allow the gateways to route calls between each other?

	A.	POTS
	B.	VoIP
	C.	VOICE-IP
	D.	IP-VoIP

10.

What is the maximum number of directory numbers that Cisco Unified CME supports?

	A.	240
	B.	480
	C.	720
	D.	960

11.

Which of the following statements about full-consult transfers is most accurate?

	A.	Full-consult transfers will be transferred with consultation using a supported standard method.
	B.	Full-consult transfers will be transferred with consultation using a supported standard method but require a second line. If a second line is not available, the transfer will fail.
	C.	Full-consult transfers will be transferred with consultation using a supported standard method but require a second line. If a second line is not available, an H.450.12 transfer will be used.
	D.	Full-consult transfers will be transferred with consultation using a supported standard method but require a second line (dual-line). If a second line is not available, a blind transfer will be used.

12.

Which port on a UC500 is used to connect the device to an Internet provider?

	A.	Expansion port
	B.	WAN port
	C.	DSL port
	D.	External port

13.

Which of the following statements about keysystem mode are true?

	A.	Keysystem mode is the default mode.
	B.	In keysystem mode, calls are routed to an operator or Auto Attendant.
	C.	Most phones are configured the same in keysystem mode.
	D.	Keysystem mode is only used when integrating the UC500 with a traditional key system.

14.

Which statement best describes MGCP?

	A.	The Media Gateway Control Protocol (MGCP) is an IETF-standard peer-to-peer protocol.
	B.	The Media Gateway Control Protocol (MGCP) is an IETF-standard client/server protocol. Unlike SCCP, MGCP does not need a server to instruct what action to perform.
	C.	The Media Gateway Control Protocol (MGCP) is an IETF-standard client/server protocol and operates much the same way as H.323.
	D.	The Media Gateway Control Protocol (MGCP) is an IETF-standard client/server protocol.

15.

Which of the following statements about dial peers are correct? (Choose two.)

	A.	A VoIP dial peer’s session target is the IP address of the destination device.
	B.	A POTS dial peer contains a `port` command to determine where to route the call.
	C.	The dial peer tag number must be unique and within the range 100–1024.
	D.	Dial peer 0 is used to match all inbound calls.

16.

The maximum number of phones that can register to a Cisco Unified CME is determined by which of the following?

	A.	License.
	B.	Platform.
	C.	Type of phones.
	D.	All the options provided are correct.

17.

Based on the following configuration, which statement is true?

Router# config t Router(config)# ephone-dn 101 Router(config-ephone-dn)# number 2000 Router(config-ephone-dn)# exit Router(config)# ephone 10 Router(config-ephone)# mac-address 00CC.0001.A123.1ABF Router(config-ephone)# button 4m101

	A.	Ephone-dn 101 would be assigned to the fourth button and would be used to monitor the status of the extension assigned to ephone-dn 101. This line could be used to place or receive calls.
	B.	Ephone-dn 101 would be assigned to the fourth button and would be used to receive multiple (many) calls.
	C.	Ephone-dn 101 would be assigned to the fourth button and configured as a multi-dn.
	D.	Ephone-dn 101 would be assigned to the fourth button and would be used to monitor the status of the extension assigned to ephone-dn 101. This line could not be used to place or receive calls.

18.

Which statement is true about the following call park configuration?

Router(config)# ephone-dn 121 Router(config-ephone-dn)# number 5510 Router(config-ephone-dn)# park-slot timeout 12 limit 7 notify 2002
transfer 2010 alternate 2012

	A.	The call park number is 121.
	B.	A reminder tone is played every 7 seconds.
	C.	Only extension 2002 receives a reminder.
	D.	The call is transferred to extension 2010 after the limit count has been reached, and if 2010 is busy, the call is transferred to 2012.

19.

Which of the following features can be configured using CCA? (Choose all that apply.)

	A.	Dial plan
	B.	Cisco Unified Communications 500 PBX configuration
	C.	Autodiscovery of supported devices
	D.	VLANs

20.

When configuring voicemail using CCA, where would you enter the internal pilot number for voicemail?

	A.	The Auto Attendant Extension field
	B.	The Auto Attendant PSTN Number field
	C.	The Voicemail Access Extension field
	D.	The Voicemail Access PSTN Number field

21.

You are going to deploy gateways in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express environment, and your customer has requested that you use a signaling protocol that supports voice, video, and data. Furthermore, he would like a protocol that is an open standard. Based on these requirements, which protocol would you choose?

	A.	PIMG
	B.	DMTF
	C.	H.323
	D.	MGCP
	E.	SMDI

22.

Which of the following lines would not be part of a POTS dial peer?

	A.	`dial-peer voice 10 POTS`
	B.	`destination-pattern 1...`
	C.	`session target 10.10.1.2`
	D.	`preference 0`

23.

What type of CCS circuit supplies 2B+D?

	A.	PRI
	B.	BRI
	C.	T1
	D.	E1

24.

When selecting an MOH file using CCA, which of the following statements is true?

	A.	The audio file must be uploaded to the flash before selecting it in CCA.
	B.	The audio file will be uploaded to the flash when it is selected in CCA.
	C.	The file must be in RTP format.
	D.	The file must be recorded in a-law au format.

25.

Which of the following is not a security feature of SBCS?

	A.	Network Address Translation.
	B.	Standard IEEE 802.1X on switch.
	C.	Cisco IOS Firewall.
	D.	Cisco Easy VPN Remote and Server support.
	E.	None of the options provided is correct.

26.

Which of the following PSTN components communicate using SS7?

	A.	Central office customer trunks
	B.	Central office switches
	C.	Central office private tie lines
	D.	Central office channel banks

27.

Numbering plans have an authority that regulates number distribution and which of the following items?

	A.	A numbering plan that mandates an international standard.
	B.	A numbering plan that is a set of rules used to construct numbers.
	C.	A numbering plan that is an internal set of rules configured on a PBX.
	D.	The NANP regulates all numbering plans.

28.

A public telephone number consists of a country code, a national destination code, and a subscriber number. Which international standard requires these three components?

	A.	H.323
	B.	SIP
	C.	E.164
	D.	Q.931
	E.	QSIG

29.

The Nyquist Theorem is best described by which of the following statements?

	A.	Sample at the same rate as the highest frequency to ensure that the signal can be accurately reconstructed at the receiver.
	B.	Sample at twice the rate of the highest frequency to ensure that the signal can be accurately reconstructed at the receiver.
	C.	Capture frequencies up to 4000Hz.
	D.	Capture frequencies up to 8000Hz.

30.

Which of the following protocol headers contains a sequence number, a payload type, and a time stamp?

	A.	IP
	B.	TCP
	C.	UDP
	D.	RTP
	E.	FTP

31.

Which codec variant provides voice activity detection (VAD) and comfort noise generation (CNG)?

	A.	G.711 ulaw
	B.	G.711 alaw
	C.	Annex C
	D.	Annex B

32.

G.711 and G.729 codecs are most commonly used in Cisco Unified Communications deployments. How much bandwidth is used for voice samples using these two codecs, respectively?

	A.	64Kbps, 8Kbps
	B.	8Kbps, 32Kbps
	C.	16Kbps, 64Kbps
	D.	8Kbps, 64Kbps

33.

Which of the following is responsible for compressing the standard VoIP headers from 40 bytes to 2 bytes on Cisco point-to-point connections?

	A.	RTCP
	B.	RTP
	C.	cRTP
	D.	sRTP

34.

Which IP protocol requires Cisco IOS configuration commands for each file used to provide IP phone images during the initial registration process?

	A.	HTTP
	B.	DHCP
	C.	FTP
	D.	TFTP

35.

NTP services can be configured on many Cisco devices, but there is a best-practice method that should be used. Which of the following could be considered best practice? (Choose two.)

	A.	Reference a public NTP server from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router.
	B.	Use the CLI `clock set` command on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router.
	C.	Use the GUI to set the date and time on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router.
	D.	Purchase an atomic or radio clock as an internal NTP source.

36.

What information does XMLDefault.cnf.xml or SEP001BD5086771.cnf contain that is used by an IP phone to synchronize the operating image?

	A.	The default language
	B.	The NTP-synchronized time
	C.	The filename used to update phone images
	D.	The ring tones used in the installation

37.

Which of the following command sequences would be used to deliver firmware file SCCP41.8-3-3S.loads at the request of a Cisco IP phone?

	A.	`ftp-server flash:/SCCP41.8-3-3S.loads`
		`telephony-service`
		`load 7941 SCCP41.8-3-3S.loads`
	B.	`tftp-server flash:/SCCP41.8-3-3S.loads`
		`telephony-service`
		`load 7941 SCCP41.8-3-3S`
	C.	`tftp-server flash:/SCCP41.8-3-3S`
		`telephony-service`
		`load 7941 SCCP41.8-3-3S`
	D.	`ftp-server SCCP41.8-3-3S.loads`
		`telephony-service`
		`load 7941 SCCP41.8-3-3S.loads`

38.

What can be defined when the network topology, traffic types, and traffic levels have been gathered prior to a new Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express implementation?

	A.	Policy map
	B.	Class map
	C.	QoS policy
	D.	Link configuration options

39.

How many different DSCP values are available for QoS classification?

	A.	8
	B.	16
	C.	32
	D.	64

40.

Which of the following commands will provide dynamic QoS operation for Cisco IP phones plugged into a switch port (QoS enabled when the phone is plugged in, QoS disabled when the phone is not plugged in)?

	A.	`Switch(conf)#` `auto qos voip trust`
	B.	`Switch(conf-if)#` `auto qos voip cisco-phone`
	C.	`Switch(conf)#` `auto qos voip cisco-phone`
	D.	`Switch(conf-if)#` `auto qos voip trust`

41.

What happens to an HDLC circuit when the bandwidth command on the interface is 768Kbps or less and AutoQoS is applied to the interface? (Choose three.)

	A.	RTP header compression is automatically activated.
	B.	A QoS policy is automatically generated.
	C.	The encapsulation is changed from HDLC to PPPoE.
	D.	The encapsulation is changed from HDLC to PPP.

42.

Which of the following items are benefits of an ITSP? (Choose three.)

	A.	Per-line cost is lower
	B.	Uses Q.931
	C.	Can be purchased in groups of 23
	D.	Uses SIP or H.323
	E.	Has unlimited number of simultaneous connections
	F.	Never has long-distance charges
	G.	Can be provisioned in increments of one circuit

43.

After the voice gateway strips off the left-justified matched digits 0 through 9 on a POTS dial peer call, what are the remaining digits called?

	A.	Leftover digits
	B.	Wildcard digits
	C.	Called digits
	D.	Lucky digits

44.

What command allows you to expand an extension into a full telephone number or replace one number with another?

	A.	`prefix`
	B.	`forward-digits`
	C.	`num-exp`
	D.	`expando`

45.

A VoIP dial peer has the following properties: no vad, codec G711ulaw, DTMF relay using SIP Notify messages, and SIP version 2. This dial peer can be used to connect to which Cisco Unified Communications Express component?

	A.	Hardware conferencing
	B.	Cisco Unity Express
	C.	An Internet telephony service provider
	D.	A remote VPIM location

46.

A VoIP dial peer with a destination pattern of 2199.... could be used to activate which phone features? (Choose two.)

	A.	MWI on
	B.	Call park
	C.	Group paging
	D.	Group Call pickup
	E.	MWI off

47.

Which Cisco Unified Communications Express component requires the IP address and the web administrator to be configured prior to using the integrated administration GUI on the host router?

	A.	Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
	B.	Cisco Unity Connection
	C.	Cisco Unity Express
	D.	Cisco IP Contact Center Express

48.

Which of the following options can be used to connect to Cisco Unity Express during the installation and upgrade processes?

	A.	Use Telnet to connect to the default Cisco Unity Express IP address of 192.168.1.1.
	B.	Connect a PC using a crossover cable to the external Ethernet port on the module and use DHCP.
	C.	Connect a console cable to the Cisco Unity Express module.
	D.	Go across the backplane of the router to the virtual console port on the Cisco Unity Express module.

49.

Which of the following items are configured with the Initialization Wizard? (Choose two.)

	A.	Host name
	B.	IP address of the Cisco Unity Express module
	C.	Call-in numbers
	D.	Users
	E.	Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express system credentials

50.

You are sent to a customer for the first time to identify and correct a voicemail problem. Which of the following commands can be used to identify the version of software currently installed and running on the Cisco Unity Express module?

	A.	`Router#` `service-engine service-module` `mod``/``port` `status`
	B.	`Router(config)#` `service-module service-engine` `mod``/``port` `status`
	C.	`Router#` `service-module service-engine` `mod``/``port` `status`
	D.	`Router(config)#` `service-engine service-module` `mod``/``port` `status`
	E.	`Router(config)#` `service-engine` `mod``/``port` `status`
	F.	`Router#` `service-engine` `mod``/``port` `status`

51.

MWI indicators are not working when voicemail messages are left in user mailboxes. Which of the following commands can be used to identify outcall MWI problems? (Choose two.)

	A.	`Router#` `debug ephone voicemail`
	B.	`Router#` `debug ephone vm-integration`
	C.	`Router#` `debug ephone mwi`
	D.	`Router#` `debug voip dialpeer all`

52.

Debugging output is being sent to the console display when connected to the console port of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. Which of the following commands will turn off the debug commands? (Choose two.)

	A.	`show debug output`
	B.	`no debug all`
	C.	`debug ephone`
	D.	`undebug all`

53.

When debugging a problem with Cisco Unity Communications Manager Express using a Telnet session, which of the following commands can be used to disable messages to the console port?

	A.	`Router(config)#` `no console logging`
	B.	`Router#` `show debug output`
	C.	`Router#` `terminal monitor`
	D.	`Router(config)#` `logging buffer 64000`

54.

Which of the following IOS CLI commands displays the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express IOS version number and feature set?

	A.	`show debug output`
	B.	`show version`
	C.	`show ephones`
	D.	`show telephony-service`
	E.	`show ephone-dns`

55.

Which of the following options are available for ephone hunt groups? (Choose two.)

	A.	Sequential
	B.	Broadcast
	C.	Parallel
	D.	Peer

56.

Preparing for an installation of an SBCS system, you learn that the customer has decided to allow employees to connect from home one day per week. Which of the following security features would you use to implement this service?

	A.	NAT
	B.	VPN
	C.	Firewall
	D.	PAT

57.

There are six monitoring graphs displayed by default with the Health monitoring feature. Which of the following statistics are graphed on this screen? (Choose two.)

	A.	Voice port utilization
	B.	PoE utilization
	C.	Flash memory utilization
	D.	CPU utilization

58.

Software upgrades for the UC500 components are highly automated. How many files are required to upgrade all the components?

	A.	1
	B.	2
	C.	27
	D.	43

..................Content has been hidden....................

You can't read the all page of ebook, please click here login for view all page.

Table of Contents for Chapter 18. Practice Exam 2

Create new playlist

Sign In

Sign Up

Chapter 18 Practice Exam 2

Table of Contents for
Chapter 18. Practice Exam 2